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Health Study Period 4 Revision

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Fill in the blank: The set of activities and components that take food from farm to consumer is called the ____ _____.

(a)  

2.

Label the food system diagram

3.

Which statement best defines primary production in a food system?

a)

Refers to growing and harvesting raw food commodities, including agriculture, livestock, and fisheries

b)

Distributing finished goods through wholesalers and retailers

c)

Transforming ingredients into branded packaged foods

d)

Advertising campaigns that shape consumer preferences

4.

Which description correctly defines primary processing in a food system?

a)

Transforms primary processed food into new products with significant changes to physical form

b)

Makes food safe to eat or ready for further processing with minimal change to physical properties

c)

Refers to growing and harvesting raw food commodities

d)

Moves products from manufacturers to retailers and consumers

5.

Categorise the following

Categorize the following

Milling brown rice to make white rice

Washing potatoes

Butchering animals for meat

Pasteurising milk

Deshelling walnuts

Baking flour to produce cookies

Processing rice to produce rice bubbles

Fermenting milk to produce yogurt

Frying potatoes to make chips

Primary processing
Secondary processing
6.

Which of the following are food system activities?

a)

Affordability, transport and marketing of food

b)

Food accessibility, agricultural inputs and outputs

c)

Food availability, individual accessibility and affordability

d)

Production, processing, transport and consumption

7.

Match the following

a)

Wheat grown in Western Australia

1.

Primary Production

b)

Wheat milled into flour and baked into bread

2.

Processing & Packaging

c)

Truck delivers bread to supermarket

3.

Distribution

d)

“High fibre” bread ad on TV

4.

Media & Marketing

e)

Mouldy bread discarded into compost

5.

Waste Management

8.

Which option identifies a social driver most likely to increase pressure on food systems over time?

a)

A sustained rise in urbanisation rates

b)

A temporary fertilizer shortage

c)

A new agricultural technology

d)

Seasonal rainfall variability

9.

Australia has one of the safest food supplies in the world.

Which of the following are characteristics of a safe food supply?

a)

Food that is not intentionally contaminated

b)

Food that is past its expiry or 'use by' date

c)

Food that is free from food-borne illness

d)

Food that is free from foreign objects

10.

Who is responsible for developing food standards in Australia and New Zealand

a)

Food Standards Australia New Zealand

b)

The Australia Department of Agriculture

c)

The Ministry for Primary Industries

d)

The Therapeutic Goods Administration

11.

What is one of the objectives of the Food Standards Code?

a)

To ensure that food is safe and suitable for human consumption

b)

To reduce the number of food exports

c)

To increase the number of food imports

d)

To promote fast food consumption

12.

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of FSANZ?

a)

Monitoring foods and nutrients

b)

Enforcing food laws

c)

Coordinating food recalls

d)

Developing food standards

13.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a food safety program?

a)

Outline of safe food handling practices

b)

Correct hygiene practices of employees

c)

Outline of pest control practices

d)

Marketing strategies for food products

14.

A cafe develops procedures for receiving, storing, cooking, and cooling foods based on identifying hazards and setting critical limits. What principle-based system is being applied?

a)

Environmental Health Officer inspection

b)

Food Standards Code compliance

c)

HACCP (Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points)

d)

Local Food Act licensing

15.

Which of the following are principles of HACCP (Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points)?

a)

Identification of Hazards

b)

Establishing Corrective Actions

c)

Advertising Food Products

d)

Defining Critical Limits

e)

Determining Critical Control Points

16.

Match the following

a)

A biological, chemical, or physical agent that may cause illness or injury in the absence of its control.

1.

Hazard

b)

The process of identifying and evaluating hazards that could affect food safety.

2.

Hazard Analysis

c)

A step in the food production process where controls must be applied to prevent, eliminate, or reduce a hazard to an acceptable level.

3.

Critical Control Point

d)

The maximum or minimum value to which a hazard must be controlled to ensure food safety.

4.

Critical Limit

e)

A systematic approach to the identification, evaluation, and control of food safety hazards

5.

HACCP

17.

What is the main purpose of establishing corrective actions in the HACCP system?

a)

To increase food production

b)

To ensure hazards are eliminated or controlled when critical limits are not met

c)

To advertise food products

d)

To reduce food costs

18.

Which of the following are requirements for most food businesses under the Food Act 2006 (Qld)?

a)

A food business license

b)

An accredited food safety program

c)

A marketing plan

d)

A nutritionist on staff

19.

A catering company has a written Food Safety Program and a HACCP plan. During a routine visit, who is the responsible authority most likely to verify that the plan is implemented and records are maintained?

a)

Food business owner

b)

Environmental Health Officer

c)

Standards Australia technical committee

d)

Federal Minister for Health

20.

Match the following

a)

State and territory specific laws

that give legal effect to the Food Standards Code

1.

Food Acts

b)

A set of legislative instruments that

detail the requirements food must meet to be sold in Australia.

2.

Food Standards Code

c)

The federal authority that develops the laws and

practices regulating food production in Australia

and New Zealand

3.

Food Standards Australia and New Zealand

d)

People employed by local government who are responsible for inspecting food premises and advising on public health standards

4.

Environmental Health Officer

e)

The removal of food from distribution, sale, or consumption if it poses a health or safety risk

5.

Food recall

21.

A manufacturer recalls a batch due to mislabelled allergens. Which feature on the package allows regulators to trace affected units quickly?

a)

Serving size on the nutrition panel

b)

Directions for use and storage

c)

Lot identification

d)

Best-before date

22.

Which of the following statements is true about the ingredients list on food products?

a)

Ingredients must be listed in ascending order of weight.

b)

Food products do not need to include an ingredients list.

c)

Ingredients must be listed in descending order of weight.

d)

Food additives do not need to be included in the ingredients list.

23.

A chilled, ready-to-eat salad is marked with a use-by date. Which action best aligns with safe storage and date-mark rules?

a)

Eat it any time before quality declines, even after the date, if it smells fine

b)

Freeze it after the use-by date to restore safety and extend shelf life

c)

Consume it on or before the date because it relates to safety, not just quality

d)

Ignore the date if it has low risk-increasing nutrients like sodium

24.

Which of the following allergens must be listed in bold in the ingredient list? Select all that apply

a)

Soy

b)

Egg

c)

Wheat

d)

Milk

e)

Peanut

25.

What does the Plain English Allergen Labelling Law require?

a)

The scientific names of food allergens to be listed on the food label.

b)

The common names of food allergens to be listed on the food label.

c)

The nutritional values of food allergens to be listed on the food label.

d)

The origin of food allergens to be listed on the food label.

26.

What are precautionary allergen labelling statements?

a)

Statements that are mandatory and regulated by the Food Standards Code

b)

Statements that are voluntary and not regulated by the Food Standards Code

c)

Statements that are only used in restaurants

d)

Statements that are used to indicate nutritional value

27.

Which of the following is an example of a nutrition content claim?

a)

"Calcium for healthy bones and teeth"

b)

"Low in price"

c)

"High in fibre"

d)

"Good packaging"

28.

Which of the following is an example of a general level health claim?

a)

'Low in fat'

b)

'Calcium may reduce the risk of osteoporosis in people 65 years and over'

c)

'Phytosterols may reduce blood cholesterol'

d)

'Vitamin C for immune support'

29.

Which of the following is an example of a high level health claim?

a)

'Phytosterols may reduce blood cholesterol'

b)

'Calcium for healthy bones and teeth'

c)

'Vitamin C for immune support'

d)

'Low fat for weight loss'

30.

Claims that describe the level of a nutrient in a food, such as "Good source of calcium" or "40% less fat."

a)

Structural claims

b)

Health claims

c)

Nutrition content claims

d)

Structure/function claims

31.

Claims made about a nutrient or substance in a food and its relationship to a serious disease or to a biomarker of a serious disease (e.g., "Oatmeal can help reduce cholesterol").

a)

High-level health claims

b)

General-level health claims

c)

Nutrition content claims

d)

Listed Medicines

32.

A product label states "High in fiber" and "Fiber helps reduce risk of colorectal cancer." Which regulatory distinction best explains why this label may face stricter substantiation requirements than a nutrient level claim?

a)

It combines a nutrition content claim with a high-level health claim referencing disease risk

b)

It is a general-level health claim that never requires evidence

c)

It is a structure/function claim which is exempt from consumer law

d)

It is an ACCC guideline rather than a health claim category

33.

What does the Nutrient Profiling Scoring Criterion (NPSC) determine?

a)

Whether a food is suitable to make a health claim based on its nutrient profile

b)

The calorie content of a food

c)

The vitamin content of a food

d)

The mineral content of a food

34.

Is the health star rating system mandatory for companies?

a)

No, it is optional for consumers

b)

Yes, but only for certain products

c)

No, it is voluntary

d)

Yes, it is mandatory

35.

What is the limitation of the star rating system?

a)

It can only compare products of the same color

b)

It can only compare products of the same price

c)

It can only compare products within the same category

d)

It can only compare products of the same brand

36.

Which system is a voluntary, interpretive, front-of-pack nutrition label that assigns a rating from ½ star to 5 stars based on nutritional profile?

a)

Nutrition Information Panel (NIP)

b)

Health Star Rating System

c)

Plain English Allergen Labelling (PEAL) Law

d)

Advisory Statements, Warning Statements and Declarations

37.

Which label presents nutritional information without additional interpretation or guidance and is mandatory on the back of pack?

a)

Health Star Rating System

b)

Nutrition Information Panel (NIP)

c)

Risk-reducing nutrients panel

d)

Advisory Statements and Declarations

38.

Which agency is responsible for regulating therapeutic goods including prescription medicines, vaccines, sunscreens, vitamins and minerals, medical devices, blood and blood products in Australia?

a)

Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA)

b)

Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)

c)

Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA)

d)

Food Standards Australia New Zealand (FSANZ)

39.
Based on the label, how many chips are in 1 serving of this bag of potato chips?
a)
20 chips
b)
28 chips
c)
160 chips
d)
90 chips
40.

Medicines that primarily contain complementary medicine ingredients that have an established identity and tradition of use, including vitamins, minerals, herbal material, essential oils.

a)

Listed Medicines

b)

Registered Medicines

c)

Over-the-counter Medicines

d)

Complementary Medicines

41.

Low-risk products evaluated by the TGA for safety and quality but not efficacy. Includes most complementary medicines (including dietary supplements).

a)

Unscheduled Medicines

b)

Registered Medicines

c)

Listed Medicines

d)

Registered Or Listed Depending On Ingredients

42.

National law that protects consumers against false, misleading or deceptive advertising.

a)

A Special Act Of Parliament

b)

Customary Law

c)

The Electoral Act

d)

Australian Consumer Law

43.

Which agency is responsible for enforcing compliance with Australian Consumer Law?

a)

Australian Communications and Media Authority (ACMA)

b)

Australian Taxation Office (ATO)

c)

Australian Securities and Investments Commission (ASIC)

d)

Australian Competition and Consumer Commission (ACCC)

44.

A method for evaluating the credibility of sources based on Currency, Relevance, Authority, Accuracy, and Purpose.

a)

Nutrient Profiling Scoring Criterion (NPSC)

b)

CRAAP test

c)

Citation machine

d)

Biomarker

45.

In the CRAAP test, which component primarily evaluates whether information is up-to-date and timely for the topic?

a)

Authority

b)

Currency

c)

Accuracy

d)

Purpose

46.

Which term best fits this definition: Exists when all people, at all times, have physical and economic access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food that meets their dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life.

a)

Food sovereignty

b)

Food citizenship

c)

Food security

d)

Food insecurity

47.

Food security focusses on ​ (a)   to food while food sovereignty focusses on the ​ (b)   of food systems ​

Choose from the below words
access
control
48.

Match the dimensions of food security with their definitions

a)

sufficient quantities of appropriate and quality food is available from domestic production, commercial imports, food assistance or food reserves on a consistent basis

1.

Availability

b)

people have adequate income or other resources to access appropriate food domestically through home production, buying in local markets, or as exchange, gifts, borrowing or as food aid.

2.

Access

c)

people being able to use food properly through food storing and processing practices while applying sufficient nutritional, sanitation, socio-cultural and/or spiritual knowledge.

3.

Utilisation

d)

availability of adequate food at all times, meaning that access and utilisation of appropriate food is not prevented by any hinderances, shortages, emergencies or sudden crises

4.

Stability

49.

Healthy food in remote Indigenous communities can cost up to three times more than in urban areas. Which dimension of food security does this relate to most?

a)

Utilisation

b)

Availability

c)

Accessibility

d)

Stability

50.

Applying the definition of food security, which situation best demonstrates food insecurity?

a)

A community with stable access to affordable, nutritious food that meets preferences

b)

Households that can occasionally buy food but not regularly obtain safe, nutritious options

c)

Consumers choosing between several culturally preferred healthy foods every day

d)

Regions where physical and economic access to food is consistently ensured

51.

Which dimension of food security refers to the consistent presence of sufficient quantities of appropriate and quality food from domestic production, commercial imports, food assistance, or reserves over time?

a)

Availability

b)

Access

c)

Utilization

d)

Stability

52.

Which scenario best illustrates the stability dimension of food security?

a)

A household has enough food only right after harvest but faces shortages during lean months

b)

A region consistently maintains food reserves and import agreements that buffer seasonal shortages

c)

A community expands kitchen gardens for micronutrient-rich foods

d)

A farmer’s market lowers prices for one weekend

53.

Which statement best distinguishes chronic instability from transitory instability in food security?

a)

Chronic instability is short-lived and tied to seasonal harvests; transitory instability is long-term and persistent

b)

Chronic instability is persistent and long-term; transitory instability is short-term and often shock-related

c)

Both refer only to instability in food utilization rather than access

d)

Neither involves changes in availability

54.

What does ‘crop diversification’ primarily aim to achieve in the context of food security?

a)

Increase reliance on a single staple crop to boost yields

b)

Spread production risk and improve dietary variety

c)

Eliminate smallholder farming in favor of large monocultures

d)

Reduce the number of crops grown to simplify management

55.

OzHarvest NEST most directly contributes to which food security dimension by teaching practical cooking skills with locally available foods?

a)

Availability—by increasing total national production

b)

Access—by reducing market prices of staples

c)

Utilization—by improving nutrition knowledge and food preparation

d)

Stability—by guaranteeing year-round supply

56.

Food sovereignty emphasizes which core principle?

a)

Control of food systems by multinational corporations

b)

Trade liberalization to maximize exports

c)

Community rights to define and control sustainable food systems

d)

Dependence on food aid during shocks

57.

Which movement aims to ensure producers in developing countries receive fair prices and work under equitable conditions, improving food system sustainability?

a)

Fairtrade Movement

b)

Fast-food Alliance

c)

Greenhouse Gas Offset Coalition

d)

Ultra-processed Foods Association

58.

Most greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions related to food come from which stage of the food system?

a)

Transport of food (food miles)

b)

Retail and packaging

c)

Initial production of food

d)

Household consumption

59.

A policymaker wants to cut total food-related GHGs quickly. Based on the breakdown provided, which broad area should they target first for the largest potential reduction?

a)

Livestock and fisheries activities

b)

Retail operations

c)

Food processing

d)

Food transport

60.

Based on the graph, which food has the highest emissions per kilogram?

a)

Poultry meat

b)

Cheese

c)

Beef (beef herd)

d)

Prawns (farmed)

61.

Which statement best explains why ruminant animals like cows contribute substantially to greenhouse gas emissions?

a)

Their muscles store large amounts of CO2 during growth

b)

Gut microbes digest cellulose, producing methane (CH4) through enteric fermentation

c)

They absorb methane from the atmosphere and release it unchanged

d)

Beef production releases only long-lived CO2 with no short-term effects

62.

Select the statement that best describes how water requirements vary by food type in agricultural production.

a)

All foods require roughly the same amount of water per kilogram produced.

b)

Plant-based foods generally require less water than animal-based products, with variation among crops.

c)

Animal-based products always require less water than fruits and vegetables.

d)

Processed foods consistently use less water than raw ingredients.

63.

If policymakers aim to mitigate water scarcity while maintaining food supply, which strategy aligns with concepts in the section?

a)

Shift production toward high-water-use animal products.

b)

Invest in drought-resilient crops and desalination plants.

c)

Ban all irrigation to conserve water immediately.

d)

Prioritize hydropower expansion over agriculture.

64.

Which statement best reflects the general environmental comparison between dairy milk and plant-based milks?

a)

Dairy milk typically has lower greenhouse-gas emissions and land use than most plant-based milks.

b)

Plant-based milks generally require more water and produce more methane than dairy milk.

c)

Most plant-based milks tend to have lower overall environmental impacts than dairy milk, though impacts vary by crop and region.

d)

Dairy milk and plant-based milks have identical environmental footprints across all measures.

65.

Which option best defines biogas in the context of food systems?

a)

a potent greenhouse gas with global warming potential higher than carbon dioxide

b)

a renewable energy source produced from anaerobic digestion of organic waste

c)

the total emissions from all greenhouse gases expressed as CO2e

d)

packaging that naturally breaks down into non-toxic components

66.

"Support local and seasonal food systems; use low‑emission transport options (e.g., ships over planes); improve energy efficiency in retail (e.g., glass doors on fridges)."

This best describes:

a)

Solutions to reduce environmental impacts of food packaging

b)

Solutions to reduce environmental impacts of food production

c)

Solutions to reduce environmental impacts of food waste

d)

Solutions to reduce environmental impacts of food distribution and retail