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HEMA-6

Total questions: 131

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Normal appearance or slight variation in erythrocytes
a)
0
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
2.
Only a small population of erythrocytes displays a particular abnormality; the terms slightly increased or few would be comparable
a)
0
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
3.
More than occasional numbers of abnormal erythrocytes can be seen in a microscopic field; an equivalent descriptive term is moderately increased
a)
0
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
4.
Severe increase in abnormal erythrocytes in each microscopic field; an equivalent descriptive term is many
a)
0
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
5.
The most severe state of erythrocytic abnormality, with the abnormality prevalent throughout each microscopic field; comparable terms are marked or marked increase
a)
0
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
6.
If you are grading changes in erythrocytic size or shape using a scale of 0 to 4+ and many erythrocytes deviate from normal per microscopic field, the typical score would be:
a)
1+
b)
2+
c)
3+
d)
4+
7.
What is the grading for schistocytes, acanthocytes, dacryocytes, helmet cells, polychromatophilia, spherocytes that is 1 to 5 per field?
a)
1+
b)
2+
c)
3+
8.
What is the grading for schistocytes, acanthocytes, dacryocytes, helmet cells, polychromatophilia, spherocytes that is 6 to 10 per field?
a)
1+
b)
2+
c)
3+
9.
What is the grading for schistocytes, acanthocytes, dacryocytes, helmet cells, polychromatophilia, spherocytes that is greater than 10 per field?
a)
1+
b)
2+
c)
3+
10.
What is the grading for poikilocytosis, ovalocytes, elliptocytes, burr cells, bizarre-shaped RBC, target cells, and stomatocytes that is 3 to 10 per field?
a)
1+
b)
2+
c)
3+
11.
What is the grading for poikilocytosis, ovalocytes, elliptocytes, burr cells, bizarre-shaped RBC, target cells, and stomatocytes that is 11 to 20 per field?
a)
1+
b)
2+
c)
3+
12.
What is the grading for poikilocytosis, ovalocytes, elliptocytes, burr cells, bizarre-shaped RBC, target cells, and stomatocytes that is greater than 20 per field?
a)
1+
b)
2+
c)
3+
13.
stacks of coins appearance of red cells
a)
Rouleaux formation
b)
Sickle cells
c)
Basophilic stippling
d)
Pappenheimer bodies
e)
Howell-Jolly bodies
14.
May be observed in: Multiple Myeloma
a)
Rouleaux formation
b)
Sickle cells
c)
Basophilic stippling
d)
Pappenheimer bodies
e)
Howell-Jolly bodies
15.
graded as positive only when present
a)
Rouleaux formation
b)
Sickle cells
c)
Basophilic stippling
d)
Pappenheimer bodies
e)
Howell-Jolly bodies
16.
Which of the following poikilocytes and RBC inclusions are graded only as "positive" when seen in peripheral blood smear?
a)
Burr cells
b)
Sickle cells
c)
Polychromatophilia
d)
All of the above
17.
What is the hemoglobin reference range for children ages 8 to 13 years old?
a)
12 to 15 g/dL
b)
14 to 18 g/dL
18.
What is the hemoglobin reference range for an adult female?
a)
12 to 15 g/dL
b)
14 to 18 g/dL
19.
What is the hemoglobin reference range for an adult male?
a)
12 to 15 g/dL
b)
14 to 18 g/dL
20.
also known as the respiratory pigment
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Hematocrit
c)
Red blood cells
d)
White blood cells
e)
Platelets
21.
pertains to the instrument used to determine packed cell volume [PCV]
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Hematocrit
c)
Red blood cells
d)
White blood cells
e)
Platelets
22.
the volume of the red blood cells that have settled is called the packed cell volume otherwise known as the
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Hematocrit
c)
Red blood cells
d)
White blood cells
e)
Platelets
23.
concentration of Hb within RBCs:
a)
32 g/dL
b)
33 g/dL
c)
34 g/dL
d)
35 g/dL
24.
identified the respiratory protein Hemoglobin (in 1862)
a)
Felix Tan
b)
Felix Fowler
c)
Felix Seyler
d)
Felix Helix
25.
About 65% of cytoplasmic hemoglobin is produced before the __ is extruded, and the remaining 35% is synthesized in the early ___
a)
nucleus; reticulocyte
b)
reticulocyte; nucleus
c)
nucleus; cytoplasm
d)
cytoplasm; nucleus
26.
1 gram of hemoglobin can carry ____________ of O2.
a)
1.31 mL
b)
1.32 mL
c)
1.33 mL
d)
1.34 mL
27.
1 gram of hemoglobin can carry a constant __________ IRON.
a)
3.46 mg
b)
3.47 mg
c)
3.48 mg
d)
3.49 mg
28.
Complete adult hemoglobin molecule is composed of ___ different constituents:
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
29.
molecules of the nitrogenous protoporphyrin IX.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
30.
How many iron atoms in the ferrous form (Fe2+) combine with protoporphyrin IX to create four heme molecules?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
31.
How many 2,3-BPG molecules were a sometime resident in the center of the hemoglobin unit?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
32.
Which of the following have 141 amino acids?
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta
c)
Theta
d)
Zeta
33.
Gamma A 146 (position 136: __)
a)
alanine
b)
glycine
c)
uracil
d)
proline
34.
Gamma G 146 (position 136: __)
a)
alanine
b)
glycine
c)
uracil
d)
proline
35.
A protein component (globin) composed of____ of two different polypeptide chains.
a)
two sets
b)
three sets
c)
four sets
d)
five sets
36.
Tetramer
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary
c)
Tertiary
d)
Quaternary
37.
describes the complete hemoglobin molecule (complete hemoglobin molecule is spherical, has four heme groups attached to four polypeptide chains, and may carry up to four molecules of oxygen)
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary
c)
Tertiary
d)
Quaternary
38.
describes the arrangement of the helices into a pretzel-like configuration or formation
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary
c)
Tertiary
d)
Quaternary
39.
describes the chain arrangements in helices and nonhelices.
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary
c)
Tertiary
d)
Quaternary
40.
describes the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide chains
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary
c)
Tertiary
d)
Quaternary
41.
What is the best and most widely used method in hemoglobin determination?
a)
Cyanmethemoglobin (HiCN) Method
b)
Cellulose Acetate
c)
Citrate Agar
42.
In the cyanmethemoglobin method for hemoglobin determination, which of the following best explains the principle of the reaction involved?
a)
A. Potassium ferricyanide oxidizes hemoglobin (Fe²⁺) to methemoglobin (Fe³⁺), which then reacts with potassium cyanide to form a stable cyanmethemoglobin complex measured spectrophotometrically.
b)
B. Potassium cyanide reduces methemoglobin (Fe³⁺) to oxyhemoglobin (Fe²⁺), which is measured colorimetrically.
c)
C. Hemoglobin reacts directly with cyanide ions to form a red-colored compound measurable at 540 nm.
d)
D. Ferricyanide converts hemoglobin to carboxyhemoglobin, which is quantified photometrically
43.
Which of the following converts hemoglobin into methemoglobin?
a)
Potassium ferricyanide
b)
Potassium cyanide
44.
Which of the following component of Drabkin's reagent provides cyanide ions?
a)
Potassium ferricyanide
b)
Potassium cyanide
45.
HiCn is measured at:
a)
540 nm
b)
550 nm
c)
610 nm
d)
640 nm
46.
All types of Hb may be measured at 540 nm (spectrophotometer method), EXCEPT:
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
d)
Cyanmethemoglobin
47.
Full conversion of hemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin
a)
5 minutes at room temperature
b)
10 minutes at room temperature
c)
15 minutes at room temperature
d)
25 minutes at room temperature
48.
What will be the correction method if the source of falsely elevated error is High WBC count >20 x10^9/L?
a)
Centrifuge reagent-sample solution, then the supernatant is measured
b)
Add 0.01 mL of the patient’s plasma to 5 mL of the cyanmethemoglobin reagent and using this solution as the reagent blank
c)
Make a 1:2 dilution with distilled water (1 part diluted sample plus 1 part water) and multiplying the results from the standard curve by 2.
d)
Add 0.1 gram of potassium carbonate to the cyanmethemoglobin reagent. Commercially available cyanmethemoglobin reagent has been modified to contain KH2PO4 salt, so this problem is NOT likely to occur.
49.
What will be the correction method if the source of falsely elevated error is High Plt count >700 x10^9/L?
a)
Centrifuge reagent-sample solution, then the supernatant is measured
b)
Add 0.01 mL of the patient’s plasma to 5 mL of the cyanmethemoglobin reagent and using this solution as the reagent blank
c)
Make a 1:2 dilution with distilled water (1 part diluted sample plus 1 part water) and multiplying the results from the standard curve by 2.
d)
Add 0.1 gram of potassium carbonate to the cyanmethemoglobin reagent. Commercially available cyanmethemoglobin reagent has been modified to contain KH2PO4 salt, so this problem is NOT likely to occur.
50.
What will be the correction method if the source of falsely elevated error is lipemia?
a)
Centrifuge reagent-sample solution, then the supernatant is measured
b)
Add 0.01 mL of the patient’s plasma to 5 mL of the cyanmethemoglobin reagent and using this solution as the reagent blank
c)
Make a 1:2 dilution with distilled water (1 part diluted sample plus 1 part water) and multiplying the results from the standard curve by 2.
d)
Add 0.1 gram of potassium carbonate to the cyanmethemoglobin reagent. Commercially available cyanmethemoglobin reagent has been modified to contain KH2PO4 salt, so this problem is NOT likely to occur.
51.
What will be the correction method if the source of falsely elevated error is cells containing Hb S and Hb C?
a)
Centrifuge reagent-sample solution, then the supernatant is measured
b)
Add 0.01 mL of the patient’s plasma to 5 mL of the cyanmethemoglobin reagent and using this solution as the reagent blank
c)
Make a 1:2 dilution with distilled water (1 part diluted sample plus 1 part water) and multiplying the results from the standard curve by 2.
d)
Add 0.1 gram of potassium carbonate to the cyanmethemoglobin reagent. Commercially available cyanmethemoglobin reagent has been modified to contain KH2PO4 salt, so this problem is NOT likely to occur.
52.
What will be the correction method if the source of falsely elevated error is abnormal globulins (such as those found in patients with plasma cell myeloma or Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia) may precipitate in the reagent?
a)
Centrifuge reagent-sample solution, then the supernatant is measured
b)
Add 0.01 mL of the patient’s plasma to 5 mL of the cyanmethemoglobin reagent and using this solution as the reagent blank
c)
Make a 1:2 dilution with distilled water (1 part diluted sample plus 1 part water) and multiplying the results from the standard curve by 2.
d)
Add 0.1 gram of potassium carbonate to the cyanmethemoglobin reagent. Commercially available cyanmethemoglobin reagent has been modified to contain KH2PO4 salt, so this problem is NOT likely to occur.
53.
pH 8.4-8.6
a)
Cellulose acetate
b)
Citrate agar
54.
Considered as the primary screening procedure to detect variant (abnormal) hemoglobins
a)
Cellulose acetate
b)
Citrate agar
55.
In an alkaline buffer (8.4 to 8.6) hemoglobin is a negatively charged molecule
a)
Cellulose acetate
b)
Citrate agar
56.
During electrophoresis, the Hb molecules travel toward the anode (+) because of their net negative charge
a)
Cellulose acetate
b)
Citrate agar
57.
The difference in the net charge of the Hb molecule defines its mobility and reveals itself by the speed with which it migrates to the positive pole.
a)
Cellulose acetate
b)
Citrate agar
58.
Confirmatory test for Hb S and Hb C
a)
Cellulose acetate
b)
Citrate agar
59.
Complementary procedure
a)
Cellulose acetate
b)
Citrate agar
60.
Used to confirm variant hemoglobins and further differentiates hemoglobin S from D and G, and hemoglobin C from hemoglobins E, OArab, CHarlem
a)
Cellulose acetate
b)
Citrate agar
61.
Which of the following is the fastest normal hemoglobin?
a)
Hemoglobin A1
b)
Bart Hb, Hb H, Hb I
c)
Hb C, Hb A2, Hb E, Hb C harlem, Hb O arab
d)
Hb S, Hb D and Hb G
62.
Which of the following is the fastest abnormal hemoglobin?
a)
Hemoglobin A1
b)
Bart Hb, Hb H, Hb I
c)
Hb C, Hb A2, Hb E, Hb C harlem, Hb O arab
d)
Hb S, Hb D and Hb G
63.
Which of the following migrate to the same area at cellulose acetete electrophoresis
a)
Hemoglobin A1
b)
Bart Hb, Hb H, Hb I
c)
Hb C, Hb A2, Hb E, Hb C harlem, Hb O arab
d)
Hb S, Hb D and Hb G
64.
a.k.a. Ferroprotoporphyrin IX
a)
Heme synthesis
b)
Globin synthesis
c)
Heme biosynthesis
d)
Ferrochelatase
65.
-occurs in all metabolically active cells containing mitochondria
a)
Heme synthesis
b)
Globin synthesis
c)
Heme biosynthesis
d)
Ferrochelatase
66.
aka Heme synthetase
a)
Heme synthesis
b)
Globin synthesis
c)
Heme biosynthesis
d)
Ferrochelatase
67.
enzyme needed to insert the ferrous form of iron to the protoporphyrin IX ring
a)
Heme synthesis
b)
Globin synthesis
c)
Heme biosynthesis
d)
Ferrochelatase
68.
heme biosynthesis is most prominent in the?
a)
Spleen
b)
Thymus
c)
Bone marrow
d)
Liver
69.
MAJOR heme-forming tissue, generating 85% of the daily heme requirement.
a)
Erythroid marrow
b)
Leukocyte marrow
c)
Plt marrow
70.
Site of heme synthesis:
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Mitochondrion
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Nucleus
e)
Nucleoli
71.
dictates the production of Alpha and Zeta globin chain?
a)
Chromosome 16
b)
Chromosome 11
c)
Theta
72.
dictates the production of Beta, Epsilon, Delta, and Gamma Globin chain
a)
Chromosome 16
b)
Chromosome 11
c)
Theta
73.
chromosome number is unknown
a)
Zeta
b)
Beta
c)
Theta
d)
Epsilon
e)
Alpha
74.
Also called the "fetal hemoglobin"
a)
Portland
b)
Gower I
c)
Gower II
d)
F
75.
Which of the following is the predominant form of hemoglobin in the fetus and newborns?
a)
Portland
b)
Gower I
c)
Gower II
d)
F
76.
Molecular structure: 2 zeta, 2 gamma
a)
Portland
b)
Gower I
c)
Gower II
d)
F
77.
Molecular structure: [ 2 zeta, 2 epsilon]
a)
Portland
b)
Gower I
c)
Gower II
d)
F
78.
Molecular structure: 2 alpha, 2 epsilon
a)
Portland
b)
Gower I
c)
Gower II
d)
F
79.
Molecular structure: 2 alpha, 2 gamma
a)
Portland
b)
Gower I
c)
Gower II
d)
F
80.
80% is found in newborns
a)
Portland
b)
Gower I
c)
Gower II
d)
F
81.
<1% is found in adults (older than 1 year)
a)
Portland
b)
Gower I
c)
Gower II
d)
F
82.
Molecular structure: 2 alpha, 2 beta
a)
Hemoglobin F
b)
Hemoglobin A1
c)
Hemoglobin A2
83.
20% is found in newborns
a)
Hemoglobin F
b)
Hemoglobin A1
c)
Hemoglobin A2
84.
<0.5% is found in newborns
a)
Hemoglobin F
b)
Hemoglobin A1
c)
Hemoglobin A2
85.
2.5% is found in newborns
a)
Hemoglobin F
b)
Hemoglobin A1
c)
Hemoglobin A2
86.
What is the predominant form of adult hemoglobin?
a)
Hemoglobin F
b)
Hemoglobin A1
c)
Hemoglobin A2
87.
97% is found in adults older than 1 year
a)
Hemoglobin F
b)
Hemoglobin A1
c)
Hemoglobin A2
88.
Molecular structure: 2 alpha, 2 deta
a)
Hemoglobin F
b)
Hemoglobin A1
c)
Hemoglobin A2
89.
Which of the following are called embryonic hemoglobins?
a)
Portland
b)
Gower I
c)
Gower II
d)
F
90.
Which functional hemoglobin has a symbol HbO2?
a)
Oxyhemoglobin
b)
Deoxygenated hemoglobin
91.
Hb with Fe2+ + oxygen
a)
Oxyhemoglobin
b)
Deoxygenated hemoglobin
92.
found in arterial blood
a)
Oxyhemoglobin
b)
Deoxygenated hemoglobin
93.
conformation of Hb in the oxygenated state is: R state (relaxed state)
a)
Oxyhemoglobin
b)
Deoxygenated hemoglobin
94.
conformation of Hb in the oxygenated state is: T state (tensed state)
a)
Oxyhemoglobin
b)
Deoxygenated hemoglobin
95.
Hb with Fe2+ ,NOT bound to oxygen
a)
Oxyhemoglobin
b)
Deoxygenated hemoglobin
96.
found in venous blood
a)
Oxyhemoglobin
b)
Deoxygenated hemoglobin
97.
Which of the following dyshemoglobins has a symbol HbCO?
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
98.
Hb with Fe2+ , bound to CO (carbon monoxide)
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
99.
color of blood and skin in HbCO poisoning: cherry red
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
100.
rich source of carbon monoxide: cigarette smoke, automatic exhaust
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
101.
other names: hemiglobin
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
102.
Which of the following dyshemoglobins has a symbol Hi?
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
103.
Color of blood is chocolate brown
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
104.
Which of the following dyshemoglobins has a symbol SHb
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
105.
•mixture of oxidized, partially denatured forms of Hb
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
106.
some of the causes of this dyshemoglobin include prolonged constipation, enterogenous cyanosis, bacteremia caused by C. perfringens
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
107.
color of blood is mauve lavender
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
108.
sulfhemoglobin forms when hydrogen sulfide is added to Hb, thus the name sulfhemoglobin.
a)
In-vitro
b)
In-vivo
109.
sulfhemoglobin forms in the occasional patient as a result of Hb oxidation by certain drugs and chemicals.
a)
In-vitro
b)
In-vivo
110.
What is the reference range of hematocrit in adult males?
a)
35 to 49%
b)
40 to 54%
c)
53 to 65%
111.
What is the reference range of hematocrit in adult females?
a)
35 to 49%
b)
40 to 54%
c)
53 to 65%
112.
What is the reference range of hematocrit in newborns?
a)
35 to 49%
b)
40 to 54%
c)
53 to 65%
113.
Microhematocrit tube is approximately
a)
71 mm long
b)
72 mm long
c)
73 mm long
d)
74 mm long
e)
75 mm long
114.
The inner bore of Microhematocrit tube is
a)
1.1 mm
b)
1.2 mm
c)
1.3 mm
d)
1.4 mm
115.
A microhematocrit tube can hold ___ of blood
a)
0.05 mL
b)
0.005 mL
c)
0.5 mL
d)
0.0005 mL
116.
has an anticoagulant
a)
Capillary tubes with red
b)
Capillary tubes with blue band
117.
used for collection of non-anticoagulated blood
a)
Capillary tubes with red
b)
Capillary tubes with blue band
118.
used for the collection of anticoagulated blood
a)
Capillary tubes with red
b)
Capillary tubes with blue band
119.
a blood collected using an EDTA tube must be in
a)
Capillary tubes with red
b)
Capillary tubes with blue band
120.
plain capillary tube
a)
Capillary tubes with red
b)
Capillary tubes with blue band
121.
What is the anticoagulant in capillary tubes with red band?
a)
EDTA
b)
Potassium oxalate
c)
Sodium citrate
d)
Heparin
122.
When using non-anticoagulated whole blood for determining hematocrit, tubes with a colored ring at one end are filled from the ___ end
a)
same
b)
opposite
c)
either
d)
neither
123.
In hematocrit determination, does air bubble affect test results?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
Either
d)
Neither
124.
In hematocrit determination, does air bubble shows that you have poor skills?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
Either
d)
Neither
125.
How long would you spin a microhematocrit tube?
a)
5 minutes
b)
10 minutes
c)
15 minutes
d)
30 minutes
126.
How many revolutions per minute (RPM) would you spin a microhematocrit tube?
a)
5,000 RPM
b)
10,000 RPM
c)
100,000 RPM
d)
50,000 RPM
127.
In Rodak’s Hematology: “Centrifuge the tubes at ____ g to _____ g for the time that has been determined to obtain maximum packing of red blood cells.”
a)
5,000 to 10,000 g
b)
10,000 to 15,000 g
c)
15,000 to 20,000 g
d)
20,000 to 25,000 g
128.
After centrifugation of a microhematocrit tube, which should not be included?
a)
Fatty layer
b)
Plasma
c)
Buffy coat
d)
Packed RBCs
129.
Hematocrit results should agree within _% [ + ____ L/L ] for the 2 patient samples run.
a)
+/- 0.01 or 1%
b)
+/- 0.02 or 2%
c)
+/- 0.03 or 3%
d)
+/- 0.04 or 4%
130.
Trapped plasma causes microhematocrit to be 1% to 3% (0.01 to 0.03 L/L) higher than the value derived from automated instruments that calculate or directly measure the hematocrit and are unaffected by the trapped plasma.
a)
Lower
b)
Higher
131.
Automated hematocrit – a calculated value from; unaffected by trapped plasma
a)
RBC
b)
MCH
c)
MCHC
d)
MCV