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Farm Business Management Multiple Choice Questions 1-40

Total questions: 39

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following would not be considered a purpose for using systematic decision making?

a)

Better organize the thought process

b)

Achieve outcomes closely related to the goals

c)

Change your goals as often as possible

d)

Make timely decisions

2.

Which of the following types of goals can be achieved in one to ten years?

a)

Short term goals

b)

Intermediate goals

c)

Long term goals

d)

None of the above

3.

Which of the following would not be included as a guideline for setting goals?

a)

Goals should be written

b)

Goals should be realistic

c)

Goals should have target dates

d)

Goals should be competitive

4.

Which of the following is an example of physical record keeping?

a)

Tracking calving percentages

b)

Keeping receipts for gas purchases

c)

Paying off debt by selling old equipment

d)

Shopping for the cheapest feed for your livestock

5.

Which of the following would be found on a net worth statement (balance sheet) and consists of items owned by the person or business?

a)

Assets

b)

Liabilities

c)

Income

d)

Expenses

6.

Interest and depreciation would be examples of which of these?

a)

Assets

b)

Liabilities

c)

Income

d)

Expenses

7.

Which of the following measures how effective the business is in generating revenue from production?

a)

Liquidity

b)

Solvency

c)

Profitability

d)

Financial Efficiency

8.

Which measure of liquidity is defined as the current assets divided by the current liabilities?

a)

Current Ratio

b)

Working Capital

c)

Debt Structure

d)

Asset Structure

9.

What does EBITDA stand for?

a)

Estimated Business Income To Determine Acceptability

b)

Earnings Before Interest, Taxes, Depreciation, and Amortization

c)

Expenses Budgeted In Total Debt and Assets

d)

Expected Balance of Investment, Turnover, Depreciation, and Amortization

10.

Which of the following measures of financial efficiency reflects the percentage of total revenue devoted to expenses incurred in the normal production cycle?

a)

Asset turnover ratio (ATR)

b)

Operating expense ratio (OER)

c)

Depreciation expense ratio (DER)

d)

Interest Expense Ratio (IER)

11.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four factors of production?

a)

Quality

b)

Land

c)

Labor

d)

Management

12.

Which of the following refers to expenses that do not change with the level of production?

a)

Income

b)

Operating expenses

c)

Fixed expenses

d)

Net returns

13.

Which of the following is necessary to calculate break-even price?

a)

Yield

b)

Operating expense

c)

Fixed expense

d)

All of the above

14.

A comparison of projected costs and returns associated with some change in the operation of the business would be?

a)

Enterprise Budget

b)

Partial Budget

c)

Cash Flow Budget

d)

Total Farm Budget

15.

Which of the following would not be included on a projected cash flow?

a)

Cash sales

b)

Inventory values

c)

Loans

d)

Tax payments

16.

The analysis of the relationship between inputs and outputs is called what?

a)

Production function

b)

Profit maximization

c)

Diminishing returns

d)

Opportunity cost

17.

Which of the following best defines the concept of opportunity cost?

a)

Costs that do not change regardless of the level of production or even shut down.

b)

The cost of using a resource in one way based on the return that could be obtained from using it in the best alternative.

c)

The point where the marginal product equals the price of the added input.

d)

Expenses for licenses or contracts that allow a producer to engage in production

18.

In which stage of the production function will you maximize profit?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

19.

Which type of utility can be referred to as “convenience” ensuring that the product is in a location that consumers can easily acquire it?

a)

Form

b)

Time

c)

Place

d)

Possession

20.

Which of the following make up the steps in the marketing process?

a)

Processing, packaging, wholesaling, advertising, retailing

b)

Producing, packaging, advertising, retailing, consuming

c)

Producing, processing, wholesaling, retailing, consuming

d)

Processing, packaging, wholesaling, advertising, consuming

21.

Which of the following statements is true about demand?

a)

Demand is fixed, and consumers are going to purchase regardless of price

b)

Consumption is based primarily on the cost of production

c)

Farm support programs are the federal government's way of controlling demand

d)

A rational consumer will take more of a produce as prices decrease

22.

Interest that is paid one time and is calculated by multiplying the principle by the interest rate, without consideration of time or payment periods is referred to as which of the following?

a)

Amortization

b)

Discounting

c)

Simple interest

d)

Compounding

23.

Calculating the future value of an annuity would be done using what method?

a)

Amortization

b)

Discounting

c)

Simple interest

d)

Compounding

24.

Which of the following is used to determine the discount rate of an investment

a)

Internal rate of return

b)

Payback period analysis

c)

Net present value

d)

Future value

25.

What are the three factors of depreciation?

a)

Income, expenses, and taxes

b)

Basis, service date, method

c)

Records, accounting method, and inventory

d)

Asset, value, and life expectancy

26.

Which of the following would be considered a strategy to reduce taxable income?

a)

Postpone expenditures until after the beginning of the next year.

b)

Sell as much as possible before the end of the year.

c)

Buy needed machinery, equipment and other supplies before the end of the year

d)

Work a second job.

27.

Which of the following business organizations distributes earnings to shareholders, which are then taxed as personal income?

a)

Sole Proprietorship

b)

Partnership

c)

Corporation

d)

S Corporation

28.

Which of the following business organizations is the easiest to transfer ownership upon the death of an owner?

a)

Sole Proprietorship

b)

Partnership

c)

Corporation

d)

Limited Liability Company

29.

What is the primary difference in a limited partnership from other forms of business?

a)

Owners are called members

b)

Limited partners cannot participate in management decisions

c)

There is only one owner

d)

The partnership is restricted to a specific time frame, and automatically dissolves upon completion of the intended purpose

30.

Which form of cooperative helps its members by providing inputs at cheaper prices through buying in bulk?

a)

Purchasing

b)

Marketing

c)

Credit

d)

Processing

31.

Which element of a contract provides evidence that all parties intend to fulfill their obligations under the agreement?

a)

Two or more legal parties

b)

Offer and acceptance

c)

Sufficient consideration

d)

Not unlawful or immoral

32.

In the event of a breach of contract, the wronged party may do which of the following?

a)

Keep whatever amount of assets are in their possession so long as it equates to the amount of damage caused by the breach of contract.

b)

Request the court to require specific performance of the contract.

c)

Determine a new contractual agreement and enforce it upon the other party.

d)

All of the above

33.

The doctrine of attractive nuisance specifically refers to what class of individuals?

a)

Employees

b)

Trespassers

c)

Elderly

d)

Children

34.

Which type of risk could also be referred to as price risk?

a)

Market Risk

b)

Production Risk

c)

Financial Risk

d)

Legal Risk

35.

The risk management process is 5 steps arranged in a continuous cycle. What is the primary benefit of the process being arranged in this manner?

a)

Every possible threat will be considered.

b)

There are less costs associated with planning.

c)

The risk management plans will be consistently reviewed and adjusted.

d)

You can start at any point in the process.

36.

Which of the following is a tool used to reduce risk of various types?

a)

Lawsuits

b)

Taxes

c)

Insurance

d)

Depreciation

37.

A farmer who is a riparian has certain rights and responsibilities they should observe. A riparian is someone who owns land bordering what?

a)

State lines

b)

Power plants

c)

Woods or forests

d)

Streams or rivers

38.

Which of the following refers to the concept of different entities specializing in what they do best and trading so that more is produced as a whole?

a)

Absolute advantage

b)

Comparative advantage

c)

Fear of shortages

d)

Protectionism

39.

In reference to international trade, what does GATT stand for?

a)

General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade

b)

General Accounting of Taxes and Trade

c)

Government Agreement on Travel and Taxes

d)

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