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Logistics Midterm

Total questions: 174

Worksheet time: 1hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A company that transports or conveys goods.

a)

Consignee

b)

Freight forwarder

c)

Carrier

d)

Supplier

2.

A person or business that arranges documentation and travel facilities for companies dispatching goods to customers.

a)

Courier

b)

Freight forwarder

c)

Supplier

d)

Haulage contractor

3.

A company which supplies parts or services to another company; also called a vendor

a)

Courier

b)

Supplier

c)

Carrier

d)

Consignee

4.

A company which carries goods by road.

a)

Freight forwarder

b)

Haulage contractor / Haulier

c)

Courier

d)

Consignee

5.

A company that specializes in the speedy and secure delivery of small goods and packages.

a)

Supplier

b)

Courier

c)

Haulier

d)

Carrier

6.

A person or firm named in a freight contract to whom goods have been shipped or turned over for care.

a)

Carrier

b)

Consignee

c)

Freight forwarder

d)

Supplier

7.

What does FCL stand for?

a)

Full Cargo Load

b)

Full Container Load

c)

Freight Container Logistics

d)

Fast Cargo Line

8.

What does 3PL mean in logistics?

a)

Third-Party Logistics

b)

Third Payment Line

c)

Three Process Logistics

d)

Third Product Loading

9.

HGV refers to:

a)

Heavy Goods Vehicle

b)

High Grade Value

c)

Heavy Grade Van

d)

High Goods Volume

10.

The abbreviation DC stands for:

a)

Delivery Contract

b)

Distribution Center

c)

Direct Cargo

d)

Delivery Container

11.

LCL is short for:

a)

Light Cargo Load

b)

Less Container Load

c)

Low Cargo Line

d)

Less than Container Load

12.

What does EDI mean?

a)

Electronic Data Interchange

b)

Electronic Delivery Information

c)

Express Distribution Index

d)

Electronic Documentation Interface

13.

VAS stands for:

a)

Vehicle Allocation System

b)

Value-Added Services

c)

Verified Accounting System

d)

Vehicle Access System

14.

SKU means:

a)

Stock Keeping Unit

b)

Shipping Key Unit

c)

Supply Keeping Unit

d)

Storage Key Utility

15.

The organization ISO is:

a)

International Shipping Office

b)

Internal Service Organization

c)

International Organization for Standardization

d)

International Supply Operation

16.

GPS stands for:

a)

Global Positioning System

b)

General Planning Schedule

c)

Global Processing System

d)

Goods Positioning Structure

17.

What does transshipment mean?

a)

Receiving and storing goods in a warehouse

b)

Dividing goods into smaller units

c)

Loading goods from one means of carriage onto another

d)

Picking up goods at a named place

18.

The process of break-bulk involves:

a)

Packing goods in small, separable units

b)

Collecting and handling damaged goods

c)

Tracking items during transport

d)

Transferring goods from one vehicle to another

19.

Cross-docking refers to:

a)

Direct flow of goods from receiving to shipping, bypassing storage

b)

Storing goods for long periods

c)

Selecting items from stock for shipment

d)

Collecting returned or reusable goods

20.

Order picking is:

a)

Tracking shipments during delivery

b)

Selecting and assembling items from stock for shipment

c)

Receiving goods from suppliers

d)

Loading goods onto a ship

21.

What is reverse logistics?

a)

Delivering goods to the wrong location

b)

Collecting and handling used, damaged, or reusable goods

c)

Transferring goods from one transport to another

d)

Monitoring goods in transit

22.

Tracking and tracing means:

a)

Finding the best transport route

b)

Locating items in transit

c)

Loading containers at the port

d)

Dividing bulk shipments

23.

The term warehousing means:

a)

Receiving and storing goods

b)

Selecting goods for shipment

c)

Collecting returns

d)

Direct delivery without storage

24.

Collection refers to:

a)

Picking up goods at a named place

b)

Dividing goods into smaller units

c)

Monitoring delivery status

d)

Loading goods from one truck to another

25.

What does economies of scale mean?

a)

Increasing profit by raising prices

b)

Reducing costs per unit by increasing production

c)

Producing fewer goods to maintain quality

d)

Decreasing costs by outsourcing labor

26.

What is buffer stock?

a)

Goods kept in store to cover unforeseen shortages or fluctuations in demand

b)

Items damaged during transportation

c)

Extra stock ordered by mistake

d)

Goods waiting to be exported

27.

What does factory gate pricing mean?

a)

Price of a product that includes transportation cost

b)

Price of a product that excludes transportation cost

c)

Price of a product including taxes

d)

Price of goods after discount

28.

What is a supply chain?

a)

A series of warehouses where goods are stored

b)

A chain of retail stores

c)

The close co-operation of all parties involved in making, selling, and delivering a product

d)

A list of suppliers a company uses

29.

What does tender mean in logistics?

a)

A document to cancel an order

b)

An offer for goods or services following a request for quotation made by an official body

c)

A contract to deliver goods within 24 hours

d)

A refund request after delivery

30.

What does lead time mean?

a)

The time a worker spends on one task

b)

The time needed to transport goods to the port

c)

The time it takes to produce and supply a product

d)

The period between order confirmation and payment

31.

What is procurement?

a)

The process of selling goods to customers

b)

The storage of goods in a warehouse

c)

The delivery of goods to end users

d)

The purchasing of goods and materials required to run an enterprise

32.

A retailer is a company that:

a)

Manufactures products for export

b)

Provides transport services for goods

c)

Buys from wholesalers or manufacturers and resells to consumers

d)

Supplies raw materials to factories

33.

What does customer order cycle time refer to?

a)

The time customers wait for the delivery of their order

b)

The time needed to transport goods between factories

c)

The time to process an invoice

d)

The period between production and storage

34.

A wholesaler is:

a)

A company that sells directly to consumers

b)

A company that manufactures goods for export

c)

An intermediary that buys in large quantities and resells in smaller quantities

d)

A delivery company

35.

What does JIT (Just in Time) refer to?

a)

Producing goods ahead of time to store in stock

b)

Reducing inventories by delivering materials just before they are needed

c)

Increasing warehouse space for storage

d)

Transporting goods faster to reduce delivery cost

36.

What does outsourcing mean?

a)

Managing all operations internally

b)

Contracting functions out to third-party providers

c)

Buying goods from local suppliers only

d)

Hiring new employees for production

37.

The word comprehensive means:

a)

Limited in scope

b)

Including a wide range of services

c)

Focusing on one small area

d)

Too complex to understand

38.

What is consolidation in logistics?

a)

Dividing large shipments into smaller ones

b)

Grouping small shipments into one container

c)

Storing goods in multiple warehouses

d)

Transporting goods separately

39.

Requirements refer to:

a)

General suggestions

b)

Optional conditions

c)

Details of what is expected and needed

d)

Products that customers request

40.

Demand means:

a)

The need for particular goods or services

b)

The number of suppliers in a market

c)

The total amount of stock available

d)

The act of promoting products

41.

Competition refers to:

a)

Cooperation among companies

b)

Companies trying to sell the same or similar products to customers

c)

The process of reducing prices together

d)

Companies that operate in different markets

42.

What does logistics involve?

a)

Managing the procurement and movement of goods and the storage of inventory

b)

Designing marketing strategies for new products

c)

Recruiting and training new employees

d)

Developing software for business operations

43.

Vendor-managed inventory (VMI)

a)

A system in which the inventory is monitored, planned and managed by the manufacturer on behalf of the customer (often a retailer).

b)

A system where products are delivered directly to the retail store from the supplier.

c)

A system that focuses on grouping products into families based on selling characteristics.

d)

A system which is similar to CRP and is used for products that need to be supplied frequently in small batch sizes.

44.

Continuous replenishment (CRP)

a)

A system where the supplier delivers products directly to stores.

b)

A system which is similar to QR and involves fast response to real-time demand.

c)

A system which is similar to CRP and is used for products that need to be supplied frequently and in small batch sizes.

d)

A system which ensures products are frequently and continuously restocked based on demand.

45.

Direct store delivery (DSD)

a)

A system in which products are transferred electronically to the manufacturer.

b)

A system where goods are delivered directly from supplier to the retail store, bypassing the warehouse.

c)

A system that monitors and manages inventory on behalf of a customer.

d)

A method that groups products into families with similar selling characteristics.

46.

Quick response (QR)

a)

A system in which real-time demand movement is identified by electronic cash registers and products are coordinated from supplier to store.

b)

A system that allows manufacturers to manage stock for their customers.

c)

A planning technique used for long-term product development.

d)

A strategy for direct delivery from suppliers.

47.

Category management (CM)

a)

Products that have similar characteristics regarding their selling profile are categorized into ‘families’.

b)

A system that enables suppliers to monitor inventory.

c)

A delivery system that ensures small, frequent shipments.

d)

A stock control system using barcodes and scanners.

48.

Swap-body

a)

A flat-bottomed boat used to transport heavy goods along rivers and canals.

b)

A freight container that can be easily transferred between different transport modes without unloading.

c)

A trailer that can run on both roads and railway tracks.

d)

A vehicle used to lift and move containers.

49.

Container ship

a)

A large vessel designed to carry standardized shipping containers across seas.

b)

A small boat used for inland waterways.

c)

A truck designed to transport goods on roads.

d)

A machine for loading containers onto vehicles.

50.

Grappler lift

a)

A device used to pick up and move containers or trailers by gripping them.

b)

A type of ship that carries containers.

c)

A special trailer that operates on both road and rail.

d)

A vehicle for transporting large goods.

51.

Road-railer trailer

a)

A trailer that can operate on both roads and railway tracks.

b)

A freight container for use on ships.

c)

A large vehicle for road transport of goods.

d)

A flat-bottomed boat for river transport.

52.

River barge

a)

A container used in multimodal transport.

b)

A flat-bottomed boat designed to transport goods along rivers and canals.

c)

A large truck for transporting goods by road.

d)

A crane for loading ships.

53.

LGV (Large Goods Vehicle)

a)

A type of ship used for carrying containers.

b)

A large road vehicle used for transporting heavy or bulky goods.

c)

A trailer that can move on rails and roads.

d)

A lifting device for containers.

54.

What does multimodal transport mean?

a)

Combines road and rail transport: whole motor lorries, trailers or swap-bodies are carried by rail.

b)

Carriage of goods by at least two different modes of transport, e.g. shipping by motor lorry and aircraft.

c)

Goods are transported in the same loading unit or vehicle using different modes of transport, without handling the freight itself when changing modes.

d)

The driver does not stay with his road vehicle during transport by rail or ferry.

55.

What does piggyback transport mean?

a)

Combines road and rail transport: whole motor lorries, trailers or swap-bodies are carried by rail.

b)

Carriage of goods by at least two different modes of transport.

c)

A single shipper uses a whole train for direct transport.

d)

Goods are transported in one container using different transport modes.

56.

What does intermodal transport mean?

a)

Carriage of goods by at least two different modes of transport, such as ship and truck.

b)

A single shipper uses a full train directly to the destination.

c)

The driver does not stay with his road vehicle during transport.

d)

Train is formed from wagons with different destinations.

57.

What does unaccompanied transport mean?

a)

The driver stays with the vehicle during ferry or rail transport.

b)

The driver does not stay with his road vehicle during transport by rail or ferry.

c)

The train consists of mixed wagons with different destinations.

d)

Combines road and sea transport in one unit.

58.

What is a block train?

a)

Train formed from different wagons going to different places.

b)

A train that combines road and rail vehicles.

c)

A single shipper uses a whole train that runs directly from loading point to destination, without assembly or disassembly.

d)

Train for transporting vehicles only.

59.

What is a single-wagon train?

a)

Train made up of wagons from different origins and with different destinations.

b)

A train used only by one shipper.

c)

Train for transporting full containers.

d)

Train used in piggyback transport.

60.

What is a gantry crane?

a)

A small forklift used inside warehouses to move pallets.

b)

A large crane with a bridge-like structure used at ports or rail terminals to lift containers.

c)

A truck designed to transport containers between depots.

d)

A type of crane mounted on rubber tyres for moving within a yard.

61.

What is an ISO container?

a)

A custom-sized container used only for local transport.

b)

A container built to meet international size and quality standards set by ISO.

c)

A tank used for carrying liquids such as oil or chemicals.

d)

A container that can only be used on ships.

62.

What is a reach stacker?

a)

A small crane used for stacking pallets inside a warehouse.

b)

A machine with a telescopic boom used to lift and stack containers several layers high.

c)

A ship used for transporting containers across short distances.

d)

A truck used to tow trailers between terminals.

63.

What is a transtainer?

a)

special type of ship designed to carry containers.

b)

A movable gantry crane used in container yards for stacking and moving containers.

c)

A trailer that can operate both on road and rail tracks.

d)

A forklift used for loading cargo into airplanes.

64.

What is an RTG (Rubber Tyred Gantry)?

a)

A gantry crane that moves on fixed rails.

b)

A gantry crane on rubber tyres, allowing it to move freely in container yards.

c)

A large ship equipped with its own cranes.

d)

A heavy-duty reach stacker.

65.

What is an RMG (Rail Mounted Gantry)?

a)

A gantry crane that runs on fixed rails and is often electrically powered.

b)

A small lifting device used in warehouses.

c)

. A crane that can be transported on trucks.

d)

A rail wagon designed for container transport.

66.

___________ can be used for delicate cargo and perishables. It is temperature-controlled and is particularly suitable for cargo that needs regulated or cool temperatures.

a)

General purpose container

b)

Thermal

c)

Reefer

d)

Open-top container

67.

___________ is a lorry, truck or other large vehicle used to transport cargo with a total weight of at least 3.5 tonnes.

a)

HGV

b)

HTV

c)

FCL

d)

LCL

68.

___________ is the most common form of document that contains specific information regarding the goods shipped and the conditions agreed between buyer and seller.

a)

Pro forma invoice

b)

Commercial invoice

c)

Consular invoice

d)

Customs invoice

69.

___________ are mobile cages used as a convenient method of moving and transporting a variety of goods efficiently and safely within a warehouse environment or between various destinations.

a)

Fork hoist

b)

Pallet cage

c)

Roll-cage pallet

d)

Hand-pallet truck

70.

__________ is the process of identifying items on a conveyor system and diverting them to specific destinations.

a)

Collation

b)

Sortation

c)

Break bulking

d)

Order picking

71.
1. ___________ can be used for delicate cargo and perishables. It is temperature-controlled and is particularly suitable for cargo that needs regulated or cool temperatures.
a)
General purpose container
b)
Thermal
c)
Reefer
d)
Open-top container
72.
2. ___________ is a lorry, truck or other large vehicle used to transport cargo with a total weight of at least 3.5 tonnes.
a)
HGV
b)
HTV
c)
FCL
d)
LCL
73.
3. ___________ is the most common form of document that contains specific information regarding the goods shipped and the conditions agreed between buyer and seller.
a)
Pro forma invoice
b)
Commercial invoice
c)
Consular invoice
d)
Customs invoice
74.
4. ___________ are mobile cages used as a convenient method of moving and transporting a variety of goods efficiently and safely within a warehouse environment or between various destinations.
a)
Fork hoist
b)
Pallet cage
c)
Roll-cage pallet
d)
Hand-pallet truck
75.
5. __________ is the process of identifying items on a conveyor system and diverting them to specific destinations.
a)
Collation
b)
Sortation
c)
Break bulking
d)
Order picking
76.
6. The weight of an empty vehicle or container, sometimes called unladen weight, is ___________.
a)
Net weight
b)
Laden
c)
Payload
d)
Tare weight
77.
7. ___________ is a type of container with four up-folding legs under its frame, making it possible to change or swap its body from one carriage to another. It is not stackable and must be lifted by the bottom frame.
a)
Reefer
b)
Open-top container
c)
Swap-body
d)
Flat-rack container
78.
8. ___________ is a highway trailer or semi-trailer that is specially equipped for use in railroad intermodal service.
a)
Reefer
b)
Road-railer trailer
c)
ISO container
d)
Swap-body
79.
9. ___________ is a contract between carrier and shipper which specifies the goods to be shipped and the delivery terms. It is also a receipt of shipment and accompanies the goods until they reach their destination.
a)
Cash on delivery
b)
D/P Documents against payment
c)
Bill of lading
d)
Commercial invoice
80.
10. ___________ has a flat bottom and is used for carrying goods and people on canals and rivers.
a)
River barge
b)
Container ship
c)
Swap-body
d)
Road-railer trailer
81.
11. ___________ is a planning technique that refers to the concept of reducing inventories by coordinating the delivery of materials just before they are needed.
a)
VMI
b)
JIT
c)
CRP
d)
DSD
82.
12. ___________ is the process in which goods are brought together to form vehicle loads and are then loaded onto vehicles for onward dispatch.
a)
Collation
b)
Breaking bulk
c)
Order picking
d)
Marshalling
83.
13. ___________ is the amount that a vehicle or container weighs when it is full of passengers or goods.
a)
Laden weight
b)
Net weight
c)
Gross weight
d)
Payload
84.
14. In the ___________ area, goods are selected in the right quantities ordered by the customer.
a)
Marshalling
b)
Receiving
c)
Order picking
d)
Collation
85.
15. ___________ is a document granted by a government authority that states specified goods can be exported.
a)
Export licence
b)
Bill of exchange
c)
Customs invoice
d)
Air waybill
86.
16. The purchase price of a product that excludes transport costs is defined as ___________.
a)
Factory gate pricing
b)
Fixed cost
c)
Economies of scale
d)
Variable cost
87.
17. ___________ is a large package of press-packed goods (often raw material), which is tightly bound, wrapped, and banded.
a)
Barrel
b)
Sack
c)
Cask
d)
Bale
88.
18. ___________ are industrial-grade containers engineered for the mass handling, transport, and storage of liquids, semi-solids, pastes, or solids.
a)
Barrel
b)
IBC (Intermediate Bulk Container)
c)
Roll-cage pallet
d)
Cask
89.
19. ___________ means real-time demand identified by an electronic cash register, and the product movement is coordinated from supplier to the retail store.
a)
CRP - Continuous Replenishment
b)
DSD - Direct Store Delivery
c)
QR - Quick Response
d)
VMI - Vendor Managed Inventory
90.
20. ___________ means packaging material into smaller quantities using thin, transparent plastic material that tightly covers the item, used for protecting goods during transport or sale.
a)
Polybagging
b)
Kitting
c)
Crating
d)
Shrink-wrapping
91.
21. ___________ is a contract between an airline and a shipper. It is a shipping document stating the terms and conditions of carriage and serves as a receipt for the consignment.
a)
Air waybill
b)
Bill of exchange
c)
Bill of lading
d)
Export licence
92.
22. ___________ is the time it takes to produce and supply a product.
a)
Lead time
b)
Customer order cycle time
c)
Leed time
d)
Order time
93.
23. ___________ transport, also known as combined transport, is the transportation of goods under a single contract but performed with at least two different modes of transport.
a)
Single wagon
b)
Accompanied
c)
Multiple modals
d)
Multimodal
94.
24. ___________ refers to goods kept in store to cover unforeseen shortages or fluctuations in demand.
a)
Buffet storage
b)
Buffer store
c)
Buffet stock
d)
Buffer stock
95.
25. ___________ is a large cylindrical or curved container with a flat bottom and top, made of wood or metal, used for liquids.
a)
Sack
b)
Crate
c)
Bale
d)
Barrel
96.
26. A mode of shipping when the cargo is not enough to fill an entire container is abbreviated as ___________.
a)
LCL
b)
VAS
c)
EDI
d)
FCL
97.
27. ___________ is a standard container frame with a tank fitted inside to ship liquids, such as foodstuffs or chemicals.
a)
Specialized container
b)
Open-top container
c)
Flat-rack container
d)
Tanktainer
98.
28. ___________ is a specific document required by customs in some countries when importing goods. It includes more details than a commercial invoice.
a)
Export license
b)
Open account
c)
Pro forma invoice
d)
Customs invoice
99.
29. ___________ is a container for dry cargo. It comes with a timber floor and has various lashing devices to secure the load.
a)
Refrigerated container
b)
General purpose container
c)
Specialized container
d)
Open-top container
100.
30. ___________ is a certificate prepared by the shipper or consignor stating that hazardous goods are handled according to international shipping regulations.
a)
Dangerous goods declaration
b)
Ex works (EXW)
c)
Certificate of origin
d)
Documents against payment (D/P)
101.
31. ___________ is a jack or pump used to lift and move pallets.
a)
Pallet
b)
Hand pallet-truck
c)
Roll-cage pallet
d)
Forklift
102.
32. ___________ is a system of transporting cargo in separate pieces instead of containers, typically used for individual items that are large and heavy.
a)
Break-bulk
b)
Order picking
c)
Cross-docking
d)
Transshipment
103.
33. ___________ is the weight of a product without its container or packaging.
a)
Laden
b)
Net weight
c)
Payload
d)
Unladen
104.
34. ___________ is the area of logistics that involves managing the flow of finished products and information to business buyers and ultimate consumers.
a)
Reverse logistics
b)
Returns logistics
c)
Inbound logistics
d)
Outbound logistics
105.
35. ___________ is an offer for goods or services that follows a request for a quotation made by an official body, e.g., local government.
a)
Tender
b)
Economies of scale
c)
Procurement
d)
Supply chain
106.
36. ___________ is designed to store pallets in a mechanical and functional way using forklifts, which access goods through aisles parallel to the racks.
a)
Unloading bay
b)
Pallet tank
c)
Roll-cage pallet
d)
APR (Adjustable Pallet Racking)
107.
37. The amount of goods or people that a vehicle, such as a truck or aircraft, can carry is referred to as ___________.
a)
Net weight
b)
Gross weight
c)
Tare weight
d)
Payload
108.
38. ___________ is used for bulky cargo and comes with a PVC tarpaulin cover instead of a roof panel to allow loading from the top. The doors can be removed to make loading easier.
a)
Flat-rack container
b)
Open-top container
c)
Tanktainer
d)
Specialized container
109.
39. ___________ is a type of freight traffic where a train is formed out of individual wagons or sets of wagons with different origins and destinations.
a)
Block wagon
b)
Single wagon
c)
Block train
d)
Multiple wagon
110.
40. ___________ refers to the method in which the buyer is given documents when a payment is made to the bank.
a)
Letter of credit (L/C)
b)
Documentary credit
c)
Consular invoice
d)
Documents against payment (D/P)
111.
41. In the ___________ area, products are packed into cartons or cases or wrapped using stretch-wrapping or shrink-wrapping.
a)
Collation
b)
Sortation
c)
Marshalling
d)
Receiving
112.
42. ___________ is a draft invoice which the seller prepares before the actual shipment takes place.
a)
Pro forma invoice
b)
Commercial invoice
c)
Consular invoice
d)
Customs invoice
113.
43. ___________ freight transport refers to the transportation of goods in the same loading unit or vehicle using different modes of transport. Handling of the freight itself is not necessary when changing modes.
a)
Piggyback
b)
Block train
c)
Intermodal
d)
Single wagon
114.
44. ___________ is a wooden box made of slats. It can be open or closed and is used for packing goods.
a)
Sack
b)
Crate
c)
Bale
d)
Barrel
115.
45. ___________ is a document used in foreign trade which states where the goods were produced. It is often required by customs authorities.
a)
Certificate of origin
b)
Customs invoice
c)
Pro forma invoice
d)
Consular invoice
116.
46. ___________ is a framework that carries a wheel set, attached to a vehicle so that it can move on rails.
a)
Tarpaulin
b)
Spreader beam
c)
Bogie
d)
Lashing device
117.
47. ___________ indicates products that have similar characteristics regarding their selling profile are categorized into 'families'.
a)
VMI - Vendor Managed Inventory
b)
DSD - Direct Store Delivery
c)
CM - Category Management
d)
CRP - Continuous Replenishment
118.
48. ___________ is a small vehicle with two or four wheels that you push or pull to transport large or heavy objects.
a)
Tote bin
b)
Roll-cage pallet
c)
Pallet
d)
Trolley
119.
49. ___________ freight is the transport of wheeled freight without the driver and cab. Essentially, the freight vehicle is left at the quayside at the port by a driver.
a)
Road-railer trailer
b)
Accompanied
c)
Unaccompanied
d)
Piggyback
120.
50. ___________ is the excess inventory in the facility after the primary storage locations are filled. It is typically not available to directly fulfill orders but is used to replenish primary locations when they drop below a certain threshold.
a)
Back-up storage
b)
Supply
c)
Buffer stock
d)
Replenishment
121.
51. ___________ is specially designed for heavy loads such as heavy machinery and pipes.
a)
Specialized container
b)
Flat-rack container
c)
Tanktainer
d)
Flat-track container
122.
52. One of the planning techniques similar to CRP is called ___________. It is often used for products that need to be supplied frequently and in small batch sizes.
a)
VMI - Vendor Managed Inventory
b)
CRP - Continuous Replenishment
c)
QR - Quick Response
d)
DSD - Direct Store Delivery
123.
53. ___________ is a portable plastic box with a lid and handle used for storage and handling of parts or materials.
a)
Intermediate bulk container
b)
Roll-cage pallet
c)
Trolley
d)
Tote bin
124.
54. ___________ is a special kind of invoice sometimes required by the importing country. It needs to be approved by an embassy.
a)
Customs invoice
b)
Pro forma invoice
c)
Consular invoice
d)
Documentary credit
125.
55. A grasping device with hinged tines or jaws that close around an object or load, used especially in lifting or dragging heavy items, is called ___________.
a)
Grappler lift
b)
Gantry crane
c)
Reach stacker
d)
Lashing device
126.
56. ___________ is a mode of shipping when one person's shipment takes up a full container.
a)
VAS
b)
EDI
c)
FCL
d)
LCL
127.
57. ___________ is a document which specifies the contents of any form of packaging, e.g., boxes, containers, cartons, without indicating the value of the goods shipped.
a)
Packing list
b)
Certificate of origin
c)
Customs invoice
d)
Export licence
128.
58. The process of overseeing and controlling the movement of goods in a company from the time they are ordered to the time they are sold is called ___________.
a)
Economies of scale
b)
Factory gate pricing
c)
Inventory management
d)
Procurement
129.
59. ___________ is a place at the side of a building where goods are loaded onto and taken from vehicles to be brought inside the warehouse.
a)
Collation area
b)
Marshalling area
c)
Unloading bay
d)
Sortation area
130.
60. ___________ means reducing costs per unit by increasing production.
a)
Procurement
b)
Economies of scale
c)
Factory gate pricing
d)
Inventory management
131.
1. Logistics involves the __________________________________, movement, and storage of goods.
a)
Delivery
b)
Procurement
c)
Tracking
d)
Reverse
132.
2. Which activity is primarily associated with Freight Forwarding?
a)
Managing the quantity of goods in storage.
b)
Arranging transport and documentation for shipments.
c)
Completing official import/export procedures.
d)
Combining several consignments into one container load.
133.
3. Which activity is primarily associated with Customs Clearance?
a)
Managing the quantity of goods in storage.
b)
Arranging transport and documentation for shipments.
c)
Completing official import/export procedures.
d)
Issuing a document detailing shipment and ownership.
134.
4. Which activity is primarily associated with Stock Control?
a)
Managing the quantity of goods in storage.
b)
Arranging transport and documentation for shipments.
c)
Completing official import/export procedures.
d)
Arranging and paying for insurance.
135.
5. Which group correctly lists three core elements of logistics operations (excluding Movement) as mentioned in the key term glossary?
a)
Freight, Bill of Lading, and Customs Clearance
b)
Procurement, Storage, and The 7 Rights
c)
Freight Forwarding, Delivery, and Consolidation
d)
Supply, Demand, and Minimizing Costs
136.
6. What does the acronym FCL stand for?
a)
Fixed Cargo Location
b)
Full Container Load
c)
Fast Clearance Logistics
d)
Freight Cargo Line
137.
7. Which activity corresponds to Reverse Logistics?
a)
Labor-intensive selection and assembly of items in a warehouse.
b)
Returning goods for reuse or recycling.
c)
Moving goods directly to the customer with little storage.
d)
Determining current and past locations of items.
138.
8. Which activity corresponds to Cross-Docking?
a)
Returning goods for reuse or recycling.
b)
Labor-intensive selection and assembly of items in a warehouse.
c)
Moving goods directly to the customer with little storage.
d)
Tracking inventory using radio frequency.
139.
9. Which activity corresponds to Order Picking?
a)
Returning goods for reuse or recycling.
b)
Labor-intensive selection and assembly of items in a warehouse.
c)
Moving goods directly to the customer with little storage.
d)
Preparing documents and paying duties.
140.
10. Customs Brokers help prepare documents and pay ____________________________________________________ for importers/exporters.
a)
Invoices and Contracts
b)
Freight Charges and Fees
c)
Duties and Taxes
d)
Compensation and Insurance
141.
11. What does the acronym EOQ stand for?
a)
Extra Order Quantity
b)
Expected Output Quality
c)
Economic Order Quantity
d)
External Operations Quota
142.
12. Which item type is defined as Basic inputs used in production?
a)
Work-in-Progress (WIP)
b)
MRO Supplies
c)
Safety Stock
d)
Raw Materials
143.
13. Which item type is defined as Goods that are in production but not yet finished?
a)
Raw Materials
b)
MRO Supplies
c)
Work-in-Progress (WIP)
d)
Safety Stock
144.
14. Which item type is defined as Items used in production but not part of the final product?
a)
Raw Materials
b)
MRO Supplies
c)
Work-in-Progress (WIP)
d)
Finished Goods
145.
15. The primary goal of inventory management is to balance supply and demand while _____________________________________________________________________.
a)
Maximizing Lead Time
b)
Increasing Safety Stock
c)
Minimizing Costs
d)
Running out of Inventory
146.
16. What is the defining feature of Intermodal Transport?
a)
Combination of road and rail transport.
b)
Uses the same container across different modes.
c)
Whole train used by one shipper from origin to destination.
d)
Carriage of goods by at least two different transport modes.
147.
17. What is the defining feature of a Block Train?
a)
Combination of road and rail transport.
b)
Uses the same container across different modes.
c)
Whole train used by one shipper from origin to destination.
d)
A train used only for passenger service.
148.
18. What is the defining feature of Piggyback Transport?
a)
Combination of road and rail transport.
b)
Uses the same container across different modes.
c)
Whole train used by one shipper from origin to destination.
d)
Used for transporting liquids and chemicals.
149.
19. Meat, seafood, and dairy are examples of ____________________________________________ cargo, which requires a ____________________________________________ container.
a)
Heavy, Open-Top
b)
Valuable, Tank
c)
Perishable, Reefer
d)
Bulky, Flat Rack
150.
20. Which mode of transport is the cheapest but slowest option, operating mainly on inland waterways?
a)
Sea Transport
b)
Rail Transport
c)
Air Transport
d)
River Barge
151.
21. Air Transport is most suitable for which cargo attribute?
a)
Heavy goods over long distances.
b)
Cost-effective movement of bulky goods.
c)
Light, valuable goods quickly.
d)
Liquids and chemicals.
152.
22. Rail Transport is most suitable for which cargo attribute?
a)
Heavy goods over long distances.
b)
Short-distance deliveries in cities.
c)
Light, valuable goods quickly.
d)
Extremely fragile items.
153.
23. Sea Transport is most suitable for which cargo attribute?
a)
Heavy goods over long distances.
b)
Cost-effective movement of bulky goods.
c)
Light, valuable goods quickly.
d)
Short-distance deliveries.
154.
24. A good freight forwarder must be ____________________________________________ and maintain high levels of ____________________________________________.
a)
Flexible, Paperwork
b)
Costly, Compensation
c)
Reliable, Communication
d)
Slow, Handling Damage
155.
25. Freight insurance usually costs between _________________________________ and _________________________________ percent of the consignment's value.
a)
5 and 10
b)
0.1 and 0.5
c)
One (1) and Two (2)
d)
Three (3) and Five (5)
156.
26. Which sequence correctly orders the main sequential steps of the Order Cycle? (a. Shipping the Order, b. Processing the Order, c. Delivering the Order, d. Taking the Order)
a)
a. 1st, b. 2nd, c. 3rd, d. 4th
b)
d. 1st, b. 2nd, a. 3rd, c. 4th
c)
c. 1st, a. 2nd, b. 3rd, d. 4th
d)
b. 1st, d. 2nd, c. 3rd, a. 4th
157.
27. Which is the typical structural material for a Barrel?
a)
Slats of wood.
b)
Cylindrical wood or metal (for liquids).
c)
Sturdy metal.
d)
Polymer plastic film.
158.
28. Which is the typical structural material for a Chest?
a)
Slats of wood.
b)
Cylindrical wood or metal (for liquids).
c)
Sturdy metal.
d)
Polymer plastic film.
159.
29. Which is the typical structural material for a Crate?
a)
Slats of wood.
b)
Cylindrical wood or metal (for liquids).
c)
Sturdy metal.
d)
Strong fibreboard.
160.
30. Complete the loading instruction. "During loading, ____________________________________________________ pieces should be placed at the bottom."
a)
Lighter
b)
Fragile
c)
Smaller
d)
Heavier
161.
31. Which primary activity is performed in the Receiving Area?
a)
Batched orders are separated into individual ones.
b)
Documentation for incoming goods is checked.
c)
Goods are selected in customer-required quantities.
d)
Goods are consolidated and loaded for delivery.
162.
32. Which primary activity is performed in the Order Picking Area?
a)
Batched orders are separated into individual ones.
b)
Documentation for incoming goods is checked.
c)
Goods are selected in customer-required quantities.
d)
Goods are consolidated and loaded for delivery.
163.
33. Which primary activity is performed in the Sortation Area?
a)
Batched orders are separated into individual ones.
b)
Documentation for incoming goods is checked.
c)
Goods are selected in customer-required quantities.
d)
Handling of returns and damaged goods.
164.
34. The ____________________________________________ uses machines to store and retrieve goods automatically within high racks, complementing the WMS.
a)
RFID
b)
Barcode System
c)
AS/RS
d)
Cross-Docking System
165.
35. The ____________________________________________ area handles final packaging, labelling, and wrapping.
a)
Sortation
b)
Receiving
c)
Value-Added Services (VAS)
d)
Marshalling
166.
36. Final packaging, labelling, and wrapping are examples of _____________________________________________ services.
a)
Core Logistics
b)
Value-Added
c)
Procurement
d)
Transport
167.
37. Under the Incoterm EX WORKS (EXW), what is the seller's main obligation?
a)
Deliver goods on board the vessel named by buyer.
b)
Make goods ready for pickup at seller’s premises.
c)
Arrange and pay for transport and insurance to named port.
d)
Clear the goods for export.
168.
38. Under the Incoterm FREE ON BOARD (FOB), what is the seller's main obligation?
a)
Deliver goods on board the vessel named by buyer.
b)
Make goods ready for pickup at seller’s premises.
c)
Arrange and pay for transport and insurance to named port.
d)
Pay for insurance until the final destination.
169.
39. Under the Incoterm COST, INSURANCE, FREIGHT (CIF), what is the seller's main obligation?
a)
Deliver goods on board the vessel named by buyer.
b)
Make goods ready for pickup at seller’s premises.
c)
Arrange and pay for transport and insurance to named port.
d)
Release documents only upon full payment.
170.
40. ____________________________________________ gives maximum protection to the seller.
a)
D/P (Documents against Payment)
b)
Advance Payment
c)
COD (Cash on Delivery)
d)
Open Account
171.
41. ____________________________________________ is the most risky payment term for the seller.
a)
Letter of Credit (L/C)
b)
D/P (Documents against Payment)
c)
Advance Payment
d)
Open Account
172.
42. A Pro-Forma Invoice is issued in which context?
a)
Must be embassy-approved as required by the importing country.
b)
A draft invoice prepared before shipment.
c)
Required by customs in some countries, with more detail than a commercial invoice.
d)
A bank's written commitment to pay.
173.
43. A Consular Invoice is issued in which context?
a)
Must be embassy-approved as required by the importing country.
b)
A draft invoice prepared before shipment.
c)
Required by customs in some countries, with more detail than a commercial invoice.
d)
A document detailing shipment and ownership.
174.
44. A Customs Invoice is issued in which context?
a)
Must be embassy-approved as required by the importing country.
b)
A draft invoice prepared before shipment.
c)
Required by customs in some countries, with more detail than a commercial invoice.
d)
A contract of carriage and receipt of shipment.

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