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Clinical Scenario Worksheet: Infectious Diseases and Neurology

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

ED patient with high fever and a centrifugal rash of deep, firm, umbilicated pustules in the same stage on face and distal limbs. Which immediate steps are appropriate today?

a)

Airborne and contact isolation with restricted room access

b)

Immediate notification of infection prevention and public health

c)

Routine office viral culture in the hospital lab

d)

Reference-lab PCR arranged through public health channels

e)

Broad-spectrum antibiotics as primary therapy

2.

A triage nurse must rapidly distinguish smallpox from varicella in a patient with generalized rash and fever. Which single finding most strongly supports smallpox over varicella?

a)

Lesions in the same stage of development on each body area

b)

Trunk-predominant rash with mixed-stage lesions

c)

Thin-walled 'dew-drop' vesicles on erythematous base

d)

Absence of prodromal high fever

3.

A hospitalized patient with suspected smallpox requires specimen collection under strict protocols. Which request is least consistent with safety and policy?

a)

Coordinate with public health for secure chain-of-custody

b)

Collect in appropriate leak-proof containers with BSL guidance

c)

Send to local routine lab for same-day viral culture

d)

Limit staff exposure and document PPE used

4.

Traveler from an endemic region develops asymmetric flaccid paralysis with reduced reflexes and intact sensation. Which diagnostics best support confirmation now?

a)

Stool RT-PCR and/or viral isolation for poliovirus

b)

Oropharyngeal swab RT-PCR early in illness

c)

CSF lymphocytic pleocytosis as a specific confirmatory test

d)

MRI alone as definitive confirmation

e)

Paired serology when available, interpreted with timing

5.

Suspected bulbar polio presents with dysphagia, weak cough, and pooling secretions. Which single action is the highest priority this hour?

a)

Airway protection and readiness for ventilatory support

b)

Immediate high-dose corticosteroids

c)

Aggressive diuresis to reduce airway edema

d)

Delay interventions pending viral culture

6.

A rehab plan is written for non-bulbar paralytic polio with lower-limb weakness.

a)

Focuses on strengthening lower limbs

b)

Emphasizes speech therapy

c)

Targets upper-limb rehabilitation only

d)

Centers on bulbar muscle recovery

7.

A rehab plan is written for non-bulbar paralytic polio with lower-limb weakness.

Which element is least aligned with evidence-based care?

a)

Early PT with gentle range-of-motion and contracture prevention

b)

Energy conservation with pacing and assistive devices

c)

Prolonged strict bedrest for several weeks

d)

Swallow screening if bulbar signs emerge

8.

A hospitalized patient with encephalitis is tested for rabies; multiple staff had routine contact using gloves and hand hygiene only. Which follow-up is most appropriate?

a)

Standard precautions are adequate; evaluate only mucous membrane exposures

b)

Place entire unit on airborne isolation for 10 days

c)

Monitor all staff for hydrophobia daily

d)

Begin universal PEP for all employees

9.

A family refuses HRIG due to cost but will accept vaccine after a severe bat exposure during sleep. Which counseling point is most accurate today?

a)

HRIG is unnecessary if vaccine is given the same day

b)

HRIG is indicated for previously unvaccinated persons to neutralize virus at the wound

c)

HRIG is only for dog bites, not bats

d)

Vaccine alone provides immediate passive protection

10.

Infant with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) awaits HSCT; parents ask about vaccines and precautions. Which single order is least appropriate today?

a)

Live attenuated MMR at 12 months

b)

PJP prophylaxis per protocol

c)

Protective isolation with infection avoidance

d)

Irradiated/CMV-appropriate blood products

11.

Adolescent with chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) has recurrent abscesses by catalase-positive organisms. Which single test best reflects the cellular defect?

a)

Dihydrorhodamine (DHR) flow cytometry for oxidative burst

b)

Serum IgE level

c)

Complement CH50

d)

ANA titer

12.

A nurse sustains a hollow-bore needle-stick from an unknown source patient in the ED. Which single step is most appropriate first?

a)

Initiate HIV PEP promptly per protocol

b)

Wait for source testing before acting

c)

Reassure; risk is negligible with hollow-bore

d)

Test again in 3 months without starting PEP

13.

An outreach session addresses misinformation about casual HIV transmission. Which statement is least accurate?

a)

HIV is not transmitted by shared utensils

b)

Sustained undetectable VL eliminates sexual transmission risk

c)

Mosquitoes commonly transmit HIV in communities

d)

ART is lifelong therapy

14.

First clinic visit after reactive screening test for HIV with plan to start therapy soon.

Which baseline assessments are essential? (Select all that apply.)

a)

. 4th-gen Ag/Ab test with confirmatory assay or NAAT

b)

CD4 count and HIV-1 RNA viral load

c)

Genotypic resistance testing

d)

Screening for HBV/HCV, TB, and STIs; vaccinations review

e)

D-dimer and ferritin as primary staging tools

15.

After starting an integrase-based regimen, the patient feels well at week 4. Which single monitoring step is most appropriate now?

a)

Check HIV-1 RNA viral load at 4–8 weeks

b)

First check at 12 months only

c)

Monitor only when symptoms occur

d)

Stop ART if undetectable now

16.

A suppressed patient on ART for two years asks about follow-up frequency. Which plan best reflects stable care?

a)

Viral load every 3–6 months with adherence review

b)

Monthly CD4 forever regardless of nadir

c)

No labs if the patient feels well

d)

Annual viral load only

17.

The team plans diagnostic confirmation of PCP in a hypoxemic patient. Which single test approach is preferred?

a)

Induced sputum or BAL with DFA or PCR for Pneumocystis

b)

Blood culture

c)

Single β-D-glucan as definitive

d)

Nasal rapid antigen test

18.

A patient starting TMP-SMX for PCP reports sulfa allergy of unknown severity. Which request is least appropriate before changing therapy?

a)

Clarify allergy history and reaction details

b)

Consider desensitization protocol if benefits outweigh risks

c)

Immediately avoid all TMP-SMX without assessment

d)

Assess alternatives if severe reaction documented

19.

Patient with cough >3 weeks, night sweats, weight loss, and upper-lobe cavitary lesion on CXR is admitted. Which immediate steps are indicated?

a)

Airborne isolation with N95 and negative pressure

b)

Sputum AFB smear, culture, and NAAT with drug susceptibility testing

c)

Start RIPE empirically if clinical suspicion is high

d)

Switch to droplet precautions after 24 hours regardless

e)

Public health notification per policy

20.

A patient begins RIPE therapy for drug-susceptible TB and asks about monitoring. Which single monitoring plan is least appropriate?

a)

Baseline and periodic LFTs during therapy

b)

Vision checks with ethambutol

c)

Monthly sputum cultures until conversion

d)

Stop all drugs immediately for any minor transaminase elevation

21.

A clinic wants a quick-reference list of major RIPE adverse effects. Which combination best captures the key concerns?

a)

Rifampin—orange fluids/CYP induction; Isoniazid—hepatitis/neuropathy; Pyrazinamide—hepatotoxicity/hyperuricemia; Ethambutol—optic neuritis

b)

Rifampin—bradycardia; Isoniazid—photosensitivity; Pyrazinamide—ototoxicity; Ethambutol—alopecia

c)

Rifampin—QT prolongation; Isoniazid—hypothyroidism; Pyrazinamide—myelosuppression; Ethambutol—hemolysis

d)

Rifampin—renal failure only; Isoniazid—constipation; Pyrazinamide—constipation; Ethambutol—dry skin

22.

Advanced HIV patient with floaters and blurred vision has fundus consistent with CMV retinitis. Which actions are priorities now?

a)

Urgent ophthalmology consultation

b)

Start anti-CMV therapy such as ganciclovir/valganciclovir

c)

High-dose steroids before antivirals

d)

Counsel on retinal detachment symptoms and urgent return

e)

ART review and CBC monitoring for neutropenia risk

23.

Immunocompromised patient has chronic painful genital ulcers; HSV is suspected. Which single diagnostic test is most appropriate today?

a)

HSV PCR from lesion swab

b)

Bacterial culture of ulcer base

c)

KOH prep for hyphae

d)

Serum heterophile antibody

24.

A patient with orolabial lesions requests antibiotics and steroids without testing. Which clinician response is least appropriate?

a)

Offer HSV PCR to clarify diagnosis

b)

Start empiric acyclovir if classic recurrent HSV

c)

Prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotics and steroids immediately without indication

d)

Provide analgesia and hydration advice

25.

New intake with HIV is HBsAg positive with detectable HBV DNA; ART not yet started. Which initial treatment principles are correct?

a)

Include tenofovir (TDF or TAF) plus emtricitabine or lamivudine for dual HIV/HBV activity

b)

Avoid stopping HBV-active agents abruptly to prevent flare

c)

Use abacavir/lamivudine alone for both viruses

d)

If tenofovir contraindicated, consider entecavir with a fully suppressive HIV regimen

e)

Defer all vaccination counseling for household contacts

26.

A suppressed patient on TDF/FTC-based ART stops all meds for two weeks and returns jaundiced. Which single next step is most appropriate now?

a)

Obtain LFTs urgently and restart HBV-active ART under clinician supervision

b)

Wait a month to see if symptoms resolve

c)

Switch to abacavir/lamivudine only

d)

Continue without HBV-active drugs to avoid toxicity

27.

Clinic revises its co-infection protocol for new starts. Which policy is least consistent with best practice?

a)

Screen for HBsAg, anti-HBc, and anti-HBs before/at ART start

b)

Counsel patients not to stop HBV-active ART without guidance

c)

Recommend HBV vaccination for non-immune partners/household contacts

d)

Avoid tenofovir in all co-infected patients by default

28.

Healthy adult bitten on the hand by an unknown stray dog 10 hours ago with uncertain animal availability.

Which steps are indicated now? (Select all that apply.)

a)

. Copious irrigation and wound cleansing

b)

Human rabies immune globulin (HRIG) infiltrated around wound; remainder IM

c)

Start rabies vaccine series on day 0 (today)

d)

Await animal observation before any prophylaxis

e)

Primary wound closure before irrigation

29.

 Child with recurrent otitis, sinopulmonary infections, and chronic diarrhea has very low IgA with normal T-cell counts.

Which findings and next steps are most consistent with an antibody defect? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Poor response to T-dependent protein vaccines

b)

Predisposition to encapsulated bacteria

c)

Severe opportunistic infections typical of T-cell failure

d)

Consideration of IVIG in severe/refractory patterns

e)

Normal B-cell number with class-switching defects possible

30.

Newly diagnosed HIV patient starts ART and asks about U=U and daily habits.

Which counseling points are accurate? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Sustained undetectable viral load prevents sexual transmission

b)

Adherence is critical to maintain suppression

c)

Stop condoms immediately once the first dose is taken

d)

Continue condoms for STI prevention and until suppression confirmed

e)

Discontinue ART after 6 months if VL undetectable