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[LRH] Bacteriology Primer Part 2

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Selective Culture media for Mycobacterium

a)

Lowenstein Jensen Medium

b)

Tellurite Medium

c)

Tod Hewitt

d)

Petragnani

2.

Selective media for Mycobacterium that is heavily contaminated and has highest conc of malachite green

(a)  

3.

Tellurite Medium is for…?

a)

Mycobacterium

b)

Staphylococcus

c)

C. diphtheria

d)

Cloatridium

4.

Purpose of Vancomycin in Thayer Martin

a)

inhibits gram positive

b)

Prevents swarming

c)

inhibits gram negative

d)

inhibits fungi

5.

Purpose Nystatin in Thayer Martin

a)

inhibits gram positive

b)

Prevents swarming

c)

inhibits gram negative

d)

inhibits fungi

6.

Purpose Trimethoprim Lactate in MTM

a)

inhibits gram positive

b)

Prevents swarming

c)

inhibits gram negative

d)

inhibits fungi

7.

All are true except

a)

Mannitol Salt Agar is selective and enrichment for S aureus

b)

MSA carbohydrate source is Mannitol and its inhibitor is 7.5-10% NACL

c)

pH indicator of MSA is phenol red

d)

Mannitol fermenters are yellow colonies

8.

All are true except

a)

TCBS is selective differential for vibrio

b)

Sucrose fermenters are green colonies and non sucrose fermenters are yellow

c)

pH indicator of TCBS is bromthymol blue

d)

Bile salts is the inhibitor of TCBS

9.

Rapid Lactose fermenters

a)

Salmonella arizone, shigell sonnei, citrobacter, serratia, hafnia, yersinia

b)

salmonella, shigella, proteus, providenci, morganella, edwardsiella

c)

escherichia, klebsiella, enterobacter

10.

Late Lactose fermenters

a)

Salmonella arizone, shigell sonnei, citrobacter, serratia, hafnia, yersinia

b)

salmonella, shigella, proteus, providenci, morganella, edwardsiella

c)

escherichia, klebsiella, enterobacter

11.

E. coli produces what colonies in EMB

a)

pink mucoid colonies

b)

pink to purple with green metallic sheen

c)

pink colonies with dark center

12.

pink colonies with dark center in EMB

(a)  

13.

True about HEA except;

a)

Hektoen enteric agar uses lactose, sucrose, and salicin as source of carbohydrates

b)

pH indicator is bromthymol blue

c)

H2S indicator is ferric ammonium citrate

d)

inhibitor is bile salts

e)

none of the above

14.

In HEA, Lactose fermenter and H2S negative appear

a)

Yellow colonies without black center

b)

Yellow colonies with black center

c)

Green colonies without black center

d)

Green colonies with black center

15.

SPACEd are H2s positive

a)

false

b)

true

16.

non sucrose fermenter, non salicin fermenter, appears green colonies with black center in HEA

a)

Citrobacter

b)

Enterobacter

c)

Shigella

d)

Salmonella

17.

True about Salmonella Shigella agar except;

a)

pH indicator is Bromthymol Blue

b)

Carbohydrate source is lactose

c)

pH indicator is neutral red

d)

Salmonella appears colorless with black center and Shigella appears colorless without black center

18.

presumptive identification of Group D streptococci, and enterococci

a)

Blood agar

b)

Bile esculin agar

c)

bordet gengou agar

d)

Campy-blood agar

19.

agar for hemolytic reactions

a)

Blood agar

b)

Bile esculin agar

c)

bordet gengou agar

d)

Campy-blood agar

20.

isolation of bordetella pertussis

a)

Blood agar

b)

Bile esculin agar

c)

bordet gengou agar

d)

Campy-blood agar

21.

causative agent of whooping cough

(a)  

22.

agent acquired from aircon towers

(a)  

23.

Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin agar is for the isolation of

a)

Yersinia spp

b)

Legionella

c)

Nocardia

d)

aeromonas

24.

Yersinia enterocolitica appears what in CIN agar

a)

mercury droplets

b)

dewdrop

c)

bull's eye

d)

String of pearls

25.

Examples of fastidious organisms

a)

Bacillus

b)

Clostridium

c)

Haemophilus

d)

Brucella

e)

Neisseria

26.

gram positive cocci

a)

micrococcus

b)

staphylococcus

c)

streptococcus

27.

true about C. diphtheria

a)

not pathogenic

b)

black colonies in cystine-tellurite blood agar

c)

green colonies in cystine tellurite blood agar

28.

appearance of bordetella pertussis in regan lowe agar

a)

dewdrop

b)

mercury droplets

c)

pitting agar

d)

corrosive agar

29.

True abour mueller-hinton agar, except;

a)

agar depth has an average of 4mm

b)

ph is 6.5-7.5

c)

contains calcium and magnesium

d)

excessive concentration of thymidine can result to false resistance to sulfonamides and trimethoprim

30.

In MHA, increased concentration of calcium and magnesium can result in decrease activity of aminoglycosides against p. aeroginosa, thus, increase calcium and magnesium content result in false resistance against p. aeroginosa

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Maybe true

d)

Maybe false

31.

biochemical test that uses lactose, sucrose, and glucose as source of carbohydrates?

a)

KIA

b)

TSI

c)

LIA

32.

Tests and/or agar that uses phenol red as pH indicator; select all that applies

a)

TSI

b)

SDA

c)

MSA

d)

CIN

33.

A/A H2S

a)

Klebsiella

b)

Shigella

c)

Salmonella

d)

Citrobacter

34.

K/A with gas and H2S positive

a)

Klebsiella

b)

Shigella

c)

pseudomonas

d)

Citrobacter

35.

K/A, H2S Negative

a)

Klebsiella

b)

Shigella

c)

pseudomonas

d)

Citrobacter

36.

Lactose, sucrose, glucose fermented with gas and acid

a)

K/A H2S positive

b)

A/A H2S positive

c)

K/K H2S positive

d)

K/A H2S negative

37.

select all the true statements about TSI

a)

A/A H2S positive, show yellow slant, yellow butt with blackening

b)

K/A H2S positive means lactose and sucrose are not fermented but glucose is fermented with blackening

c)

K/A H2S positive show Red slant and yellow butt with blackening

d)

K/K H2S - organisms include pseudomonas and alcaligenes which are not a member of enterobacteriaciae

38.

pH indicator of LIA is phenol red

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Maybe true

d)

not sure

39.

Slant of LIA tests for lysine deamination; Butt of LIA tests for lysine decarboxylation

a)

true

b)

false

40.

Select all true about LIA

a)

K/K means lysine deamination negative and lysine decarboxylation positive

b)

K/A means lysine deamination negative and lysine decarboxylation negative

c)

R/A means lysine deamination positive and lysine decarboxylation negative

d)

For slant, positive shows red color. For butt, purple means positive

41.

In LIA test, the positive color of the slant

(a)  

42.

In LIA test, the negative color of the slant

(a)  

43.

In LIA test, the negative color of the butt

(a)  

44.

In LIA, K/K H2S positive (Purple/Purple w/ blackening)

a)

shigella

b)

salmonella

c)

proteus, providencia, morganella

45.

In LIA, K/A H2S negative (Purple/Yellow w/o blackening)

a)

shigella

b)

salmonella

c)

proteus, providencia, morganella

46.

In LIA, R/A H2S negative (Purple/Yellow w/o blackening)

a)

shigella

b)

salmonella

c)

proteus, providencia, morganella

47.

Testing commonly required except

a)

Staphylococci

b)

acinetobacter

c)

anaerobic bacteria

d)

pseudomonas aeruginosa

48.

testing rarely required except

a)

beta hemolytic streptococci

b)

neisseria meningitis

c)

neisseria gonorrhoeae

d)

Listeria monocytogenes

49.

indicator of improper storage for MHA

a)

Carbapenem

b)

Beta lactam

c)

penicillin

d)

methicillin

50.

strip with varying concentration of antibiotic where MIC is determined b the growth ellipse

(a)  

51.

among are nucleid acid synthesis antibiotics except

a)

sulfonamides

b)

tetracycline

c)

rifampicin

d)

quinolones

52.

antibiotic that causes body fluids to color orange/red

(a)  

53.

protein synthesis antibiotic that is obtained from streptomyces

(a)  

54.

all are protein synthesis antibiotic except

a)

tetracycline

b)

fusidic acid

c)

erythromycin

d)

colistin

55.

T OR F: Sulfanilamide is an antibuotic but not antimicrobial because it is not produced by microorganism

a)

false

b)

tre

56.

process that kills all forms of microbial life including bacterial spores

(a)  

57.

this is a physical ethod of sterilizing that coagulates proteins and is the fastest and simplest physical method

a)

dry heat

b)

moist heat

c)

filtration

d)

ionizing radiation

58.

most common method of treating infectious waste

a)

autoclave

b)

oven

c)

filtration

d)

incineration

59.

method of choice for antibioic solutions, toxic chemicals, radioisotops

a)

autoclave

b)

radio ionization

c)

filtration

d)

incineration

60.

most common chemical sterilant

a)

glutaraldehyde

b)

peracetic acid

c)

ethylene oxide

d)

formaldehyde

61.

also known as cold sterilization

a)

ethylene oxide

b)

formaldehyde

c)

glutaraldehyde

d)

peracetic acid

62.

process that destroys pathogenic organisms but not all microorganisms or spores

(a)  

63.

natural disinfectant

a)

vinegar

b)

alcohol

c)

bleach

d)

acetic acid

64.

destroys vegetative forms on inanimate objects/microbicidal

a)

disinfectant

b)

antiseptic

65.

microbiostatic

a)

disinfectant

b)

antiseptic

66.

heavy metal that prevents opthalmia neonatorium

(a)  

67.

select the wrong one

a)

autoclave : bacillus stearothermophilus

b)

ionizing radiation : bacillus pumilus

c)

dry heat oven : bacillus subtilis var globigii

d)

ethylene oxide : bacillus subtilis var globigii

68.

30% air is exhausted

a)

class 1

b)

class 2A

c)

class 2B

d)

class 3

69.

70% air is exhausted

a)

class 1

b)

class IIB1

c)

class 11B2

d)

class 3

70.

SUPERFICIAL ABSCESS

a)

Anaerobic trasporter

b)

blood culture

c)

aerobic swab moistened with stuarts or amies medium

d)

sterile, screw cap

71.

DEEP ABSCESS

a)

Anaerobic trasporter

b)

blood culture

c)

aerobic swab moistened with stuarts or amies medium

d)

sterile, screw cap

72.

Swab moistened with stuarts or amies medium

a)

deep abscess

b)

nasopharynx

c)

pharynx

d)

sputum

73.

common cause of respiratory infection among immunosuppressed patients

a)

neisseria meningitis

b)

haemophilus

c)

Pneumocystis jirovecii

d)

mycobacterium

74.

causative agent of meningitis for birth to 1 month

a)

S. pneumoniae

b)

strep or gram negative rods

c)

H influenze

d)

N. meningitides

75.

causative agent of meningitis for 1 month to 5 years old

a)

S. pneumoniae

b)

strep or gram negative rods

c)

H influenze

d)

N. meningitides

76.

causative agent of meningitis for 5 years old to 29 years old

a)

S. pneumoniae

b)

strep or gram negative rods

c)

H influenze

d)

N. meningitides

77.

elevated WBC counts, marked decrease glucose level, limulus lysate test positive

a)

bacterial meningitus

b)

tubercular meningitis

c)

viral meningitis

d)

fungal meningitis

78.

elevated WBC counts, decrease glucose level, pellicle formation

a)

bacterial meningitus

b)

tubercular meningitis

c)

viral meningitis

d)

fungal meningitis

79.

elevated WBC counts, normal lactate and glucose level

a)

bacterial meningitus

b)

tubercular meningitis

c)

viral meningitis

d)

fungal meningitis

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