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Intro to Sports Medicine Midterm review game

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A recognized profession since the 1960's, this person provides the extension of consumer access to health services by extending the time and skills of the physician.

a)

Physician assistant

b)

Physical therapist

c)

Athletic trainer

d)

Nurse practitioner

2.

This profession's responsibilities to athletes include prevention, recognition, evaluation, care and rehabilitation of injuries.

a)

Athletic Trainer

b)

Physical therapist

c)

Team physician

d)

Strength and conditioning coach

3.

Personal Qualities of a Certified Athletic Trainers (are):

a)

Empathy

b)

Financial acumen

c)

Salesmanship

d)

Facility design skills

4.

The branch of medicine that deals with injuries or illnesses resulting from participation in sports and athletic activities is:

a)

Sports Medicine

b)

Emergency Medicine

c)

Physical Therapy

d)

Orthopedics

5.

Name 4 professions associated with Sports Medicine and athletic care.

a)

Physical therapist

b)

Athletic Trainer

c)

Certified Strength and Conditioning Coach

d)

Physician assistant

e)

School counselor

6.

During what civilizations did Sports Medicine begin?

a)

Ancient Greece

b)

Renaissance Italy

c)

Industrial Revolution England

d)

Ancient China

7.

What is HIPAA?

a)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability

b)

Health Information Privacy and Access Act

c)

Health Insurance Protection and Access Agreement

d)

Healthcare Information Portability and Accessibility

8.

Can a non-medical person violate HIPAA?

a)

No

b)

Yes

9.

When an athletic trainer allows an athlete to participate with a concussion in a game or practice, knowing that they are symptomatic and should not play resulting in permanent injury, the athletic trainer is guilty of what?

a)

Negligence

b)

Malfeasance

c)

Battery

d)

Assault

10.

Which elements need to be present for a person to be found to be negligent?

a)

Duty

b)

Breach of Duty

c)

Proximate cause

d)

Damage

e)

Strict liability

11.

In Sports Medicine, why is thorough documentation of an athlete's injury and treatment plan crucial?

a)

Legal record

b)

Progress tracking

c)

Continuity of care

d)

Communication with the media

e)

Ability to monitor treatment over time

12.

Why is it important for Sports Medicine professionals to have malpractice insurance?

a)

Financial protection against lawsuits

b)

To guarantee employment

c)

To increase patient flow

d)

To waive legal responsibility

13.

Looking at the future of Sports Medicine, which factor is most likely to lead to increased demand for professionals in this field globally?

a)

Growing health and fitness participation

b)

Decreasing youth sports involvement

c)

Reduction in chronic diseases

d)

Declining interest in athletic performance

14.

Someone who can custom fit, design & construct braces, orthotics and support devices as per a doctor’s prescriptions is a:

a)

Prosthetist

b)

Orthopedic surgeon

c)

Orthotist

d)

Physical therapist

15.

Why is an EAP (Emergency Action Plan) important?

a)

To facilitate and organize employer and employee actions during workplace emergencies

b)

To document athletic participation hours

c)

To replace emergency medical services

d)

To reduce training requirements for staff

16.

How often should an EAP be reviewed with all involved?

a)

Annually and as needed

b)

Every five years

c)

Only after an incident

d)

Monthly only

17.

What does the primary survey assess?

a)

Life threatening injuries

b)

Minor musculoskeletal injuries

c)

Chronic conditions

d)

Hydration status

18.

A 17-year-old student with a known peanut allergy accidentally eats a peanut butter cookie at lunch. Within minutes, they begin having trouble breathing, their face swells, and they feel faint. What type of shock is this student likely experiencing?

a)

Anaphylactic shock

b)

Neurogenic shock

c)

Septic shock

d)

Psychogenic shock

19.

During a football game, a player takes a hard hit to the chest and later collapses. After being evaluated, doctors confirm he had a heart attack. What type of shock may this player have gone into?

a)

Cardiogenic shock

b)

Hypovolemic shock

c)

Anaphylactic shock

d)

Respiratory shock

20.

An elderly patient in the hospital has a bloodstream infection that’s not responding to antibiotics. The patient's blood pressure suddenly drops and their organs begin to fail. Which type of shock does this situation describe?

a)

Septic shock

b)

Neurogenic shock

c)

Psychogenic shock

d)

Anaphylactic shock

21.

At a graduation ceremony, a student suddenly faints while waiting in line. After being checked by the nurse, the student regains consciousness and says they were feeling overwhelmed and anxious. What kind of shock could this be?

a)

Psychogenic shock

b)

Cardiogenic shock

c)

Septic shock

d)

Neurogenic shock

22.

A person involved in a major car accident is found bleeding heavily from their leg and shows signs of confusion and rapid heartbeat. What type of shock might this person be in?

a)

Hypovolemic shock

b)

Cardiogenic shock

c)

Neurogenic shock

d)

Septic shock

23.

After a diving accident, an individual cannot move their arms or legs and has unstable blood pressure. Doctors say there may be damage to the cervical spinal cord. Which type of shock is this?

a)

Neurogenic shock

b)

Anaphylactic shock

c)

Psychogenic shock

d)

Septic shock

24.

Give an example of something that is NOT a protective personal equipment (PPE) against blood-borne pathogens:

a)

Shin guards

b)

Gloves

c)

Goggles

d)

Face shield

25.

What is the first thing you should do when coming upon an emergency scene?

a)

Checking to see if it is safe

b)

Call 911 immediately without assessing safety

c)

Move the victim right away

d)

Begin CPR immediately

26.

Why would you need to move a victim?

a)

If there is a fire or if it is not safe

b)

To make space for bystanders

c)

To improve comfort during assessment

d)

To reduce legal liability

27.

When rescue breathing for an adult, how many breaths per how many seconds do you give?

a)

1 breath every 6 seconds

b)

1 breath every 3 seconds

c)

2 breaths every 5 seconds

d)

10 breaths per minute

28.

In a conscious choking situation, you get CONSENT, move behind the person, put your foot between their legs, place fist, thumb side down middle of abdomen, just above the navel (bellybutton), cover fist with other hand and then do what?

a)

5 quick upward thrusts

b)

Begin rescue breaths

c)

Call 911 and wait

d)

Perform chest compressions only

29.

Based on the scenario above, what would you do next?

a)

5 back blows

b)

Check for a pulse

c)

Place in recovery position

d)

Use an AED

30.

When doing CPR on an adult/child by yourself, the breath to compression ratio is:

a)

30 compressions to 2 breaths

b)

15 compressions to 2 breaths

c)

30 compressions to 1 breath

d)

100 compressions to 2 breaths

31.

How do you administer compressions in an adult/child (explain where you place your hands, how are your arms and elbows)? (Check all that apply)

a)

Fingers interlocked

b)

Hands at the middle of the chest (nipple line)

c)

Arms locked out

d)

Weight over shoulders

e)

Compressing down about 2-3 inches

32.

Why would someone use an AED?

a)

When someone has no pulse

b)

To treat minor cuts

c)

To monitor blood pressure

d)

When someone is breathing normally

33.

When putting AED pads on an adult, where do they go on the victim after making sure he/she is dry & shaved if necessary?

a)

Pad #1 upper right chest

b)

Pad #2 left side at the end of the rib cage

c)

Both pads placed on the left shoulder

34.

You found the athlete to have blood pressure of 110/70. What is the top number called?

a)

Systolic

b)

Diastolic

c)

Mean arterial pressure

d)

Pulse pressure

35.

You found an athlete to have blood pressure of 120/80120/80 . What is the bottom number called?

a)

Systolic

b)

Diastolic

c)

Pulse pressure

d)

Mean arterial pressure

36.

An athlete presents with pale appearance and the following: rapid, weak pulse; cool, clammy skin; pale skin color with lack of pain. What could be going on?

a)

Heat exhaustion

b)

Heat stroke

c)

Hypothermia

d)

Shock

37.

An athlete presents with: a rapid, weak pulse; abnormal red, hot skin that is relatively dry; and body temperature well above normal. What could be going on?

a)

Heat exhaustion

b)

Heat stroke

c)

Frostbite

d)

Dehydration

38.

Which statements describe anatomical position? Select all that apply.

a)

Standing

b)

Facing forward

c)

Arms at the side of the body

d)

Palms facing forward

39.

What anatomical term describes someone who is lying on their back?

a)

Prone

b)

Supine

c)

Lateral

d)

Inferior

40.

Bending a joint or decreasing the joint angle is known as:

a)

Flexion

b)

Extension

c)

Abduction

d)

Rotation

41.

The epiphyseal plate is a hyaline cartilage plate in the metaphysis at each end of a long bone and is commonly known as the:

a)

Growth plate

b)

Articular cartilage

c)

Periosteum

d)

Meniscus

42.

Ball-and-socket joints can be found in which two joints?

a)

Shoulder and hip

b)

Knee and elbow

c)

Ankle and wrist

d)

Vertebral facets and sacroiliac joint

43.

If a contusion is green or yellow, when did it most likely happen?

a)

1 day ago

b)

2 days ago

c)

5 days ago

d)

10 days ago

44.

Which of the following is NOT a factor in overuse injuries?

a)

Strong blow

b)

Repetitive motion

c)

Training errors

d)

Poor biomechanics

45.

M.O.I. is medical shorthand for:

a)

Mechanism of Injury

b)

Manual orthopedic inspection

c)

Method of immobilization

d)

Measure of intensity

46.

What the athletic trainer can see when an athlete gets hurt is called a:

a)

Sign

b)

Symptom

47.

What the athlete tells the athletic trainer about what is bothering them when they get hurt is called a:

a)

Sign

b)

Symptom

48.

Define lateral (anatomic term).

a)

Closer to the midline

b)

Farther from the midline

c)

Toward the head

d)

Toward the surface

49.

Define medial (anatomic term).

a)

Closer to the midline

b)

Farther from the midline

c)

Toward the feet

d)

Away from the surface

50.

The sagittal plane divides the body into what areas?

a)

Superior and inferior portions

b)

Anterior and posterior portions

c)

Left and right portions

d)

Proximal and distal portions

51.

Why is proper and detailed medical documentation (such as injury reports) important in Sports Medicine? Select all that apply.

a)

Provides a legal record

b)

Allows tracking of progress

c)

Ensures continuity of care

d)

Primarily serves marketing purposes

e)

Prevents athletes from asking questions

52.

What test would a doctor most likely prescribe for a suspected fracture or dislocation?

a)

X-ray

b)

MRI

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Bone scan

53.

What test would a doctor prescribe for removing loose bodies or suturing torn tissue?

a)

Arthroscopy

b)

Angiography

c)

Electrocardiogram

d)

Spirometry

54.

What test would a doctor prescribe for bone mineral density?

a)

DEXA scan

b)

MRI

c)

CT scan

d)

Ultrasound

55.

What test would a doctor prescribe for soft tissue lesions using a large magnet?

a)

MRI

b)

X-ray

c)

PET scan

d)

Arthrogram

56.

What test would a doctor prescribe to distinguish between living or dead tissue, or between benign and malignant tissue?

a)

PET scan

b)

EEG

c)

Spirometry

d)

Doppler ultrasound

57.

An athlete just flew across three time zones for a competition. Which special situation are they most likely experiencing, and how might it affect them?

a)

Jet lag

b)

Altitude sickness

c)

Motion sickness

d)

Decompression sickness

58.

What is the number one rule of training and conditioning for athletes?

a)

Safety

b)

Intensity

c)

Competition

d)

Speed

59.

Why does environmental stress such as heat need to be taken seriously when training?

a)

It can lead to hyperthermia in which body temperature becomes elevated

b)

It automatically improves endurance over time

c)

It prevents dehydration from occurring

d)

It directly increases muscle mass without risk

60.

Which of the following can help with playing in the heat? Select all that apply.

a)

Appropriate hydration

b)

Unrestricted fluid and electrolyte replacement

c)

Gradual acclimatization

d)

Identify susceptible individuals

61.

Which of the following can help with playing in the heat? Select all that apply.

a)

Appropriate uniforms

b)

Weight records

c)

Monitoring of heat index

62.

Scenario: A basketball player complains of knee pain after long practices and games. The athletic trainer examines the player's old basketball shoes and notices the soles are much more worn on the inside edge of both shoes. What are the worn shoes telling the athletic trainer about the athlete’s ankles?

a)

They may have an ankle sprain caused by forced plantar flexion and inversion

b)

They show perfect alignment with no injury risk

c)

They likely have a wrist injury unrelated to footwear

d)

The shoes indicate dehydration rather than a musculoskeletal issue

63.

Scenario: A high school football player lifts the heaviest weight possible every day, often skipping warm-up and cool-down. After a few weeks, he develops persistent shoulder pain. Is he ignoring the principles of progression and recovery, and what can happen to the athlete?

a)

Yes; an overuse injury can occur

b)

No; he will only see improved strength

c)

Yes; an immediate traumatic fracture is inevitable

d)

No; the pain indicates normal adaptation