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HP Midterm 2/2

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which step of the nursing process involves identifying patient problems and needs?

a)

Planning

b)

Assessment

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

2.

Which step involves measuring whether desired outcomes have been met?

a)

Assessment

b)

Evaluation

c)

Planning

d)

Diagnosis

3.

A nurse develops a care plan based on patient priorities and expected outcomes. This is an example of which step?

a)

Diagnosis

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

4.

Which of the following best describes clinical judgment?

a)

Memorizing procedures

b)

Making informed decisions based on patient assessment and evidence

c)

Following orders without questioning

d)

Documenting interventions only

5.

A nurse notices subtle changes in a patient’s vital signs and intervenes early to prevent deterioration. This demonstrates:

a)

Routine assessment

b)

Clinical judgment

c)

Critical thinking without action

d)

Patient teaching

6.

Which source is considered highest quality evidence for EBP?

a)

Case studies

b)

Expert opinion

c)

Systematic reviews and meta-analyses

d)

Textbooks

7.

A nurse incorporates research findings, clinical expertise, and patient preferences into care. This is an example of:

a)

Standardized care

b)

Evidence-Based Practice

c)

Trial-and-error approach

d)

Policy compliance

8.

Which is the best example of an expected outcome in a care plan?

a)

Patient will verbalize understanding of medication side effects within 24 hours

b)

Nurse will administer medications

c)

Hospital policy followed

d)

Patient identified as high-risk

9.

Prioritizing nursing diagnoses in a care plan is guided primarily by:

a)

Patient safety and immediate needs

b)

Hospital routine

c)

Physician preferences

d)

Documentation requirements

10.

A nurse revises the care plan after the patient develops a new symptom. This demonstrates which nursing process principle?

a)

Assessment

b)

Dynamic planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

11.

Which principle of the ANA Code of Ethics emphasizes respect for patients’ rights and dignity?

a)

Advocacy

b)

Autonomy

c)

Beneficence

d)

Justice

12.

The ANA Code of Ethics guides nurses to provide safe, compassionate, and competent care. This reflects:

a)

Professional accountability

b)

Delegation authority

c)

Routine procedure

d)

Policy enforcement

13.

Which statement best describes the ANA Scope & Standards of Nursing Practice?

a)

Lists every nursing intervention

b)

Provides a framework for professional nursing responsibilities

c)

Replaces hospital policies

d)

Defines physician responsibilities

14.

Which is a primary purpose of the ANA Standards of Practice?

a)

Evaluate quality of care and professional performance

b)

Document patient outcomes only

c)

Reduce nurse workload

15.

A nurse ensures that all patients receive equal access to care regardless of race, gender, or socioeconomic status. This is an example of:

a)

Cultural competence

b)

Diversity, Equity, and Inclusion

c)

Standard care

d)

Policy compliance

16.

Immunizing a healthy child against measles is an example of:

a)

Primary prevention

b)

Secondary prevention

c)

Tertiary prevention

d)

Quaternary prevention

17.

Screening for hypertension in a clinic setting is an example of:

a)

Primary prevention

b)

Secondary prevention

c)

Tertiary prevention

d)

Quaternary prevention

18.

Which of the following is a Healthy People 2030 objective for older adults?

a)

Reduce childhood obesity

b)

Increase vaccination rates among older adults

c)

Increase school attendance

d)

Reduce teen smoking

19.

A goal of Healthy People 2030 is to:

a)

Improve equity in access to healthcare

b)

Replace clinical judgment

c)

Eliminate nursing documentation

d)

Provide free care to all patients

20.

Which is a social determinant of health?

a)

Age-related physiologic changes

b)

Economic stability

c)

Genetic disorders

d)

Personal preferences only

21.

Neighborhood safety, housing quality, and access to transportation are examples of:

a)

Biological determinants

b)

Social determinants of health

c)

Clinical interventions

d)

Patient habits only

22.

A patient in a rural area has limited access to specialty care. This illustrates:

a)

Health equity

b)

Health disparity

c)

Evidence-based practice

d)

Health promotion

23.

Which intervention best addresses health disparities?

a)

Telehealth services for remote populations

b)

Providing care only during regular clinic hours

c)

Standard discharge instructions without consideration

d)

Ignoring social factors in care planning

24.

A nurse asks about a patient’s cultural beliefs before initiating treatment. This demonstrates:

a)

Cultural humility

b)

Cultural blindness

c)

Standardized care

d)

Cultural imposition

25.

Which action is part of culturally competent practice?

a)

Using patient-preferred language and culturally appropriate teaching

b)

Ignoring patient preferences

c)

Standardizing care regardless of culture

d)

Limiting education to written handouts

26.

Which strategy is most effective to assess patient understanding?

a)

Teach-back method

b)

Asking “Do you understand?”

c)

Providing handouts only

d)

Speaking quickly to save time

27.

A nurse explains diabetes self-management using pictures and simple language. This demonstrates:

a)

Health literacy promotion

b)

Evidence-based practice

c)

Secondary prevention

d)

Cultural insensitivity

28.

Which is a primary goal of health education?

a)

Improve knowledge and promote behavior change

b)

Reduce nurse workload

c)

Document policies only

d)

Test patient memory

29.

A patient says, “I plan to start exercising next week.” Which stage of change is this?

a)

Precontemplation

b)

Contemplation

c)

Preparation

d)

Action

30.

A patient has been following a low-sodium diet for three months. Which stage of change is this?

a)

Preparation

b)

Action

c)

Maintenance

d)

Termination

31.

Which of the following is a Healthy People 2030 objective for the older adult population?

a)

Reduce childhood obesity rates

b)

Increase influenza and pneumococcal vaccination coverage among adults 65+

c)

Eliminate teen smoking completely

d)

Increase school-based health education programs

32.

A primary goal of Healthy People 2030 for older adults is:

a)

Ensure all older adults have access to home-based telehealth services

b)

Improve health equity and reduce preventable hospitalizations

c)

Mandate private health insurance coverage for all

d)

Replace physician care with nurse-led clinics

33.

Which vaccination coverage is emphasized for adults age 65 and older in Healthy People 2030?

a)

HPV vaccination

b)

Influenza and pneumococcal vaccination

c)

Varicella vaccination

d)

Measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccination

34.

Health disparity is best illustrated by:

a)

Equal access to preventive screenings

b)

Limited specialty care availability in rural communities

c)

Universal health coverage

d)

Standardized patient education materials

35.

The teach-back method primarily aims to:

a)

Confirm patient understanding and correct misconceptions

b)

Speed up discharge processes

c)

Replace interpreter services

d)

Assess only memory recall

36.

Which statement about pneumococcal vaccination in older adults is correct?

a)

It is only recommended for adults under 65

b)

It reduces the risk of invasive pneumococcal disease and pneumonia in adults 65+

c)

It should be given annually

d)

It is optional for immunocompromised adults

37.

Which older adult should receive the shingles vaccine (Shingrix)?

a)

Adults 50 years and older, even if they had shingles before

b)

Adults under 40 only

c)

Adults 65+ who are allergic to all vaccines

d)

Adults who already had shingles within the last year

38.

An older adult patient asks why Shingrix is recommended even if they had shingles in the past. What is the best response?

a)

“You do not need it if you had shingles.”

b)

“Shingrix helps prevent recurrence and strengthens immunity, even after prior shingles.”

c)

“Shingles can only happen once, so vaccination is unnecessary.”

d)

“It is only given to hospitalized patients.”

39.

Which of the following is an example of primary prevention?

a)

Administering the influenza vaccine to an older adult

b)

Screening for hypertension in a clinic

c)

Performing a colonoscopy on a patient with symptoms

d)

Providing physical therapy after a stroke

40.

Which of the following best represents secondary prevention?

a)

Educating a patient about healthy diet choices

b)

Checking blood pressure at a wellness visit to identify hypertension early

c)

Administering vaccines to prevent disease

d)

Providing chemotherapy for cancer treatment

41.

Which of the following lists the five key social determinants of health?

a)

Genetics, diet, environment, exercise, income

b)

Health access, environment, economic stability, education, community/social context

c)

Medication adherence, insurance status, culture, neighborhood, family history

d)

Age, gender, race, occupation, religion

42.

Mr. Smith lives in a neighborhood without public transportation, limiting his access to the clinic. Which social determinant is most relevant?

a)

Economic stability

b)

Health access

c)

Education

d)

Community/social context

43.

A nurse demonstrates cultural competence when they:

a)

Assume all patients from the same culture have the same beliefs

b)

Recognize their own biases and assess each patient individually

c)

Use only standardized care for all patients

d)

Avoid asking patients about cultural beliefs

44.

Health literacy is best defined as:

a)

How well a patient can read medical textbooks

b)

How well a patient can understand and use health information to make decisions

c)

The number of health classes a patient has taken

d)

How often a patient visits the clinic

45.

When providing patient education, which step involves assessing literacy, prior knowledge, and readiness to learn?

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

46.

When providing written materials for older adults, which is best practice?

a)

5th grade or lower reading level, use diagrams, consider font size

b)

College-level material for accuracy

c)

Only verbal instructions

d)

Avoid written materials to save time

47.

Which of the following is the best example of therapeutic communication?

a)

“You shouldn’t feel that way; it’s not a big deal.”

b)

“Tell me more about how that made you feel.”

c)

“You need to follow my instructions exactly.”

48.

The PQRST method is used to assess:

a)

Pain

b)

Respiratory status

c)

Medication adherence

d)

Cognitive function

49.

Which step of ADPIE involves evaluating whether patient learning objectives were achieved?

a)

Assessment

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Planning

d)

Evaluation

50.

PICOTT is a framework used primarily for:

a)

Developing a clinical research question

b)

Conducting a pain assessment

c)

Performing a physical exam

d)

Health literacy evaluation

51.

The ROS is primarily used to:

a)

Screen for symptoms in each body system

b)

Diagnose a disease

c)

Provide patient education

d)

Administer medications

52.

Which technique is used to identify a patient’s most immediate need?

a)

ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation)

b)

PQRST

c)

ADPIE

d)

PICOTT

53.

According to Maslow, which need must be addressed first?

a)

Safety

b)

Self-actualization

c)

Love/belonging

d)

Physiological (food, water, oxygen)

54.

Integrative healthcare involves:

a)

Only Western medicine interventions

b)

Combining conventional medicine with complementary approaches like yoga, music therapy, or acupuncture

c)

Ignoring alternative therapies

d)

Replacing conventional care with herbal remedies

55.

A nurse conducting a community health assessment focuses on:

a)

Individual patient genetics

b)

Working with underserved populations to identify health needs and resources

c)

Hospital administrative policies

d)

Providing routine care only

56.

In assessing a patient, identifying strengths such as problem-solving skills, resilience, or social support is an example of:

a)

Focusing only on deficits

b)

Strengths-based nursing care

c)

Risk assessment

d)

Standard care

57.

Which activity is therapeutic for socially isolated older adults?

a)

Encouraging reminiscence about past experiences

b)

Ignoring social needs to save time

c)

Recommending only physical exercise

d)

Focusing exclusively on medications

58.

Which of the following is a tenet of trauma-informed care?

a)

Peer support and recognizing the impact of trauma

b)

Ignoring patient history

c)

Punishing maladaptive behaviors

d)

Providing care without patient input

59.

Which behavior demonstrates ageism?

a)

Assuming an older adult cannot learn new technology

b)

Encouraging independence

c)

Providing patient education

d)

Listening to patient preferences

60.

Which is a symptom of caregiver burnout?

a)

Fatigue, irritability, and decreased coping ability

b)

Increased energy

c)

Improved patience

d)

Enhanced problem-solving

61.

When providing care for older adults, the nurse should:

a)

Always ensure they have their glasses, hearing aids, or other sensory devices

b)

Assume they can manage without them

c)

Remove devices during all interactions

d)

Only provide devices when requested

62.

The nurse is assessing the mental state of their patient. They respond with the appropriate name and date but are not able to recall where they are or what lead them here. How would you list their orientation level? Select all that apply

a)

They are A&O X2

b)

They are oriented to themselves

c)

They are oriented to event

d)

They are oriented to date

e)

They are not oriented to location

63.

Which of the following qualify as an advanced activity of daily living? Select all that apply.

a)

Managing one's own finances

b)

Feeding themselves

c)

Maintaining appointments

d)

Driving a car

e)

Buttoning a shirt

64.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of trauma. Which nursing action best reflects the TIC principle of safety?

a)

Ensuring the patient understands their treatment plan and feels physically and emotionally secure in the care environment

b)

Encouraging the patient to relive traumatic experiences to build resilience

c)

Administering medications without explaining side effects

d)

Ignoring the patient’s preferences, as you have better suggestions for the patient

65.

Which of the following interventions best reflects the TIC principle of peer support?

a)

Encouraging the patient to rely solely on family for emotional support

b)

Avoiding discussion of trauma history to prevent discomfort

c)

Connecting the patient with support groups of individuals who have experienced similar trauma

d)

Assigning only healthcare staff to provide all emotional support

66.

Select all of the core components of trauma induced care of the following.

a)

healing

b)

safety

c)

peer support

d)

avoidance

e)

acceptance