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WorksheetsTEST CCMA NHA Mod 5 Gen Pt Care Part 2
Total questions: 65
Worksheet time: 33mins
Which device provides an electrical shock to restore a normal heartbeat?
Automated External Defibrillator (AED)
Crash cart
Endoscope
Colposcope
What is the surgical removal of tissue for later microscopic examination called?
Biopsy
Incision and Drainage (I&D)
Evisceration
Autoclaving
Which lifesaving technique consists of chest compressions combined with artificial ventilation?
Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)
Syncope management
Colposcopy
Cryosurgery
What is the examination of the vagina and cervix performed using a specialized endoscope called?
Colposcopy
Endoscopy
Biopsy
Laparoscopy
What is a portable cart stocked with emergency supplies, also termed an emergency kit?
Crash cart
EMS bag
DME cabinet
First-aid box
What term describes partial or total separation of a wound's edges?
Dehiscence
Evisceration
Laceration
Abrasion
Which category includes medical devices and supplies that can be used repeatedly outside of a hospital?
Durable Medical Equipment
Disposable supplies
Crash cart contents
Over-the-counter items
What term refers to an unforeseen circumstance that requires immediate attention?
Emergency
Incident report
Triage
Follow-up
Which system provides urgent pre-hospital treatment and care?
Emergency Medical Services (EMS)
Urgent care clinic
Hospital admissions
Primary care network
Which procedure uses an endoscope to view a hollow organ or body cavity such as the larynx, colon, or bladder?
Endoscopy
Colposcopy
Laparotomy
Biopsy
What is superficial reddening of the skin called?
Erythema
Cyanosis
Jaundice
Pallor
What term describes separation of wound edges and protrusion of abdominal organs?
Evisceration
Dehiscence
Herniation
Prolapse
What is the immediate care given to the victim of injury or sudden illness to sustain life and prevent death?
First Aid
CPR
EMS transport
Triage
What is the escape of blood from a ruptured blood vessel called?
Hemorrhage
Hematoma
Ecchymosis
Petechiae
What procedure involves lancing a fluid or pressure buildup under the skin to allow it to drain and relieve pressure?
Incision and Drainage (I&D)
Biopsy
Debridement
Suturing
Which condition is a heart attack caused when blood flow bringing oxygen to the heart muscle is suddenly blocked, potentially leading to cardiac arrest if not restored quickly?
Myocardial Infarction
Angina pectoris
Arrhythmia
Cardiomyopathy
What term describes uncontrolled muscle activity that can be caused by high body temperature, head injuries, drugs, and epilepsy?
Seizure
Spasm
Tic
Tremor
What is a stretched or torn ligament called?
Sprain
Strain
Fracture
Contusion
What is a stretched or torn muscle or tendon called?
Strain
Sprain
Dislocation
Avulsion
Which term refers to techniques to eliminate pathogenic and other potentially harmful microbes related to invasive procedures?
Surgical Asepsis
Medical asepsis
Disinfection
Standard precautions
What term refers to fainting, a brief episode of unconsciousness?
Syncope
Apnea
Coma
Somnolence
What are packages prepared for use in surgical procedures, each containing a single instrument, a piece of equipment, or several items packed together, called?
Sterile packets (packages)
Dressing kits
Crash cart drawers
Autoclave cassettes
What is the process of using high-temperature steam to kill micro-organisms called?
Autoclaving
Pasteurization
Irradiation
Filtration
How wide is the border on a sterile field that is considered non-sterile?
1 inch
1/2 inch
2 inches
3/4 inch
Which procedure uses intense cold via a liquid or a cryoprobe to destroy unwanted tissue?
Cryosurgery
Electrocautery
Laser ablation
Curettage
How do you remove sutures? Select the technique that matches the described procedure: cut the suture with suture scissors below the knot and as close to the skin as possible; remove every other suture first, then the remaining; pull the remaining suture out by the long end without pulling external material through the skin.
Cut below the knot close to skin, remove alternating sutures first, then remaining, pulling the long end out
Cut above the knot and pull both ends through the skin simultaneously
Pull on any exposed suture to remove it before cutting
Leave external suture material and cut flush with the skin without removal
How do you remove surgical staples according to the described method: begin with the second staple, place lower tip of the sterile staple remover under the staple, advance the lower jaw, squeeze handles until closed to bend and lift the staple, do not lift the remover when squeezing, and remove every other staple first?
Insert lower tip under staple, squeeze to bend and lift while not lifting the remover, remove every other staple first
Grasp staple with forceps and pull straight up without bending
Cut each staple in half before lifting ends
Start at the first staple and remove all consecutively without skipping
Which findings describe severe hypoglycemia symptoms across mild to severe cases?
Irritability, hunger, sweating, rapid heart rate; progressing to fainting, seizures, confusion, headache, coma, and potentially death
Dry skin, weight gain, bradycardia; progressing to constipation and myxedema
Polyuria, polydipsia, blurred vision; progressing to ketoacidosis
Chest pain radiating to arm; progressing to cardiogenic shock
For mild or moderate hypoglycemia, how should the patient’s blood glucose level be raised, and what is administered in severe cases?
Consume foods or liquids high in glucose; administer glucagon for severe hypoglycemia
Drink plain water; administer insulin for severe hypoglycemia
Begin IV saline; administer epinephrine for severe hypoglycemia
Apply cold compresses; administer atropine for severe hypoglycemia
Which description lists symptoms of hypovolemic shock due to excessive loss of body fluids or blood?
Thirst, muscle cramping, lightheadedness progressing to chest pain, confusion, lethargy, and death if untreated
Fever, chills, night sweats progressing to rash
Cough, wheeze, dyspnea progressing to cyanosis
Polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss progressing to ketosis
What is the treatment focus for hypovolemic shock?
Control of blood loss, blood transfusion, and IV fluid replacement
Administration of bronchodilators and oxygen only
Antihistamines and corticosteroids exclusively
Apply ice and elevate the extremity only
Which symptoms indicate heat exhaustion or heat stroke as described?
Muscle cramping from electrolyte imbalance due to sodium loss with perspiration, and pale, clammy skin
Shivering with piloerection and blue lips
Joint swelling with warmth and redness
Dry cough with wheezing and chest tightness
What is the treatment for heat exhaustion or heat stroke according to the description?
Remove from warm temperatures and apply available cold compresses such as an ice pack; death can result if untreated
Provide hot beverages and warm blankets immediately
Have the person run to promote circulation
Apply tourniquets to reduce heat to extremities
Which signs describe hypothermia or frostbite symptoms as the condition progresses?
Redness and tingling progressing to pale, numb tissue; shivering, numbness, confusion, paleness, and possible loss of consciousness
Profuse sweating with flushed skin and dilated pupils
Rash with vesicles and pruritus
Sharp chest pain with radiation to jaw
What is the treatment for hypothermia or frostbite as stated?
Remove from cold, remove wet clothing, cover with a blanket, and provide warm/dry compresses and warm beverages; death can result if untreated
Apply ice to affected area and keep the person outdoors
Massage the frozen tissue vigorously to restore circulation
Give cold fluids to avoid shock
What is the recommended treatment for an obstructed airway (choking)?
Use abdominal thrusts for adults and children older than 1 year; use a combination of chest thrusts and back slaps for infants younger than 1 year
Perform only back slaps for all ages
Insert a finger to blindly sweep the mouth in all cases
Have the person drink water to wash down the obstruction
What is the stated treatment for syncope (fainting)?
Use aromatic spirits of ammonia capsules to wake the patient, wafting the vapors at least 6 inches from the nose
Restrain the patient and hold capsules directly under the nose
Give a large meal immediately
Have the patient run to increase blood flow
What treatment is described for sprains/strains?
Rest and elevate the area, apply cold compresses, wear a bandage or brace, and use anti-inflammatory medications
Apply heat immediately and begin vigorous exercise
Immobilize permanently in a cast for all cases
Begin antibiotics to prevent infection
What is the described treatment for dislocations?
Depends on joint and severity; may include manipulations to reposition bones, medication, a splint or sling, and rehabilitation
Immediate weight-bearing to speed recovery
Only apply heat and avoid immobilization
Administer antibiotics and suture the joint
What immediate care is recommended for fractures?
Stop bleeding by elevating and applying pressure, immobilize the area, and apply localized cold such as an ice pack in cloth
Apply heat and encourage movement
Attempt to set the bone without immobilization
Only give fluids and observe
What is the treatment for anaphylactic shock as stated?
Deliver an Epi-pen, call 911, keep the patient calm and still, monitor pulse and breathing, and begin CPR if needed
Apply only cold compresses and observe
Give oral antihistamines and send home
Have the patient lie flat and withhold all medications
What is the treatment for seizures according to the description?
Assist to the floor, move objects out of the way, time the seizure, cushion the head, do not restrain, and turn on the side to prevent aspiration
Hold the patient down to prevent movement
Insert a tongue depressor to prevent biting
Give water during the seizure to prevent dehydration
What is the stated approach for poisoning treatment?
Call 911 if the patient is drowsy or unconscious, is having difficulty breathing or has stopped breathing, or is having seizures; if possible, remove the poison
Induce vomiting in all cases immediately
Give milk to neutralize any poison
Have the patient sleep it off and reassess later
What is the treatment guidance for open wounds?
Manage bleeding, cleanse, and bandage; may need suture or staple
Close immediately with glue without cleansing
Apply heat to stop bleeding
Leave the wound open and dry without bandage
Which phase of wound healing starts when the wound occurs, lasts about 4 days, and involves the immune system preventing infection?
Inflammatory phase
Proliferative phase
Maturation phase
Remodeling phase
During which phase of wound healing does the wound begin to heal with new cells formed around damaged tissue, from day 4 to weeks?
Proliferative phase
Inflammatory phase
Maturation phase
Hemostatic phase
Which phase of wound healing occurs about 3 weeks and later when new tissues cover the wound and scar tissue forms?
Maturation phase
Inflammatory phase
Proliferative phase
Hemorrhagic phase
Which description fits a 1st-degree burn?
Superficial, redness, affects only the outer layer of skin
Partial-thickness with blisters and mottled skin
Full-thickness with charred, painless skin
Involves muscle and bone exposure
Which description fits a 2nd-degree burn?
Partial-thickness; breaks the surface and injures underlying tissue; skin is red or mottled; blisters form; causes greater pain and swelling
Superficial redness only
Full-thickness with white, leathery skin and minimal pain
Involves only hair follicles without skin damage
Which burn is described as deep-thickness that damages nerves and bones and is less painful due to nerve damage?
1st-degree burn
2nd-degree burn
3rd-degree burn
4th-degree burn
Which burn is deep full-thickness, damaging both layers of skin and underlying tissue, possibly involving muscle and bone, with no feeling because nerve endings are destroyed?
1st-degree burn
2nd-degree burn
3rd-degree burn
4th-degree burn
For minor burns treatment, which actions are recommended? Select all that apply.
Cool the area by holding under cool (not cold) water for 10 minutes
Apply lotion after cooling
Break blisters to release fluid
If a blister is broken, cleanse, use antibiotic ointment, and cover with a bandage
Rub with ice to reduce heat
For major burns treatment, which actions are appropriate? Select all that apply.
Call 911 or go to the emergency room
Remove clothing that is stuck to the burn
Remove jewelry, belts, and watches from the burn area
Cover the burn loosely with gauze and elevate
According to the CPR procedure listed, what is the compression-to-breath ratio?
15:2
30:2
5:1
2:30
According to the CPR procedure listed, which initial action is included?
Call 911 and tell someone to get the AED
Check pulse only and wait for EMS without starting CPR
Provide abdominal thrusts instead of chest compressions
Remove jewelry from the patient before starting CPR
Which items are must-haves for emergencies according to the list? Select all that apply.
Emergency Action Plan (who to contact, location of fire extinguishers and evacuation routes, who maintains equipment)
Crash cart
Automated external defibrillator (AED)
Emergency medications
Snack station for staff
An epinephrine auto-injector (Epi-pen) is used for which condition?
Anaphylactic shock
Opioid overdose
Localized pain
Chest pain from angina
What does naloxone do?
Treats anaphylaxis
Rapidly reverses an opioid overdose
Treats bradycardia
Treats dehydration
What is morphine used for?
For pain
For nausea and vomiting
For dehydration
For wheezing
Which medication is typically administered sublingually or as a spray for chest pain?
Nitroglycerin
Morphine
Atropine
Lidocaine
The albuterol nebulizer is indicated for which symptom set?
Nausea and vomiting
Chest pain
Bradycardia
Difficulty breathing or wheezing
Lidocaine is used to treat which condition?
Bradycardia
Localized pain
Opioid overdose
Anaphylactic shock
Atropine is used to treat which condition?
Bradycardia
Dehydration
Chest pain
Localized pain
Normal saline for IV administration is used for which indication?
Anaphylaxis
Dehydration
Opioid overdose
Nausea and vomiting
Prochlorperazine is used for which condition?
Nausea and vomiting
Chest pain
Bradycardia
Anaphylaxis
