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Chap 1-6 Supply Chain Management Quiz

Total questions: 106

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the chapter, what is a key differentiator between logistics management and supply chain management (SCM)?

a)

Logistics is more important than SCM.

b)

Logistics focuses on integration, while SCM focuses on individual functions.

c)

SCM has a broader focus, encompassing logistics and other activities.

d)

There is no significant difference between the two terms.

2.

The definition of SCM provided by Simchi-Levi et al. (2008) primarily emphasizes:

a)

Maximizing sales and marketing efforts across the chain.

b)

Efficiently integrating suppliers, manufacturers, warehouses, and stores.

c)

Focusing solely on reducing transportation and inventory costs.

d)

Managing only the internal operations and production of a firm.

3.

A fundamental goal of Supply Chain Management is to:

a)

Maximize inventory levels to ensure no stock-outs occur.

b)

Optimize each business function in isolation for peak performance.

c)

Minimize total system-wide cost while satisfying service requirements.

d)

Focus primarily on maximizing manufacturing output and capacity.

4.

Which of the following is NOT typically listed as a key element of a supply chain network?

a)

Facilities and transport systems.

b)

Inventories and information systems.

c)

Marketing campaigns and sales strategies.

d)

Material flows and value-creating activities.

5.

According to Mentzer et al. (2001), which activity is a core component of SCM?

a)

Independent behavior among chain members.

b)

Mutually sharing information, risks, and rewards.

c)

Focusing on individual company goals and profits.

d)

Maintaining short-term transactional relationships.

6.

What makes achieving global optimization in supply chains particularly difficult?

a)

The supply chain is a simple, linear process with aligned objectives.

b)

Different facilities in the chain often have conflicting objectives.

c)

Customer demand and supplier capabilities remain constant over time.

d)

Seasonal fluctuations and competitors' strategies have minimal impact.

7.

Which of the following is cited as a major challenge in managing supply chain uncertainty?

a)

Forecasting is always accurate and solves demand issues.

b)

Inventory and back-order levels remain stable across the chain.

c)

Demand fluctuations and supply disruptions create variability.

d)

Seasonal demand patterns are predictable and manageable.

8.

Matching supply and demand is difficult due to what reason?

a)

Lack of technology in supply chain management.

b)

Overproduction in the supply chain.

c)

Demand is the only source of uncertainty in the supply chain.

d)

Various uncertainties.

9.

The evolution of SCM capabilities, as shown in the chapter, progressed through stages that included:

a)

A shift from JIT and TQM directly to traditional mass manufacturing.

b)

Inventory management, JIT/TQM, SCM formation, and further refinement.

c)

A focus solely on cost optimization without any process improvements.

d)

Starting with strategic alliances before any inventory management practices.

10.

Which benefit was Procter & Gamble (P&G) able to achieve through effective supply chain management?

a)

They eliminated the need for all suppliers.

b)

They saved retail customers $65 million through logistics gains.

c)

They increased their product prices significantly.

d)

They reduced the number of their retail customers.

11.

What role does technology play in modern supply chain management according to the chapter?

a)

Technology is minor and not central to SCM operations.

b)

IT enables communication, better decision-making, and coordination.

c)

Technology only helps in manufacturing but not in logistics.

d)

IT functions are limited to tracking tools like RFID.

12.

The SCOR model, an industry standard for SCM, includes which set of performance measures?

a)

Cost, Quality, Speed, Flexibility, and Innovation.

b)

Reliability, Responsiveness, Agility, Cost, and Asset Management.

c)

Efficiency, Effectiveness, Productivity, Profitability, and Growth.

d)

Planning, Sourcing, Making, Delivering, and Returning.

13.

Which of the following is considered a "Key Issue" in SCM at the infrastructural dimension?

a)

Distribution network configuration and inventory control.

b)

Location of manufacturing plants and warehouse structures.

c)

Information sharing, strategic partnering, and outsourcing.

d)

Day-to-day activities like scheduling and vehicle loading.

14.

The concept of a "Virtual Enterprise" in new SCM business models emphasizes:

a)

Adversarial relationships with suppliers and customers.

b)

Collaborative business relationships enabled by IT.

c)

Operating without any information technology.

d)

Focusing only on internal organizational integration.

15.

What was a key factor in Dell Computer's significant outperformance of competition in shareholder value growth?

a)

Their focus on traditional retail channels.

b)

Their reliance on third-party logistics providers.

c)

Operating without information technology.

d)

Their ability to integrate technology and supply chain management.

16.

According to Christopher (2005), what is a significant breakthrough in modern management thinking?

a)

Businesses now focus solely on internal efficiency.

b)

Businesses compete as individual, stand-alone entities.

c)

Businesses now compete as integrated supply chains.

d)

The primary goal of business has shifted to cost reduction.

17.

The concept of a "business ecosystem" in SCM suggests that firms should:

a)

Work in isolation to protect their trade secrets.

b)

Engage in co-evolution rather than just competition.

c)

Focus only on relationships with direct customers.

d)

Prioritize shareholder value above all else.

18.

According to Porter's Value Chain model, which category is considered a Primary Activity?

a)

Human Resource Management.

b)

Technology Development.

c)

Procurement.

d)

Outbound Logistics.

19.

The ultimate value a firm creates, according to Porter, is measured by:

a)

The total cost of production.

b)

The amount buyers are willing to pay.

c)

The efficiency of its supply chain.

d)

The market share it captures.

20.

Which of the following is a key dimension of customer value discussed in the chapter?

a)

Employee Satisfaction.

b)

Conformance to Requirements.

c)

Shareholder Dividends.

d)

Government Regulations.

21.

To manage the challenge of product proliferation, a company might use the strategy of:

a)

Increasing the number of product variants.

b)

Offering a fixed set of options for most customers.

c)

Eliminating all value-added services.

d)

Decentralizing all inventory points.

22.

Revenue Management is best defined as a method that:

a)

Focuses only on minimizing operational costs.

b)

Integrates pricing and inventory to influence demand.

c)

Sets a single fixed price for all customer segments.

d)

Prioritizes cost-plus pricing strategies.

23.

The main goal of customized pricing strategies, like mail-in rebates, is to:

a)

Simplify the pricing structure for all customers.

b)

Distinguish customers based on price sensitivity.

c)

Ensure all customers pay the same final price.

d)

Transfer all pricing power to the retailer.

24.

A key advantage for a manufacturer using a mail-in rebate instead of a wholesale price cut is:

a)

It guarantees that all customers will claim the discount.

b)

It gives the manufacturer better control over pricing.

c)

It simplifies the profit calculation for the retailer.

d)

It eliminates the need for inventory management.

25.

Which of the following is a typical measure of customer value in a supply chain?

a)

The number of a company's shareholders.

b)

The percentage of orders delivered on time.

c)

The total square footage of warehouse space.

d)

The annual budget for marketing campaigns.

26.

Why might customer loyalty be a more reliable measure of satisfaction than surveys?

a)

Surveys are always inaccurate and biased.

b)

Loyalty reflects actual long-term customer behavior.

c)

Customer defection has no impact on business.

d)

Loyalty is easier to manipulate with discounts.

27.

In the strategic pricing example, why did manufacturers like Sharp use mail-in rebates?

a)

To encourage retailers to lower their order quantities.

b)

To provide an upside incentive for retailers to order more.

c)

To make the product seem more expensive initially.

d)

To avoid any direct interaction with the end customer.

28.

How does Information Technology (IT) primarily enhance customer value?

a)

By completely eliminating the need for human support.

b)

By increasing the importance of tangible product features.

c)

By enabling tailored experiences and mass customization.

d)

By focusing only on reducing internal business costs.

29.

A direct impact of a strong brand, as discussed in the chapter, is that it:

a)

Makes the supply chain less responsive to changes.

b)

Allows a company to ignore customer service levels.

c)

Can justify a higher price, offsetting supply chain costs.

d)

Reduces the need for any marketing and sales activities.

30.

Customer value drives changes in the supply chain and influences:

a)

The type of supply chain designed for a product.

b)

The annual financial reporting structure.

c)

The selection of a company's board of directors.

d)

The internal human resource policies.

31.

The primary purpose of a business, from an SCM perspective, is solely to maximize shareholder wealth.

a)

False

b)

True

32.

Inbound Logistics is classified as a Primary Activity in Porter's Value Chain model.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Customized pricing aims to charge all customers the same price to simplify the billing process.

a)

False

b)

True

34.

A company's brand can allow it to command a higher price, which can offset the costs of a more responsive supply chain.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

The percentage of orders delivered on or before the promised date is a common metric for measuring service level.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

What is a fundamental component of any supply chain network's basic structure?

a)

Marketing campaigns and brand identity.

b)

Facilities, transport systems, and inventory.

c)

Employee training programs and HR policies.

d)

Financial reporting and accounting systems.

37.

The primary objective of supply chain network design is to find a configuration that:

a)

Maximizes the number of warehouses and facilities.

b)

Minimizes only the transportation costs for outbound logistics.

c)

Balances customer service level against total annual costs.

d)

Focuses solely on minimizing production costs at plants.

38.

According to Ballou (1993), logistics/supply chain systems should be designed based on four areas, including:

a)

The color scheme of the company's logo.

b)

The location of the CEO's office.

c)

Customer service levels and facility location.

d)

The annual shareholder meeting location.

39.

What is a major trade-off when increasing the number of warehouses in a network?

a)

A guaranteed reduction in all types of costs.

b)

Improved service level but increased inventory costs.

c)

Simplified product assortment and fewer SKUs.

d)

Decreased importance of information technology.

40.

In network design, why is data aggregation for customers often necessary?

a)

To make the model less accurate but more colorful.

b)

To increase the cost and complexity of data processing.

c)

To reduce the size of the location model and manage data costs.

d)

To eliminate the need for considering transport costs.

41.

How are storage costs for a warehouse often estimated in network modeling?

a)

By the number of employees working in the warehouse.

b)

By using the inventory turnover ratio and holding cost.

c)

By the age of the warehouse building and its facilities.

d)

By the total square footage of the office space alone.

42.

Which factor is a key qualitative consideration in facility location decisions?

a)

The latitude and longitude of the potential site.

b)

The future demand and service level requirements.

c)

The favorite color of the logistics manager.

d)

The brand of materials handling equipment used.

43.

What is the purpose of the model and data validation step in network design?

a)

To ensure the model's output aligns with the existing network data.

b)

To delete all collected data and start the process over.

c)

To choose the most expensive solution possible.

d)

To ignore any inconsistencies in the data.

44.

A solution technique that is guaranteed to find the best possible solution is known as a(n):

a)

Simulation model.

b)

Heuristic algorithm.

c)

Exact algorithm.

d)

Educated guess.

45.

According to Hax and Candea, what is a recommended approach for using optimization and simulation models?

a)

Use simulation to generate solutions and optimization to evaluate them.

b)

Use only heuristics for all strategic decisions.

c)

Use optimization to generate solutions and simulation to evaluate them.

d)

Avoid using mathematical models entirely.

46.

Which cost is considered a fixed cost for a warehouse?

a)

Labor costs for handling goods.

b)

Costs of utilities like electricity and water.

c)

The cost of the warehouse building itself.

d)

Costs proportional to the inventory level.

47.

What is a key feature of a good Decision Support System (DSS) for network configuration?

a)

The ability to ignore managerial input for faster results.

b)

The flexibility to incorporate all relevant supply chain elements.

c)

A guarantee that the first solution generated is always the best.

d)

The use of only qualitative data for decision-making.

48.

In the context of the case study, why did the traditional heuristic approaches fail to find the optimal solution?

a)

They incorrectly calculated the production costs at each plant.

b)

They did not simultaneously consider all cost interactions in the network.

c)

They focused only on maximizing capacity utilization at Plant P2.

d)

They used simulation models instead of mathematical optimization.

49.

The four main components of a supply chain network are Facilities, Transport Systems, Inventory, and Information Systems.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

In network design, the key trade-off is between customer service level and the cost of raw materials only.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

What is the fundamental cause of the bullwhip effect in supply chains?

a)

Consistent and predictable customer demand.

b)

Distortion of demand information as it moves upstream.

c)

Excessive communication between supply chain partners.

d)

Standardized pricing across all markets.

52.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a consequence of the bullwhip effect?

a)

Increased safety stock levels across the chain.

b)

More efficient allocation of manufacturing resources.

c)

Higher transportation costs due to erratic shipping patterns.

d)

Increased costs for warehousing and inventory carrying.

53.

A key reason for the bullwhip effect is batch ordering. This occurs because:

a)

Companies always order exactly what they need, just-in-time.

b)

Firms order in large quantities to get volume discounts, creating lumpy demand for upstream partners.

c)

Suppliers require orders to be placed in exact multiples of ten.

d)

Customers demand immediate delivery of single items.

54.

What is the primary goal of centralizing demand information in a supply chain?

a)

To allow each stage to create more accurate forecasts based on actual customer demand.

b)

To hide real demand from competitors and protect market share.

c)

To complicate the forecasting process and justify higher safety stocks.

d)

To make the retailer solely responsible for all forecasting errors.

55.

According to the managerial insights, the bullwhip effect increases with:

a)

Shorter lead times and more complex demand models.

b)

Shorter lead times and fewer observations in forecasting.

c)

Longer lead times and fewer observations in forecasting.

d)

Longer lead times and simpler forecasting techniques.

56.

The strategy of "Everyday Low Pricing" (EDLP) helps reduce the bullwhip effect by:

a)

Encouraging frequent promotional sales and discounts.

b)

Increasing price fluctuations to attract different customer segments.

c)

Reducing variability in customer demand seen by the retailer.

d)

Making products more expensive to limit demand.

57.

What is a direct benefit of reducing lead times in a supply chain?

a)

It guarantees a higher profit margin on all products.

b)

It allows companies to completely eliminate all safety stock.

c)

It makes forecasts more accurate and reduces the bullwhip effect.

d)

It removes the need for any information technology systems.

58.

In a Vendor Managed Inventory (VMI) system:

a)

The customer is fully responsible for determining order quantities and timing.

b)

The supplier takes responsibility for managing inventory levels at the customer's location.

c)

A third-party logistics provider sets prices for the finished goods.

d)

The retailer and manufacturer avoid sharing any data with each other.

59.

The case study of Benetton's "Quick Response" strategy highlights the importance of:

a)

Using local suppliers only to reduce transport time.

b)

Linking manufacturing, warehousing, and retail via information technology.

c)

Focusing exclusively on cost reduction in manufacturing.

d)

Eliminating all wholesalers and distributors from their chain.

60.

What is the role of information in coordinating different subsystems within a supply chain?

a)

To ensure each subsystem optimizes its own performance in isolation.

b)

To create a holistic, win-win integration for all participants.

c)

To hide the operational objectives of one subsystem from another.

d)

To prioritize the manufacturing system above all others.

61.

Effective forecasting in supply chains is strongly correlated with:

a)

Keeping pricing and promotion plans secret from partners.

b)

Information sharing and collaboration among partners.

c)

Using the same forecasting model for every single product.

d)

Limiting the number of partners in the supply chain.

62.

The trade-off between "Lot Size and Inventory" can be managed by:

a)

Increasing batch sizes to maximize production efficiency.

b)

Using POS data to provide manufacturers with advance warnings of demand.

c)

Eliminating all safety stock to reduce carrying costs.

d)

Prioritizing transportation cost over all other factors.

63.

The concept that "information replaces inventory" in modern supply chains suggests that:

a)

Companies no longer need to hold any physical inventory.

b)

Better information flow can reduce the need for high inventory levels.

c)

Inventory management is no longer an important business function.

d)

Information technology is less valuable than warehouse space.

64.

Cross-docking is a strategy that helps to reduce:

a)

The need for any warehouse facilities.

b)

Product variety and customization options.

c)

Order lead times by minimizing storage time.

d)

The accuracy of demand forecasts.

65.

The primary purpose of Collaborative Planning, Forecasting, and Replenishment (CPFR) is to:

a)

Have each company use its own proprietary forecasting tool.

b)

Share information and use the same forecasting tools among partners.

c)

Ensure the retailer bears all costs of forecast inaccuracy.

d)

Limit information sharing to only two partners in the chain.

66.

True or False: The bullwhip effect describes the phenomenon where order variability decreases as information moves upstream toward the manufacturer.

a)

False

b)

True

67.

True or False: Centralizing demand information can completely eliminate the bullwhip effect in a supply chain.

a)

False

b)

True

68.

True or False: Longer lead times in a supply chain tend to reduce the bullwhip effect because they provide more time for planning.

a)

False

b)

True

69.

True or False: Vendor Managed Inventory (VMI) is a strategy where the customer manages the supplier's inventory levels.

a)

False

b)

True

70.

True or False: Sharing Point-of-Sale (POS) data with upstream supply chain partners can help reduce the bullwhip effect.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

What is a primary driver for firms to form strategic alliances in modern supply chains?

a)

To compete as individual entities against larger corporations.

b)

Because it is legally required in international trade.

c)

To maximize the collective strength of the entire supply chain.

d)

To simplify internal accounting procedures.

72.

Which of the following is considered a core competence?

a)

An activity that a firm performs worse than its competitors.

b)

Any outsourced business function.

c)

An activity central to a business that it performs more effectively than rivals.

d)

A temporary market advantage gained through pricing.

73.

A partnership where two companies in the same supply chain (e.g., a supplier and a manufacturer) collaborate is known as a:

a)

Horizontal partnership.

b)

Lateral partnership.

c)

Vertical partnership.

d)

Diagonal partnership.

74.

Which of the following is a key benefit of a manufacturer-supplier partnership?

a)

Guaranteed price increases for end consumers.

b)

Integrated supply chain management through business process transparency.

c)

Complete elimination of the need for inventory.

d)

Reduced focus on core competencies for both partners.

75.

What is a significant advantage of partnering with a Third-Party Logistics (3PL) provider?

a)

The firm gains complete ownership of the provider's assets.

b)

It allows a firm to concentrate investment on its core competencies.

c)

It eliminates all transportation costs.

d)

It removes the need for any performance monitoring.

76.

A Fourth-Party Logistics (4PL) provider differs from a 3PL by:

a)

Only offering basic warehousing services.

b)

Acting as a supply chain integrator managing resources and technology across multiple providers.

c)

Eliminating the need for transportation services.

d)

Providing direct-to-consumer delivery services only.

77.

In a Vendor Managed Inventory (VMI) system, who is responsible for inventory replenishment decisions?

a)

The retail customer.

b)

The government regulatory body.

c)

The supplier or vendor.

d)

The third-party insurer.

78.

Which level of information sharing involves joint decision-making and often includes proprietary data like future product plans?

a)

Transactional

b)

Tactical

c)

Strategic

d)

Operational

79.

What is a common disadvantage or risk associated with outsourcing logistics to a 3PL?

a)

Increased control over daily customer service operations.

b)

Enhanced in-house logistics capabilities.

c)

Potential loss of security and confidentiality of information.

d)

Guaranteed reduction in all operational costs.

80.

The concept of "Keiretsu" is associated with which type of supply chain partnership?

a)

Retailer-Supplier Partnerships (RSP) in the US.

b)

Manufacturer-supplier partnerships originating in Japan.

c)

Horizontal partnerships between airlines.

d)

Distributor Integration in European markets.

81.

Which factor is considered the MOST critical for the success of a logistics partnership?

a)

The color scheme of the partners' logos.

b)

The geographic distance between headquarters.

c)

Trust between the partnering organizations.

d)

The age of the companies involved.

82.

In a Retailer-Supplier Partnership (RSP), what does "Continuous Replenishment" typically involve?

a)

Suppliers using POS data to prepare shipments at agreed intervals.

b)

Retailers placing large, infrequent orders once a year.

c)

Suppliers setting fixed, non-negotiable prices for retailers.

d)

Eliminating all information sharing to protect trade secrets.

83.

What is a key requirement for effective Distributor Integration (DI)?

a)

Limiting communication between distributors.

b)

Establishing trust and collaboration among distributors.

c)

Reducing the number of distributors in the supply chain.

d)

Increasing competition among distributors.

84.

Which type of partnership model would be MOST suitable for TechGlobal, and what is the primary reason?

a)

Retailer-Supplier Partnership (RSP); because it would allow TechGlobal to manage inventory for its retailers.

b)

Manufacturer-Supplier Partnership; because it focuses on raw material procurement.

c)

Partnership with a 3PL/4PL provider; because it allows TechGlobal to outsource distribution, leverage specialist technology, and focus on its core competency of manufacturing electronics.

d)

Horizontal Partnership with another electronics maker; because it would allow them to jointly set market prices.

85.

What is the primary purpose of holding "Safety Stock"?

a)

To take advantage of quantity discounts from suppliers.

b)

To buffer against uncertainties in demand and lead time.

c)

To accommodate seasonal fluctuations in production.

d)

To speculate on future price increases of raw materials.

86.

According to the rationale for holding inventory, which type of inventory is built up to achieve economies of scale in purchasing, production, or transportation?

a)

Safety Stock

b)

Seasonal Stock

c)

Cycle Stock

d)

In-Transit Inventory

87.

Which of the following is NOT a major component of inventory carrying costs?

a)

Capital cost

b)

Procurement cost

c)

Storage space cost

d)

Inventory risk cost

88.

In the basic EOQ model, what is the relationship between order quantity and ordering costs?

a)

As order quantity increases, ordering costs increase proportionally.

b)

Ordering costs are fixed and do not change with order quantity.

c)

As order quantity increases, the ordering cost per unit decreases.

d)

Ordering costs are only incurred for international shipments.

89.

The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is the point that minimizes:

a)

The cost of the products themselves.

b)

The sum of inventory carrying costs and ordering costs.

c)

The lead time for inventory replenishment.

d)

The total number of orders placed annually.

90.

If the annual demand for a product is 3,600 units, the ordering cost is $100 per order, and the holding cost is $10 per unit per year, what is the EOQ?

a)

A. 120 units

b)

B. 189 units

c)

C. 268 units

d)

D. 360 units

91.

The Reorder Point (ROP) in an inventory system is determined by:

a)

A. The EOQ plus the safety stock.

b)

B. The average demand during lead time plus the safety stock.

c)

C. The annual demand divided by the number of working days.

d)

D. The maximum capacity of the warehouse.

92.

According to the ABC analysis based on Pareto's rule, which class of items should be controlled most closely?

a)

A. Group C items, due to their high volume.

b)

B. Group B items, as they are moderately important.

c)

C. Group A items, which represent the high-value minority.

d)

D. All items should be controlled with equal frequency.

93.

The Square Root Law in inventory management suggests that if a company reduces the number of its warehouses:

a)

A. Total inventory will decrease proportionally.

b)

B. Total inventory will increase.

c)

C. Total safety stock will decrease by a factor related to the square root of the change in the number of facilities.

d)

D. Transportation costs will become negligible.

94.

Which technology is characterized by using small transponders and readers to track items in real-time across logistics operations?

a)

A. Bar Coding

b)

B. Global Positioning System (GPS)

c)

C. Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)

d)

D. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)

95.

In a Vendor-Managed Inventory (VMI) system:

a)

A. The customer is responsible for determining order quantities and timing.

b)

B. The supplier manages and decides on inventory replenishment for the customer.

c)

C. A third-party arbitrator sets inventory levels.

d)

D. Inventory ownership always remains with the supplier until the product is consumed.

96.

Which of the following best describes the "Lean" or JIT approach to inventory management?

a)

A. Holding large safety stocks to prevent any stockouts.

b)

B. Reducing inventory levels to match demand precisely.

c)

C. Increasing production rates to meet unexpected demand.

d)

D. Using advanced forecasting techniques to predict demand.

97.

What is the primary financial reason for a company to want a high inventory turnover ratio?

a)

To increase the amount of capital tied up in inventory.

b)

To reduce the risk of inventory obsolescence and improve return on assets.

c)

To simplify the annual auditing process.

d)

To qualify for higher insurance premiums on stored goods.

98.

The cost incurred when a customer wants a product that is not available is known as:

a)

Ordering cost

b)

Carrying cost

c)

Stockout cost

d)

Setup cost

99.

In a Periodic Review inventory system:

a)

The inventory position is checked continuously, and an order is placed when the ROP is reached.

b)

The order quantity is always fixed and never changes.

c)

Inventory levels are reviewed at set time intervals, and an order is placed to bring stock up to a target level.

d)

Suppliers automatically send new shipments at predetermined times.

100.

True or False: The primary goal of inventory management is to completely eliminate all inventory to save costs.

a)

False

b)

True

101.

True or False: In the EOQ model, the total carrying cost increases as the order quantity increases.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

102.

True or False: ABC Analysis classifies inventory based solely on the physical weight of the items.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

103.

True or False: The Square Root Law implies that consolidating warehouses from four to one will reduce total inventory to exactly one-fourth of the original amount.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

104.

True or False: In VMI, the retailer maintains full responsibility for determining when and how much inventory to order.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

105.

EOQ Calculation:
A company has an annual demand (R) of 8,000 units. The cost to place one order (A) is $50. The annual holding cost per unit (S) is $5.
Calculate the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ).

a)

A. 200 units

b)

B. 300 units

c)

C. 400 units

d)

D. 500 units

106.

Reorder Point (ROP) Calculation:
A retailer has an average daily demand (R) of 25 units. The standard deviation of daily demand (STD) is 5 units. The lead time (LT) is 5 days. The desired service level is 95% (z = 1.65).
Calculate the Reorder Point (ROP).

a)

A. 125 units

b)

B. 135 units

c)

C. 143 units

d)

D. 150 units