WorksheetsBB-3
Total questions: 134
Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
▪ Most important of all blood groups
a)
ABO Blood Group
b)
Rh Blood Group
c)
Other Blood Group
2.
Only blood group system in which individuals have antibodies in their serum to antigens that are absent from their RBCs without prior exposure to RBCs through transfusion or pregnancy
a)
ABO Blood Group
b)
Rh Blood Group
c)
Other Blood Group
3.
It is the only blood group system that affect Clinical transplantation
a)
ABO Blood Group
b)
Rh Blood Group
c)
Other Blood Group
4.
Expression of A and B antigens on RBCs is fully developed by
a)
1 to 2 years of age
b)
2 to 3 years of age
c)
2 to 4 years of age
d)
3 to 5 years of age
e)
5 to 10 years of age
5.
Antibody titers at birth are generally too low for detection until infants are 3-6 months old and peaks between
a)
1 to 2 years of age
b)
2 to 3 years of age
c)
2 to 4 years of age
d)
3 to 5 years of age
e)
5 to 10 years of age
6.
Antibody titers at birth are generally too low for detection until infants are
a)
2 to 3 months
b)
3 to 6 months
c)
4 to 8 months
d)
5 to 12 months
7.
Nature of antibody of Group A blood group
a)
IgM
b)
IgG
c)
IgE
d)
None
8.
Nature of antibody of Group B blood group
a)
IgM
b)
IgG
c)
IgE
d)
None
9.
Nature of antibody of Group AB blood group
a)
IgM
b)
IgG
c)
IgE
d)
None
10.
Nature of antibody of Group O blood group
a)
IgM
b)
IgG
c)
IgE
d)
None
11.
Which of the ff. is predominantly IgG?
a)
Anti-A
b)
Anti-B
c)
Anti-A,B
12.
Also known as direct typing, red cell typing
a)
Forward typing
b)
Reverse typing
13.
Using known sources of commercial anti-sera to detect antigen on an individual’s RBC
a)
Forward typing
b)
Reverse typing
14.
Also known as indirect/reverse typing, serum/plasma typing
a)
Forward typing
b)
Reverse typing
15.
It detects ABO antibodies in the patient’s serum by using known reagent RBCs
a)
Forward typing
b)
Reverse typing
16.
Reagent: 3 to 5% red cell suspension
a)
Forward typing
b)
Reverse typing
17.
Not required in
✓ In infant less than 4 months old
✓ For confirmation testing of labeled previously typed donor cells
a)
Forward typing
b)
Reverse typing
18.
Which of the ff. contains antibody?
a)
Plasma or serum
b)
RBC
19.
Which of the ff. contains antigen?
a)
Plasma or serum
b)
RBC
20.
Dolichos biflorus
a)
Anti-A
b)
Anti-B
c)
Anti-H
21.
Griffonia simplicifolia
a)
Anti-A
b)
Anti-B
c)
Anti-H
22.
Ulex europeus
a)
Anti-A
b)
Anti-B
c)
Anti-H
23.
Arachis hypogaea
a)
Anti-T
b)
Anti-T, Anti-Tn
c)
Anti-N
d)
Anti-Tn/CAD
e)
Anti-Tn
24.
Glycine max
a)
Anti-T
b)
Anti-T, Anti-Tn
c)
Anti-N
d)
Anti-Tn/CAD
e)
Anti-Tn
25.
Vicia graminea
a)
Anti-T
b)
Anti-T, Anti-Tn
c)
Anti-N
d)
Anti-Tn/CAD
e)
Anti-Tn
26.
Salvia horminum
a)
Anti-T
b)
Anti-T, Anti-Tn
c)
Anti-N
d)
Anti-Tn/CAD
e)
Anti-Tn
27.
Salvia sclarea
a)
Anti-T
b)
Anti-T, Anti-Tn
c)
Anti-N
d)
Anti-Tn/CAD
e)
Anti-Tn
28.
Universal RBC donor
a)
Group A
b)
Group B
c)
Group AB
d)
Group O
29.
Universal RBC recipient
a)
Group A
b)
Group B
c)
Group AB
d)
Group O
30.
Universal Plasma donor
a)
Group A
b)
Group B
c)
Group AB
d)
Group O
31.
Universal Plasma recipient
a)
Group A
b)
Group B
c)
Group AB
d)
Group O
32.
It is based on controlled centrifugation red cells through dextran-acrylamide gel and appropriate reagents predispensed in specially designed microtube
a)
Hybridoma technology
b)
Gel technology
c)
Coomb's test
d)
Blood typing
33.
What is the incubation time in gel technology?
a)
5 minutes
b)
10 minutes
c)
15 minutes
d)
25 minutes
34.
What is the centrifugation time in gel technology?
a)
5 minutes
b)
10 minutes
c)
15 minutes
d)
25 minutes
35.
All cells pass through the gel media and form a cell button at the bottom of the microtube
a)
Negative
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
36.
Agglutinated cells disperse throughout the gel media and may concentrate toward the bottom of the microtube
a)
1+
b)
2+
c)
3+
d)
4+
e)
Mixed-field
37.
Agglutinated cells disperse into the gel media and are observed throughout the length of the microtube
a)
1+
b)
2+
c)
3+
d)
4+
e)
Mixed-field
38.
Agglutinated cells begin to disperse into gel media and are concentrated near the top of the microtube
a)
1+
b)
2+
c)
3+
d)
4+
e)
Mixed-field
39.
Agglutinated cells form a cell layer at the top of the gel media
a)
1+
b)
2+
c)
3+
d)
4+
e)
Mixed-field
40.
Agglutinated cells form a cell layer at the top of the gel media. Unagglutinated cells pass to the bottom of the microtube
a)
1+
b)
2+
c)
3+
d)
4+
e)
Mixed-field
41.
Before interpreting a reaction as ____, the clinical history of the patient must be considered since recent transfusion and bone marrow transplant may lead to this result.
a)
1+
b)
2+
c)
3+
d)
4+
e)
Mixed-field
42.
FUT1 gene, red cell
a)
H gene
b)
Se gene
c)
ABO gene
43.
FUT2 gene, secretion
a)
H gene
b)
Se gene
c)
ABO gene
44.
transfer enzyme
a)
H gene
b)
Se gene
c)
ABO gene
45.
The H gene encodes for which specific glycosyltransferase enzyme?
a)
α-3-N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase
b)
α-2-L-fucosyltransferase
c)
α-3-D-galactosyltransferas
d)
β-1,4-galactosyltransferase
46.
The A gene encodes for which specific glycosyltransferase enzyme?
a)
α-3-N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase
b)
α-2-L-fucosyltransferase
c)
α-3-D-galactosyltransferas
d)
β-1,4-galactosyltransferase
47.
The B gene encodes for which specific glycosyltransferase enzyme?
a)
α-3-N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase
b)
α-2-L-fucosyltransferase
c)
α-3-D-galactosyltransferas
d)
β-1,4-galactosyltransferase
48.
The immunodominant sugar added by the H gene product is:
a)
D-galactose
b)
N-acetyl-D-galactosamine
c)
L-fucose
d)
N-acetylglucosamine
49.
The immunodominant sugar added by the A gene product is:
a)
D-galactose
b)
N-acetyl-D-galactosamine
c)
L-fucose
d)
N-acetylglucosamine
50.
The immunodominant sugar added by the B gene product is:
a)
D-galactose
b)
N-acetyl-D-galactosamine
c)
L-fucose
d)
N-acetylglucosamine
51.
Which antigen is produced directly by the action of α-2-L-fucosyltransferase?
a)
A antigen
b)
B antigen
c)
H antigen
d)
O antigen
52.
The antigen formed by the addition of N-acetyl-D-galactosamine to the H substance is:
a)
A antigen
b)
B antigen
c)
H antigen
d)
O antigen
53.
Terminal galactose on the precursor substance is attached to the N-acetylglucosamine in a beta 1→3 linkage
a)
Type 1 secretions
b)
Type 2 red cells
54.
Terminal galactose on the precursor substance is attached to the N-acetylglucosamine in a beta 1→4 linkage
a)
Type 1 secretions
b)
Type 2 red cells
55.
What is the principle used in the detection of secretor status?
a)
Direct agglutination
b)
Indirect or passive agglutination
c)
Agglutination inhibition
d)
Complement fixation
56.
In secretor testing, a soluble antigen in the patient’s saliva will:
a)
Agglutinate directly with indicator cells
b)
Bind to the reagent antibody and prevent agglutination
c)
Destroy the antibody through enzymatic degradation
d)
Precipitate in the presence of anti-H lectin
57.
Can be glycolipids, glycoproteins, or glycosphingolipid
a)
RBC antigens
b)
Secreted substances
58.
glycoproteins
a)
RBC antigens
b)
Secreted substances
59.
Secreted substances are primarily synthesized on
a)
Type 1 precursor chain
b)
Type 2 precursor chain
60.
RBC antigens are synthesized only on
a)
Type 1 precursor chain
b)
Type 2 precursor chain
61.
refers to a beta 1→4 linkage in which the number one carbon of the galactose is attached to the number four carbon of the N-acetylglucosamine sugar of the precursor substance
a)
Type 1 precursor chain
b)
Type 2 precursor chain
62.
The enzyme produced by the H gene (α-2-Lfucosyltransferase) acts primarily on ______, which are prevalent on the RBC membrane
a)
Type 1 precursor chain
b)
Type 2 precursor chain
63.
refers to a beta 1→3 linkage in which the number one carbon of the galactose is attached to the number three carbon of the N-acetylglucosamine sugar of the precursor substance
a)
Type 1 precursor chain
b)
Type 2 precursor chain
64.
The enzyme produced by the Se gene (α-2-Lfucosyltransferase) preferentially acts on _____ in secretory tissues
a)
Type 1 precursor chain
b)
Type 2 precursor chain
65.
Which of the following correctly describes ABH antigens on RBCs?
a)
Composed mainly of glycoproteins
b)
Synthesized on type 1 precursor chains
c)
Synthesized on type 2 precursor chains
d)
Produced only in secretory tissues
66.
Type 2 precursor chains on RBC membranes are characterized by which linkage?
a)
β1→2 linkage
b)
β1→3 linkage
c)
β1→4 linkage
d)
β1→6 linkage
67.
In a type 2 precursor chain, the carbon-1 of galactose attaches to which carbon of N-acetylglucosamine?
a)
Carbon 2
b)
Carbon 3
c)
Carbon 4
d)
Carbon 6
68.
In a type 1 chain, the carbon-1 of galactose is attached to which carbon of N-acetylglucosamine?
a)
Carbon 2
b)
Carbon 3
c)
Carbon 4
d)
Carbon 6
69.
The enzyme produced by the Se gene acts preferentially on:
a)
Type 1 chains
b)
Type 2 chains
c)
Type 3 chains
d)
Type 4 chains
70.
The enzyme encoded by the H gene acts primarily on:
a)
Type 1 precursor chains in secretory tissues
b)
Type 2 precursor chains on RBC membranes
c)
Type 3 precursor chains on platelets
d)
Type 4 precursor chains in plasma
71.
The enzyme produced by the H gene is classified as:
a)
β-1,3-galactosyltransferase
b)
α-2-L-fucosyltransferase
c)
α-1,6-glucosyltransferase
d)
β-2-N-acetyltransferase
72.
The Se gene encodes an enzyme classified as:
a)
β-1,3-galactosyltransferase
b)
α-2-L-fucosyltransferase
c)
α-1,6-glucosyltransferase
d)
β-2-N-acetyltransferase
73.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a)
A. RBC antigens are synthesized on type 1 precursor chains
b)
B. Secreted ABH substances are synthesized on type 2 precursor chains
c)
C. Both RBC and secreted antigens are synthesized on the same precursor chain
d)
D. RBC and secreted antigens differ in the precursor chain used
74.
The difference between type 1 and type 2 precursor chains lies in:
a)
A. The position of the glycosidic linkage between galactose and N-acetylglucosamine
b)
B. The type of sugar used in the precursor
c)
C. The amount of fucose incorporated
d)
D. The presence or absence of galactose
75.
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding A, B, and H soluble substances in secretors?
a)
They are glycolipids
b)
They are primarily synthesized on type 2 precursor chains
c)
They are glycoproteins synthesized on type 1 precursor chains
d)
They are synthesized only in erythroid tissues
76.
The type 1 precursor chain has what kind of linkage?
a)
β1→2 linkage
b)
. β1→3 linkage
c)
β1→4 linkage
d)
α1→2 linkage
77.
What do ABO subgroups represent?
a)
Phenotypes that lack A and B antigens completely
b)
Phenotypes that show enhanced antigen expression
c)
Phenotypes that show weaker, variable serologic reactivity with routine anti-A and anti-B reagents
d)
Phenotypes that react only with monoclonal reagents
78.
Subgroups of the ABO system exhibit:
a)
Increased antigen density on RBCs
b)
Weaker or variable agglutination with anti-A, anti-B, and anti-A,B reagents
c)
Stronger reactions with anti-H lectin
d)
No reactivity in forward grouping
79.
The most common A subgroups are:
a)
A₁ and A₃
b)
A₁ and A₂
c)
A₂ and A₃
d)
A₃ and A₄
80.
Which subgroup of A shows strong agglutination with both anti-A and anti-A₁ lectin reagents?
a)
A₁
b)
A₂
c)
A₃
d)
Aₓ
81.
Which subgroup of A is positive with anti-A but negative with anti-A₁ lectin?
a)
A₁
b)
A₂
c)
A₃
d)
Aₓ
82.
A patient’s RBCs agglutinate with anti-A and anti-A,B reagents, but not with anti-A₁ lectin. What is the most probable subgroup?
a)
A₁
b)
A₂
c)
A₃
d)
Aₓ
83.
Which of the following reagents differentiates A₁ from A₂ red blood cells?
a)
Anti-A
b)
Anti-B
c)
Anti-H
d)
Anti-A₁ lectin
84.
Both A₁ and A₂ red cells will react with which reagent?
a)
Anti-A
b)
Anti-B
c)
Anti-H
d)
Anti-A₁ lectin
85.
In serologic testing, A₁ red cells react with anti-A₁ lectin, while A₂ red cells:
a)
Also react with anti-A₁ lectin
b)
Do not react with anti-A₁ lectin
c)
React weakly with anti-A₁ lectin only at 37°C
d)
Agglutinate in reverse grouping only
86.
Anti-A₁ lectin reagent is derived from which source?
a)
Dolichos biflorus
b)
Ulex europaeus
c)
Vicia graminea
d)
Human polyclonal serum
87.
Branched A antigens
a)
A₁ phenotype
b)
A₂ phenotype
88.
Positive with anti-A1 lectin
a)
A₁ phenotype
b)
A₂ phenotype
89.
Negative with anti-A1 lectin
a)
A₁ phenotype
b)
A₂ phenotype
90.
500,000 A antigens or adult red cells
a)
A₁ phenotype
b)
A₂ phenotype
91.
Linear A antigens
a)
A₁ phenotype
b)
A₂ phenotype
92.
Positive with Anti-A
a)
A₁ phenotype
b)
A₂ phenotype
93.
2 million A antigen or adult red cells
a)
A₁ phenotype
b)
A₂ phenotype
94.
Mixed field agglutination with anti-A and or anti-AB
a)
A3
b)
Ax
c)
Aend
d)
Am
95.
Weak agglutination with anti-AB only
a)
A3
b)
Ax
c)
Aend
d)
Am
96.
<10% red cell shows very weak mf agglutination
a)
A3
b)
Ax
c)
Aend
d)
Am
97.
No agglutination with anti-A and anti-AB, secretors demonstrate quantities of A substance in saliva
a)
A3
b)
Ax
c)
Aend
d)
Am
98.
No agglutination with Anti-A and anti-AB, secretors contain small amount of A substance in saliva
a)
Ay
b)
Ael
99.
No agglutination with anti-A and Anti-AB, secretors contain only H substance and no substance in saliva
a)
Ay
b)
Ael
100.
Mixed field agglutination with anti-B and or anti-AB
a)
B3
b)
Bx
c)
Bm
d)
Bel
101.
Agglutination with Anti-AB (wk /0 with anti-B)
a)
B3
b)
Bx
c)
Bm
d)
Bel
102.
No agglutination with anti-B and anti-AB, secretors demonstrate quantities of B substances in saliva
a)
B3
b)
Bx
c)
Bm
d)
Bel
103.
No agglutination with anti-B and anti-AB, secretors contain only H substance and no B substance in saliva
a)
B3
b)
Bx
c)
Bm
d)
Bel
104.
It is reported in persons of type O or B in association with severe infections caused by Proteus mirabilis
a)
Acquired A antigen
b)
Acquired B antigen
105.
It is associated with conditions such as carcinoma of the colon or rectum, intestinal obstruction, massive infection of the lower gastrointestinal tract, and septicemia caused by Proteus vulgaris
a)
Acquired A antigen
b)
Acquired B antigen
106.
It occurs only in Group A individual
a)
Acquired A antigen
b)
Acquired B antigen
107.
Weak A subgroups are characterized by:
a)
Increased number of A antigen sites per RBC
b)
Decreased number of A antigen sites per RBC
c)
Absence of H antigen expression
d)
Presence of excess A substance in plasma
108.
Weak A subgroups show:
a)
Strong agglutination with anti-A
b)
Varying degrees of agglutination with human anti-A,B
c)
No reaction with anti-H lectin
d)
Uniform, strong reactions in all serologic tests
109.
Which of the following is TRUE about weak A subgroups?
a)
They have fewer A antigen sites but stronger A reactivity
b)
They have more A antigen sites per RBC
c)
They show increased reactivity with anti-H lectin
d)
They always produce anti-B antibodies
110.
What causes the strong reactivity with anti-H in weak A subgroups?
a)
Excessive expression of H antigen on RBCs
b)
Decreased number of A antigen sites, leaving more H antigen unconverted
c)
Presence of anti-H in serum
d)
Absence of Se gene
111.
Which of the following reagents shows variable agglutination in weak A subgroups?
a)
Anti-B
b)
Anti-A₁ lectin
c)
Human anti-A,B
d)
Anti-H
112.
The presence or absence of anti-A₁ in the serum can help in identifying:
a)
Weak A subgroups
b)
Weak B subgroups
c)
O blood group
d)
Rh null individuals
113.
Which of the following laboratory tests may be used to confirm weak A subgroups?
a)
Osmotic fragility test
b)
Secretor studies and adsorption-elution tests
c)
Rh phenotyping only
d)
Coombs test
114.
Tn-activated erythrocytes
a)
Acquired A antigen
b)
Acquired B antigen
115.
Which reagent treatment confirms that the pseudoantigen in Acquired B is not a true B antigen?
a)
Chloroquine treatment
b)
Papain enzyme
c)
Acetic anhydride
d)
Ficin enzyme
116.
A patient shows the following results:
Forward typing: Anti-A (+), Anti-B (weak +)
Reverse typing: A cells (–), B cells (+)
What is the most probable interpretation?
a)
AB Blood type
b)
Weak A subgroup
c)
Acquired B
d)
Technical error
117.
The Acquired B antigen can be distinguished from a true B antigen by:
a)
Strong agglutination with all Anti-B reagents
b)
Disappearance of B reactivity after treatment with acetic anhydride
c)
Positive reaction with Anti-A₁ lectin
d)
Positive reverse typing with A cells
118.
What monoclonal Anti-B clone can be used to identify cells with Acquired B antigen?
a)
Clone 3E7
b)
Clone ES4
c)
Clone L10
d)
Clone MS24
119.
In Acquired B antigen, what is the characteristic forward typing result?
a)
A. Anti-A (+), Anti-B (–)
b)
B. Anti-A (+), Anti-B (weak +)
c)
C. Anti-A (–), Anti-B (+)
d)
D. Anti-A (weak +), Anti-B (–)
120.
What is the reverse typing result in Acquired B?
a)
A. A cells (+), B cells (+)
b)
B. A cells (–), B cells (+)
c)
C. A cells (+), B cells (–)
d)
D. A cells (–), B cells (–)
121.
The Acquired B antigen phenomenon most often occurs in individuals with which ABO group?
a)
Group A
b)
Group B
c)
Group AB
d)
Group O
e)
Bombay
122.
Genes: hh/sese
a)
Classic bombay
b)
Para-bombay
c)
H-partially deficient
123.
Genes: hh/Se
a)
Classic bombay
b)
Para-bombay
c)
H-partially deficient
124.
Genes: weak variant hh/se
a)
Classic bombay
b)
Para-bombay
c)
H-partially deficient
125.
Glycosyl transferase: none
a)
Classic bombay
b)
Para-bombay
c)
H-partially deficient
126.
RBC antigen present: none
a)
Classic bombay
b)
Para-bombay
c)
H-partially deficient
127.
RBC antigen present: weak to none
a)
Classic bombay
b)
Para-bombay
c)
H-partially deficient
128.
RBC antigen present: weak only
a)
Classic bombay
b)
Para-bombay
c)
H-partially deficient
129.
Presence of ABN substance: none
a)
Classic bombay
b)
Para-bombay
c)
H-partially deficient
130.
Presence of ABN substance: yes
a)
Classic bombay
b)
Para-bombay
c)
H-partially deficient
131.
Antibodies present: Anti-A, AntiB, Anti-H
a)
Classic bombay
b)
Para-bombay
c)
H-partially deficient
132.
Antibodies present: Weak AntiH, Anti-A/B
a)
Classic bombay
b)
Para-bombay
c)
H-partially deficient
133.
Antibodies present: Anti-H, AntiA/B
a)
Classic bombay
b)
Para-bombay
c)
H-partially deficient
134.
Glycosyl transferase: A and/or B transferase
a)
Classic bombay
b)
Para-bombay
c)
H-partially deficient
100 %
