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exam 2 unit 4

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the definition of Kyphosis?

a)

An inward curvature of the lower spine

b)

An excessive outward curvature of the upper spine

c)

A lateral curvature of the spine

d)

The softening of bones due to vitamin D deficiency

2.

The medical field devoted to the diagnosis and treatment of joint and autoimmune inflammatory conditions is called:

a)

Orthopedics

b)

Rheumatology

c)

Cardiology

d)

Endocrinology

3.

What is an osteophyte?

a)

A type of bone cell that breaks down bone tissue

b)

A benign bone tumor

c)

A bony projection or "bone spur" that forms along joint margins

d)

A fracture that does not heal properly

4.

A patient has a bone density score that is lower than normal but not yet at the level of osteoporosis. This condition is defined as:

a)

Osteomalacia

b)

Osteomyelitis

c)

Osteopenia

d)

Osteogenesis

5.

Bouchard's nodes, bony enlargements on the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints, are a classic sign of:

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Rheumatoid arthritis

c)

Gout

d)

Psoriatic arthritis

6.

Which of the following is NOT a common risk factor for developing osteoarthritis?

a)

Advanced age

b)

Obesity

c)

Joint injury

d)

High-impact exercise in youth

7.

The pathophysiology of osteoporosis primarily involves:

a)

An autoimmune attack on joint synovium

b)

An infection of the bone marrow

c)

An imbalance where bone resorption outpaces bone formation

d)

The formation of crystals within the joint space

8.

A key sign of Degenerative Disc Disease is:

a)

A bull's-eye skin rash

b)

Pain that radiates to the arms or legs from nerve compression

c)

Symmetrical joint swelling in the hands

d)

The presence of Bouchard's nodes

9.

Inflammation of muscle tissue is known as:

a)

Myelitis

b)

Tendonitis

c)

Myositis

d)

Bursitis

10.

During the stage of bone infection where pus forms within the bone, increasing pressure and leading to ischemia, it is called:

(a)  

11.

In a bone infection, the formation of a segment of dead bone that has separated from healthy bone is called:

a)

Involucrum

b)

Suppuration

c)

Sequestrum

d)

Resolution

12.

The body's attempt to wall off a bone infection by forming new bone around the area of dead bone is called the:

a)

Sequestrum

b)

Suppuration

c)

Involucrum

d)

Inflammation

13.

What is the primary causative agent of Lyme disease?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Borrelia burgdorferi

c)

Escherichia coli

d)

Streptococcus pyogenes

14.

What is the most characteristic early sign of Lyme disease?

a)

A widespread sunburn-like rash

b)

A bull's-eye rash (Erythema migrans)

c)

Swelling in the large joints

d)

A persistent cough

15.

The first-line treatment for early-stage Lyme disease is typically:

a)

Antiviral medication

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Immunosuppressants

16.

A patient presents with sudden, intense pain, redness, and swelling in their big toe. This is most characteristic of:

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

c)

Gout

d)

Lyme Disease

17.

Which stage of bone infection involves the initial invasion of bacteria, triggering the body's inflammatory response?

a)

Suppuration

b)

Sequestrum

c)

Resolution

d)

Inflammation

18.

Which of the following best describes the term "osteomalacia"?

a)

A precursor to osteoporosis

b)

The formation of a bone spur

c)

Softening of bones due to defective mineralization

d)

An autoimmune inflammation of the joints

19.

A major risk factor for osteoporosis is:

a)

Being a premenopausal female

b)

High body mass index (BMI)

c)

Postmenopausal status in women

d)

High dietary calcium intake

20.

Which diagnostic tool is most commonly used to confirm Degenerative Disc Disease and assess nerve compression?

a)

Electrocardiogram (EKG)

b)

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

21.

Which of the following is a potential complication of a bone infection that has progressed through the sequestrum and involucrum stages?

a)

Complete and spontaneous resolution

b)

Chronic osteomyelitis

c)

Improved bone density

d)

Resolution of all pain

22.

A patient with osteoarthritis would most likely complain of:

a)

Joint stiffness that improves with activity

b)

Fever and chills

c)

Symmetrical joint pain in the hands

d)

A sudden, tearing pain in the joint

23.

The primary cause of pain in gout is:

a)

The loss of cartilage cushioning the joint

b)

Uric acid crystals forming in the joint space

c)

An autoimmune reaction attacking the synovium

d)

A bacterial infection within the joint

24.

In the context of bone infections, "resolution" refers to:

a)

The formation of an abscess

b)

The successful treatment and healing of the infection

c)

The chronic, long-term state of the disease

d)

The initial inflammatory response

25.

Which sign is specific to the musculoskeletal system in a late stage of Lyme disease?

a)

Lyme carditis

b)

Neurological deficits like facial palsy

26.

What is the main pathological feature that differentiates osteoarthritis from rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

Osteoarthritis is an autoimmune disease.

b)

Osteoarthritis is characterized by inflammatory pannus.

c)

Osteoarthritis is a degenerative "wear-and-tear" process.

d)

Osteoarthritis primarily affects young adults.

27.

A patient diagnosed with osteopenia should be counseled to:

a)

Begin high-dose corticosteroid treatment.

b)

Increase weight-bearing exercise and calcium/vitamin D intake to prevent progression to osteoporosis.

c)

Prepare for immediate joint replacement surgery.

d)

Avoid all physical activity to prevent fractures.

28.

The transmission of Lyme disease to humans occurs via:

a)

Contaminated food or water

b)

Respiratory droplets

c)

The bite of an infected tick

d)

Direct contact with an infected person

29.

During a bone infection, the formation of an abscess occurs during which stage?

a)

Inflammation

b)

Suppuration

c)

Sequestrum

d)

Involucrum

30.

Which of the following is a non-modifiable risk factor for osteoarthritis?

(a)