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CCNA2 Module 2-7

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A switch forwards frames based on:

a)

Source IP address

b)

Destination MAC address

c)

Source MAC address

d)

VLAN number

2.

The term 'ingress' refers to:

a)

A frame leaving an interface

b)

A frame entering an interface

c)

A broadcast

d)

An encapsulated frame

3.

What table stores learned MAC addresses and associated ports?

a)

ARP table

b)

Routing table

c)

CAM table

d)

DNS cache

4.

If a switch receives a frame with a destination MAC not in its table, it:

a)

Drops it

b)

Floods it out all ports except ingress

c)

Sends it to the router

d)

Broadcasts it only to VLAN 1

5.

Collision domains are eliminated when:

a)

Using hubs

b)

Using full-duplex links

c)

Using half-duplex links

d)

Using repeaters

6.

A broadcast domain is broken by which device?

a)

Switch

b)

Repeater

c)

Router

d)

Bridge

7.

Increasing the number of Layer 2 switches in a LAN:

a)

Reduces broadcast traffic

b)

Expands the broadcast domain

c)

Reduces collision domains

d)

Blocks broadcasts by default

8.

The default duplex and speed settings use:

a)

Manual configuration

b)

Auto-negotiation

c)

Full-duplex only

d)

Half-duplex only

9.

The function of a MAC address table is to:

a)

Map IP addresses to MAC

b)

Map VLANs to ports

c)

Map source MACs to ports

d)

Track broadcast frames

10.

Switches flood frames when:

a)

A MAC is unknown

b)

The port is full

c)

The VLAN is inactive

d)

Auto-MDIX is disabled

11.

What happens when two devices are set to half-duplex?

a)

The link fails

b)

Collisions occur

c)

Broadcasts increase

d)

Frames drop silently

12.

VLANs are used to:

a)

Extend broadcast domains

b)

Segment networks logically

c)

Replace IP subnets

d)

Eliminate routers

13.

Which VLAN type is used for VoIP phones?

a)

Data VLAN

b)

Management VLAN

c)

Voice VLAN

d)

Native VLAN

14.

A trunk link allows:

a)

Only one VLAN per link

b)

Multiple VLANs across switches

c)

Layer 3 routing

d)

Voice VLANs only

15.

The trunk encapsulation type commonly used is:

a)

ISL

b)

PPP

c)

802.1Q

d)

HDLC

16.

The Native VLAN is the one that:

a)

Always uses VLAN 99

b)

Remains untagged on trunk links

c)

Is deleted after reboot

d)

Has no IP addressing

17.

VLAN configuration data is stored in:

a)

startup-config

b)

running-config

c)

vlan.dat

d)

nvram.txt

18.

Command to create VLAN 20 named 'Students':

a)

vlan 20 name Students

b)

name vlan 20 Students

c)

vlan 20 -- name Students

d)

set vlan 20 Students

19.

DTP's purpose is to:

a)

Negotiate trunk links automatically

b)

Exchange VLAN information

c)

Assign IP addresses

d)

Prevent loops

20.

Command to verify VLANs:

a)

show vlan brief

b)

show vlans

c)

show vlan.dat

d)

show vlan id

21.

Which of the following is required for inter-VLAN routing?

a)

Router

b)

Switch

c)

DHCP assignment across VLANs

d)

Frame tagging removal

22.

To reset a trunk port to access mode:

a)

switchport nonegotiate

b)

switchport mode access

c)

no trunk

d)

switchport reset

23.

The router-on-a-stick method uses:

a)

Physical interfaces per VLAN

b)

Subinterfaces on one physical link

c)

Multiple switches

d)

Access ports only

24.

Command to create subinterface for VLAN 20:

a)

interface g0/0.20

b)

interface vlan 20

c)

vlan-sub 20

d)

int trunk 20

25.

The encapsulation command for 802.1Q tagging:

a)

encapsulation 802.1d

b)

encapsulation dot1Q

c)

switchport trunk allowed vlan

d)

encapsulation trunk vlan

26.

Command to assign an IP to a subinterface:

a)

ip address

b)

ip route

c)

ip helper-address

d)

vlan ip address

27.

The default gateway for hosts in VLAN 30 should be:

a)

Router subinterface IP for VLAN 30

b)

VLAN 1 IP

c)

Trunk interface IP

d)

Management VLAN IP

28.

Why use a Layer 3 switch for inter-VLAN routing?

a)

For lower latency and higher throughput

b)

Because routers cannot handle VLANs

c)

To eliminate DHCP need

d)

To expand Layer 2 domains

29.

The command ip routing on a Layer 3 switch:

a)

Enables VLAN creation

b)

Enables routing between VLANs

c)

Creates a default route

d)

Configures NAT

30.

To verify router subinterfaces, use:

a)

the 'show interfaces' command

b)

the 'ping' command

c)

the 'traceroute' command

d)

the 'configure terminal' command

31.

The native VLAN on a router subinterface should:

a)

Be tagged

b)

Be untagged

c)

Not exist

d)

Use VLAN 1 only

32.

Which command is used to display a summary of the IP interfaces on a device?

a)

show vlan brief

b)

show ip interface brief

c)

show vlans

d)

show subinterface

33.

Inter-VLAN routing requires:

a)

DHCP

b)

Trunk link between switch and router

c)

Access link

d)

Static MAC entries

34.

Incorrect encapsulation VLAN number will cause:

a)

No communication between VLANs

b)

Broadcast storm

c)

DHCP errors

d)

Duplicate MACs

35.

STP prevents:

a)

IP conflicts

b)

Routing loops

c)

Layer 2 loops

d)

VLAN misconfigurations

36.

The BID includes:

a)

Bridge priority + MAC address

b)

IP address + MAC

c)

VLAN ID + Interface ID

d)

Serial number

37.

The device with the lowest Bridge ID (BID) becomes the:

a)

Root Bridge

b)

Designated Bridge

c)

Backup Switch

d)

Root Port

38.

Which port connects closest to the root bridge?

a)

Root Port

b)

Designated Port

c)

Alternate Port

d)

Trunk Port

39.

What happens when a link fails in STP?

a)

The network halts

b)

STP recalculates and unblocks alternate ports

c)

All VLANs shut down

d)

Broadcast storm occurs

40.

Which port type is always in a forwarding state on the root bridge?

a)

Root Port

b)

Alternate Port

c)

Designated Port

41.

Which protocol provides faster convergence than STP?

a)

RIPv2

b)

RSTP

c)

PVST

d)

OSPF

42.

PortFast is used for:

a)

Uplink redundancy

b)

Access ports for end devices

c)

Trunk ports

d)

Root bridge

43.

BPDU Guard protects the switch by:

a)

Shutting a port that receives unexpected BPDUs

b)

Blocking all broadcasts

c)

Recalculating topology

d)

Disabling trunking

44.

RSTP port states are:

a)

Blocking, Listening, Forwarding

b)

Discarding, Learning, Forwarding

c)

Idle, Forwarding, Listening

d)

Down, Listening, Active

45.

Default path cost in STP is based on:

a)

MAC address

b)

Link speed

c)

VLAN number

d)

Hop count

46.

The main purpose of DHCP is to:

a)

Resolve MAC addresses

b)

Assign IP configuration automatically

c)

Assign DNS names

d)

Route packets

47.

The DHCP DORA process stands for:

a)

Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledge

b)

Detect, Obtain, Renew, Apply

c)

Deliver, Offer, Request, Accept

d)

Discover, Obtain, Release, Apply

48.

Command to exclude addresses from a DHCP pool:

a)

ip dhcp reserve

b)

ip dhcp excluded-address

c)

ip dhcp block

d)

ip exclude pool

49.

Command to create a DHCP pool named 'LAN1':

a)

dhcp pool LAN1

b)

ip dhcp pool LAN1

c)

pool LAN1 dhcp

d)

ip dhcp LAN1

50.

To define the subnet for a DHCP pool:

a)

network

b)

ip address

c)

interface vlan

d)

pool subnet

51.

The command to set a default gateway in a DHCP pool:

a)

default-gateway

b)

router

c)

ip default-router

d)

default-router

52.

Command to verify active DHCP bindings:

a)

show dhcp clients

b)

show ip dhcp binding

c)

show ip dhcp pool

d)

show dhcp lease

53.

A router acting as DHCP relay uses which command?

a)

ip dhcp-relay

b)

ip helper-address

c)

ip relay dhcp

d)

ip dhcp forward

54.

The DHCP OFFER message is sent by:

a)

Client

b)

Server

c)

Relay

d)

Gateway

55.

A DHCP pool without an excluded address range might cause:

a)

Duplicate IP assignments

b)

DNS failure

c)

Subnet mask mismatch

56.

DHCP messages operate at which transport layer protocol?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

c)

ICMP

d)

IP