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Imaging II: Minimizing Patient Dose Review

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement correctly distinguishes exposure from dose in diagnostic radiography?

a)

Exposure is the amount of radiation absorbed by the patient and measured in gray (Gy).

b)

Exposure is the amount of radiation in the air near the patient, used to calculate entrance skin exposure, measured in C/kg.

c)

Dose is the amount of radiation in the air near the patient and formerly measured in roentgens.

d)

Dose is the amount of radiation produced by the x‑ray tube per mAs.

2.

What is the formal historical unit that measured exposure in air near the patient?

a)

Rad

b)

Roentgen

c)

Gray

d)

Sievert

3.

Dose refers to the amount of radiation absorbed by the patient. What is its SI unit?

a)

Coulomb per kilogram (C/kg)

b)

MilliRoentgen (mR)

c)

Gray (Gy)

d)

Milliampere‑seconds (mAs)

4.

Entrance Skin Exposure (ESE) is monitored because the skin receives the highest amount of radiation. When calculating ESE, which Source‑to‑Object Distance (SOD) is used?

a)

Maximum SOD to represent the safest scenario

b)

Average SOD typical for the exam room

c)

Minimum SOD to represent the worst‑case (closest tube) scenario

d)

Any SOD, because distance does not affect skin dose

5.

Why is the minimum SOD used for ESE estimation?

a)

Because a larger distance increases radiation dose to the skin

b)

Because the closer the x‑ray tube is to the patient, the higher the skin dose

c)

Because tube distance only changes image magnification, not dose

d)

Because regulatory guidelines require the farthest possible tube distance

6.

Which quantity and relationship must be known to compute ESE according to the instructional material?

a)

The patient’s body mass index and exposure time

b)

The machine’s output in milliRoentgen per milliampere‑second (mR/mAs) and the selected mAs

c)

The detector sensitivity and kilovolt peak (kVp)

d)

The grid ratio and source‑to‑image distance (SID)

7.

The mR/mAs chart is typically created at which standard Source‑to‑Image Distance (SID)?

a)

30 inches

b)

36 inches

c)

40 inches

d)

48 inches

8.

Which quantity is defined as the amount of radiation in air near the patient and is used for calculating ESE?

a)

Dose

b)

Exposure

c)

Kerma in tissue

d)

Effective dose

9.

Which statement best distinguishes radiation exposure from absorbed dose in medical imaging?

a)

Exposure is the radiation measured in air before it interacts with the patient; absorbed dose is the energy deposited in tissue.

b)

Exposure is the energy deposited in tissue; absorbed dose is the radiation measured in air.

c)

Exposure and absorbed dose are identical measures of patient risk.

d)

Exposure is determined only by patient thickness; absorbed dose is independent of interaction.

10.

Which unit is used to express radiation exposure?

a)

Gray (Gy)

b)

Rad

c)

Coulomb per kilogram (C/kg) or roentgens (R)

d)

Sievert (Sv)

11.

Which unit is appropriate for reporting absorbed dose to tissue?

a)

Roentgen (R)

b)

Coulomb per kilogram (C/kg)

c)

Gray (Gy) or rad

d)

Curie (Ci)

12.

A radiographer notes that the machine’s radiation output is measured in C/kg, but the patient’s absorbed dose is given in Gy. What does this difference indicate?

a)

Output represents exposure in air, while dose indicates energy actually absorbed by the patient’s tissues.

b)

Both values represent the same quantity using different unit systems.

c)

Gy is used only for measuring background radiation exposure, not patient dose.

d)

C/kg measures energy absorbed by tissue, while Gy measures photon fluence in air.

13.

Which equation from the mR/mAs chart is used to find the initial output before applying distance corrections?

a)

Output (mR) = (mR/mAs) × mAs

b)

Output (mR) = kVp × mAs

c)

Output (mR) = mAs ÷ (mR/mAs)

d)

Output (mR) = kVp ÷ mAs

14.

What does SOD represent in ESE calculations?

a)

Source-to-object distance (tube to patient)

b)

Source-to-image distance (tube to receptor)

c)

Object-to-image distance (patient to receptor)

d)

Skin-to-detector distance (patient skin to receptor)

15.

How is SOD computed when SID and OID are known?

a)

SOD = SID − OID

b)

SOD = SID + OID

c)

SOD = OID − SID

d)

SOD = SID × OID

16.

Which statement best describes the Inverse Square Law as applied to patient dose?

a)

Radiation intensity decreases with the square of the distance from the source

b)

Radiation intensity increases linearly with distance from the source

c)

Radiation intensity is independent of distance from the source

d)

Radiation intensity decreases linearly with distance from the source

17.

According to the instructional material, which factor directly lowers dose as it increases?

a)

Distance from the x-ray source

b)

mAs setting

c)

Patient thickness

d)

OID

18.

Which formula converts the chart output into Entrance Skin Exposure (ESE) using the reference distance of 40 inches?

a)

ESE = (mR/mAs×mAs)×(40in/SOD)2(mR/mAs \times mAs) \times (40 in / SOD)^2

b)

ESE = (mR/mAs÷mAs)×(SOD/40in)2(mR/mAs ÷ mAs) × (SOD / 40 in)^2

c)

ESE = (kVp×mAs)×(SOD/40in)2(kVp × mAs) × (SOD / 40 in)^{2}

d)

ESE = (mR/mAs × mAs) × (SOD / 40 in)

19.

Which step should be completed first when estimating ESE?

a)

Use the mR/mAs chart to determine output

b)

Apply the Inverse Square Law

c)

Calculate SOD from SID and OID

d)

Choose immobilization devices

20.

Which distances are needed to determine SOD?

a)

SID and OID

b)

SID and SSD

c)

OID and patient thickness

d)

kVp and mAs

21.

Which projection choice is stated to reduce radiation to the ovaries in a female pelvis exam?

a)

PA pelvis compared to AP pelvis

b)

AP pelvis compared to PA pelvis

c)

Lateral pelvis compared to AP pelvis

d)

Oblique pelvis compared to PA pelvis

22.

For skull imaging, which positioning reduces radiation to the eyes compared to the alternative?

a)

PA skull reduces compared to AP skull

b)

AP skull reduces compared to PA skull

c)

Lateral skull reduces compared to PA skull

d)

Oblique skull reduces compared to AP skull

23.

How does effective patient communication help reduce dose according to the material?

a)

It increases patient trust and stillness, reducing repeats

b)

It allows higher mAs to be used safely

c)

It replaces the need for shielding

d)

It permits shorter SID without changing dose

24.

What is a stated benefit of using immobilization to prevent motion during radiography?

a)

Improves image quality and reduces total radiation dose

b)

Allows use of lower kVp without detail loss

c)

Eliminates the need for distance corrections

d)

Increases OID to sharpen the image

25.

In the ESE estimation workflow, what is the purpose of calculating SOD before applying the inverse square law?

a)

To determine the effective distance from x‑ray source to the patient’s skin for dose fall‑off

b)

To select the correct filtration level for image contrast

c)

To choose the focal spot size that minimizes motion blur

d)

To compute milliampere-seconds (mAs) from kVp

26.

Which adjustment to kVp and mAs best reduces patient dose while maintaining image contrast?

a)

Use the lowest kVp and highest mAs possible

b)

Use the highest kVp that still provides acceptable contrast and reduce mAs

c)

Keep both kVp and mAs as low as possible regardless of image quality

d)

Increase both kVp and mAs to shorten exposure time

27.

According to the simplified factor table, how does increasing mAs affect patient dose?

a)

It decreases patient dose by improving penetration

b)

It has no effect on dose but sharpens detail

c)

It increases patient dose because more radiation is emitted

d)

It decreases scatter without changing dose

28.

Which statement about distance (SID/SOD) and patient dose is most accurate?

a)

Decreasing distance reduces dose because the beam spreads out

b)

Increasing distance results in less radiation hitting the patient

c)

Distance does not influence dose in any circumstance

d)

Shorter distance always improves image contrast while lowering dose

29.

What is the primary purpose of filtration in radiography in relation to patient dose?

a)

To sharpen the image by reducing focal spot size

b)

To remove weak x-rays that would only hit the skin, decreasing skin dose

c)

To increase penetration of the beam to reduce exposure time

d)

To eliminate scatter by replacing the need for grids

30.

When should a small focal spot be selected based on the technical factor guidance?

a)

Whenever dose reduction is the highest priority

b)

When possible, to improve image detail without directly changing dose

c)

Only when imaging thick body parts to reduce scatter

d)

Never, because it increases patient dose

31.

What field size choice helps reduce dose and scatter according to the technical factor tips?

a)

Widen the field to include adjacent anatomy

b)

Match the field size to the entire table to avoid cut-off

c)

Make the x-ray beam as small as possible around the area of interest

d)

Use the largest field size when using a grid

32.

Which patients benefit from gonad shielding and when should it be used?

a)

All patients regardless of anatomy, used on every exam

b)

Only pediatric patients, used when the entire torso is imaged

c)

Patients with reproductive organs in or near the beam, used whenever feasible

d)

Only pregnant patients, used during chest imaging

33.

How should kVp be adjusted for body parts of different densities?

a)

Lower kVp for thicker or denser parts; higher kVp for smaller parts

b)

Higher kVp for thicker or denser parts; lower kVp for smaller parts like hand or wrist

c)

Use the same kVp for all parts to standardize dose

d)

Always pair low kVp with high mAs regardless of part thickness

34.

Which statement best explains why digital image receptor systems help reduce patient dose?

a)

They require higher mAs because they are less sensitive

b)

They need less radiation due to higher sensitivity

c)

They produce images only at very high kVp

d)

They require the patient to be closer to the x-ray tube

35.

Which prime exposure factor most directly controls the quantity of x-ray photons and thus patient dose?

a)

mAs

b)

kVp

c)

Focal spot size

d)

Filtration

36.

According to the interrelationship of prime factors, increasing kVp has what general effect on radiation reaching the patient?

a)

Minimal change in radiation output

b)

Greatly increases radiation output

c)

Cuts radiation output in half

d)

Eliminates the need for mAs

37.

What happens to radiation intensity at the patient when source-to-image distance (SID) is doubled?

a)

It doubles

b)

It is reduced to one-half

c)

It is reduced to one-fourth

d)

It remains unchanged

38.

To minimize patient dose while maintaining image quality, which combination is recommended?

a)

Low kVp, high mAs, minimal distance

b)

High enough kVp to penetrate, low mAs, as much distance as possible

c)

High kVp, high mAs, short distance

d)

Low kVp, low mAs, short distance

39.

If mAs is cut in half, what is the expected change in radiation reaching the patient, assuming other factors remain constant?

a)

Radiation doubles

b)

Radiation is unchanged

c)

Radiation cuts in half

d)

Radiation reduces to one-fourth

40.

Why does film/screen imaging typically result in a higher patient dose than digital imaging?

a)

Film is more sensitive and needs lower mAs

b)

Film is less sensitive and requires higher mAs

c)

Digital systems require longer exposure times

d)

Digital systems cannot produce clear images at low mAs

41.

Which statement reflects the connection among mAs, kVp, and distance regarding patient dose?

a)

Changing one factor does not affect the others

b)

All factors influence total dose and are interconnected

c)

Only kVp determines total dose

d)

Distance has no effect on dose

42.

A radiographer increases kVp slightly to improve penetration. What caution does the material emphasize?

a)

Small kVp changes have minimal impact on radiation

b)

Small kVp changes can make big changes in radiation

c)

kVp affects only image contrast, not dose

d)

Increasing kVp always allows reducing distance

43.

Which procedural adjustment most directly reduces patient dose without sacrificing image clarity in digital imaging?

a)

Use higher mAs because digital systems need more photons

b)

Use lower mAs because digital systems can produce clear images at reduced mAs

c)

Decrease distance to increase intensity

d)

Select a lower kVp regardless of anatomy

44.

What is the primary rationale for maximizing distance between the x-ray tube and the patient?

a)

Improves spatial resolution by enlarging focal spot

b)

Reduces radiation intensity at the patient due to inverse square law

c)

Allows the use of lower kVp values

d)

Ensures the detector receives more scatter

45.

Which statement best explains why digital image receptor systems can reduce patient dose compared to film/screen systems?

a)

Digital systems are more sensitive, allowing lower mAs for adequate exposure.

b)

Digital systems require higher mAs to avoid motion blur.

c)

Film/screen systems capture more photons, so they need lower kVp.

d)

Film/screen systems are less sensitive, permitting lower mAs.

46.

According to the instructional text, what is the most direct effect of increasing mAs while keeping other factors constant?

a)

Patient dose decreases because fewer photons are produced

b)

Patient dose increases because more x-ray photons are produced

c)

Image contrast decreases because kVp is lowered

d)

Spatial resolution improves because SID is increased

47.

Which practice aligns with dose reduction guidance related to mAs?

a)

Use the highest mAs to shorten exposure time regardless of image quality

b)

Use the lowest mAs that still provides a clear, diagnostic-quality image

c)

Keep mAs constant and only adjust kVp for every exam

d)

Double mAs whenever SID is increased

48.

Which statement best captures the relationship between mAs and radiation quantity?

a)

mAs primarily changes photon energy without affecting quantity

b)

Higher mAs means more x-ray photons, leading to higher dose

c)

Lower mAs produces higher energy photons, increasing penetration

d)

mAs has no impact on patient dose when kVp is fixed

49.

A technologist increases the source-to-image distance (SID) while maintaining the same exposure settings. Based on the inverse relationship described, what outcome is expected at the patient’s skin?

a)

Greater intensity because the beam narrows with distance

b)

Lower intensity because the radiation spreads over a larger area

c)

No change because distance affects only magnification

d)

Higher intensity due to increased photon energy

50.

If mAs is increased and kVp and distance remain unchanged, which balanced factor combination would reduce patient dose back toward the original level?

a)

Increase kVp and increase SID to maintain image quality with lower mAs

b)

Decrease kVp and decrease SID to compensate for higher mAs

c)

Increase mAs further and keep all other factors the same

d)

Decrease mAs to the lowest value that still yields a diagnostic image

51.

Which prime factor adjustment most directly reduces entrance skin exposure according to the material?

a)

Increasing mAs while keeping distance constant

b)

Decreasing kVp while keeping mAs constant

c)

Increasing SID or SOD with other factors unchanged

d)

Switching from fixed to automatic exposure control

52.

Choose the statement that correctly summarizes the interrelationship of prime factors in radiographic exposure.

a)

mAs controls quantity of radiation; increasing mAs increases dose

b)

kVp alone determines dose regardless of mAs or distance

c)

Distance does not affect radiation intensity at the patient’s skin

d)

Increasing mAs reduces dose because exposure time is shorter

53.

Which setting primarily determines x‑ray beam penetration through tissue, and therefore influences contrast and patient dose via energy?

a)

kVp

b)

mAs

c)

SID

d)

Collimation

54.

Milliamperage‑seconds (mAs) most directly controls which aspect of the exposure, affecting patient dose?

a)

Beam energy (penetration)

b)

Amount of radiation (quantity)

c)

Scatter direction

d)

Field size

55.

According to the 15% Rule, what change to kVp allows you to halve mAs while maintaining similar receptor exposure?

a)

Decrease kVp by 5%

b)

Increase kVp by 15%

c)

Double kVp

d)

Increase mAs by 15%

56.

When you raise kVp and lower mAs appropriately using the 15% Rule, the typical effect on patient dose is what?

a)

Dose increases due to more radiation quantity

b)

Dose decreases because higher kVp with lower mAs reduces entrance skin exposure

c)

Dose is unchanged in all cases

d)

Dose increases unless filtration is added

57.

If image quality requires a minimum mAs to control noise, what is the safest way to reduce dose while preserving that mAs?

a)

Lower kVp slightly and keep mAs the same

b)

Raise kVp and keep mAs the same or slightly lower per 15% Rule

c)

Increase SID to shorten exposure time

d)

Open collimation to include more anatomy

58.

Which statement best describes the interrelationship of kVp and mAs for maintaining similar receptor exposure?

a)

They are independent and should not be changed together

b)

Increasing kVp allows a proportional increase in mAs to keep exposure constant

c)

Increasing kVp can be balanced by decreasing mAs (and vice versa) to keep exposure similar

d)

Decreasing mAs always requires decreasing kVp

59.

A technologist wants to lower patient dose while keeping image noise acceptable. Which change is most appropriate?

a)

Reduce mAs below the optimal level, keeping kVp fixed

b)

Increase kVp by about 15% and reduce mAs by half

c)

Double mAs and lower kVp slightly

d)

Keep both kVp and mAs unchanged

60.

Which statement best explains why accurate use of gonad shielding is recommended in radiography?

a)

It eliminates the need for collimation by narrowing the x‑ray beam automatically.

b)

It decreases patient dose to reproductive organs when positioned correctly.

c)

It increases image sharpness by blocking only scatter radiation.

d)

It allows the use of higher mAs without affecting patient dose.

61.

According to the listed types, which option is NOT one of the major gonad shielding designs?

a)

Flat contact

b)

Shadow

c)

Shaped contact

d)

Focused grid

62.

A radiographer chooses a higher ratio grid. What is the direct consequence described that affects exposure settings?

a)

Less x‑rays are blocked, so mAs can be reduced.

b)

More x‑rays are blocked, so mAs must be increased.

c)

Scatter radiation increases, so kVp must be lowered.

d)

Patient dose decreases automatically, so exposure can stay the same.

63.

What is the relationship between grid strength and patient dose as stated?

a)

Stronger grid requires less radiation, leading to lower patient dose.

b)

Stronger grid has no effect on radiation, keeping patient dose unchanged.

c)

Stronger grid needs more radiation, resulting in higher patient dose.

d)

Stronger grid increases scatter transmission, reducing patient dose.

64.

Which purpose of a grid is identified in the material?

a)

To focus the primary beam and increase magnification.

b)

To clean up scatter radiation and make the image sharper.

c)

To reduce kVp while maintaining image brightness.

d)

To shield gonads during pelvic imaging.

65.

What key caution is emphasized about digital systems’ ability to adjust image brightness?

a)

Because brightness is auto‑adjusted, overexposure is acceptable.

b)

The computer can fix exposure errors and also remove radiation from the patient.

c)

Brightness adjustment does not justify using high exposure; patient dose still matters.

d)

Auto‑adjustment only works when the exposure is too low, not too high.