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Human Resource Management - Multiple Choice Questions

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 2hrs 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Human Resource Management primarily deals with

a)

Machines

b)

Money

c)

Men at work

d)

Materials

2.

The main objective of HRM is to:

a)

Reduce employee costs

b)

Maximize employee performance

c)

Hire temporary staff

d)

Increase production

3.

Who is known as the father of scientific management?

a)

Elton Mayo

b)

Henry Fayol

c)

F.W. Taylor

d)

Max Weber

4.

HRM focuses on:

a)

Short-term productivity only

b)

Managing people strategically

c)

Machinery management

d)

Financial control

5.

Which of the following is NOT a function of HRM?

a)

Recruitment and selection

b)

Product design

c)

Training and development

d)

Compensation management

6.

Job analysis involves:

a)

Job description and job specification

b)

Recruitment

c)

Appraisal

d)

Retirement

7.

The process of finding and attracting capable applicants is called:

a)

Recruitment

b)

Selection

c)

Training

d)

Placement

8.

Selection means:

a)

Choosing the most suitable candidate

b)

Hiring all applicants

c)

Advertising job openings

9.

Induction is:

a)

Orientation of new employees

b)

Wage determination

c)

Appraisal of performance

d)

Transfer process

10.

The process of enhancing employees’ skills is called:

a)

Training

b)

Recruitment

c)

Performance appraisal

d)

Promotion

11.

HR Planning ensures:

a)

Right number of people at the right time

b)

Excess manpower

c)

Labor turnover

d)

Overstaffing

12.

Performance appraisal evaluates:

a)

Employee job performance

b)

Company profit

c)

Customer satisfaction

d)

Market share

13.

Which of the following is NOT a method of performance appraisal?

a)

Graphic rating scale

b)

360-degree feedback

c)

Forced ranking

d)

SWOT analysis

14.

Compensation refers to:

a)

Payment or benefits given to employees

b)

Training costs

c)

Retirement funds only

d)

Tax benefits

15.

Incentives are part of:

a)

Indirect compensation

b)

Direct compensation

c)

Statutory benefits

d)

Welfare activities

16.

Fringe benefits include:

4 lines
17.

Promotion means:

a)

Upward movement in position and pay

b)

Termination

c)

Lateral transfer

d)

Demotion

18.

Demotion is:

a)

Downward movement in position

b)

Retirement

c)

Transfer

d)

Suspension

19.

HR audit is conducted to:

a)

Evaluate effectiveness of HR policies

b)

Check financial accuracy

c)

Inspect plant machinery

d)

Review marketing campaigns

20.

Strategic HRM focuses on:

a)

Aligning HR policies with business strategy

b)

Employee transfer

c)

Payroll management

d)

Daily attendance

21.

Industrial relations deal with:

a)

Relationship between employer and employee

b)

Product marketing

c)

Machinery control

d)

Accounting

22.

Collective bargaining means:

a)

Negotiation between employer and employees

b)

Individual performance review

c)

Government regulation

d)

Training session

23.

Trade unions protect:

a)

Workers’ interests

b)

Employer rights

c)

Consumers’ rights

d)

Government policy

24.

The “Human Relations Movement” was initiated by:

a)

A. Elton Mayo

b)

B. Henry Fayol

c)

C. Max Weber

d)

D. Peter Drucker

25.

Employee welfare includes:

a)

Canteen, health, and safety measures

b)

Bonus payment

c)

Promotion

d)

Transfer

26.

The process of placing the right person in the right job is:

a)

Placement

b)

Recruitment

c)

Selection

d)

Training

27.

Job enrichment aims to:

a)

Increase job depth and responsibility

b)

Reduce workload

c)

Simplify tasks

d)

Outsource work

28.

Job rotation is used to:

a)

Reduce monotony and improve skills

b)

Promote employees

c)

Cut costs

d)

Maintain seniority

29.

Career planning ensures:

a)

Employee growth aligned with organization goals

b)

Early retirement

c)

High turnover

d)

Short-term training

30.

Succession planning deals with:

a)

Preparing employees for key leadership roles

b)

Employee layoff

c)

Exit interviews

d)

Payroll management

31.

The main objective of training is to:

a)

Improve employee knowledge, skills, and behavior

b)

Reduce wages

32.

On-the-job training includes:

a)

Coaching and job rotation

b)

Case studies

c)

Conferences

d)

Lectures

33.

Off-the-job training includes:

a)

Seminars, workshops, simulations

b)

Apprenticeship

c)

Job shadowing

d)

Mentoring

34.

Training need analysis (TNA) identifies:

a)

Skill gaps between current and desired performance

b)

Employee salary

c)

Job satisfaction

d)

Attendance records

35.

Which of the following is a step in the training process?

a)

A. Evaluation of training effectiveness

b)

B. Layoff procedure

c)

C. Job redesign

d)

D. Recruitment plan

36.

Evaluation of training is often done using:

a)

Kirkpatrick’s Four-Level Model

b)

Maslow’s hierarchy

c)

Herzberg’s theory

d)

McGregor’s Theory X and Y

37.

Motivation is the process that:

a)

Stimulates people to act toward achieving goals

b)

Measures performance

c)

Replaces human effort with machines

d)

Reduces productivity

38.

Maslow’s theory of motivation is based on:

a)

Hierarchy of needs

b)

Hygiene and motivation factors

c)

Expectancy model

d)

Reinforcement learning

39.

According to Maslow, the highest level of need is:

a)

Self-actualization

b)

Safety

c)

Esteem

d)

Love

40.

Herzberg’s Two-Factor theory divides factors into:

a)

Hygiene and motivators

b)

Physical and psychological

c)

Internal and external

d)

Primary and secondary

41.

Herzberg’s hygiene factors include:

a)

Salary, working conditions, company policy

b)

Achievement

c)

Recognition

d)

Responsibility

42.

Vroom’s Expectancy Theory states that motivation =

a)

A. Expectancy × Instrumentality × Valence

b)

B. Need × Ability

c)

C. Effort × Performance

d)

D. Reward × Effort

43.

McGregor’s Theory X assumes employees:

a)

Dislike work and avoid responsibility

b)

Are self-motivated

c)

Love challenges

d)

Seek growth

44.

McGregor’s Theory Y assumes employees:

a)

Are self-directed and enjoy work

b)

Need close supervision

c)

Avoid work

d)

Are motivated by fear

45.

Equity theory of motivation focuses on:

a)

Fairness in reward distribution

b)

Need satisfaction

c)

Punishment

d)

Hierarchy of needs

46.

Reinforcement theory was proposed by:

a)

A. B.F. Skinner

b)

B. Elton Mayo

c)

C. Abraham Maslow

47.

In reinforcement theory, negative reinforcement means:

a)

Removing unpleasant stimuli to encourage behavior

b)

Punishing mistakes

c)

Giving rewards

d)

Ignoring behavior

48.

Performance management focuses on:

a)

Continuous process of goal-setting and performance review

b)

Annual appraisal only

c)

Payroll and bonuses

d)

Recruitment policies

49.

Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are used to:

a)

Measure employee performance

b)

Define salary bands

c)

Evaluate market competition

d)

Monitor attendance

50.

Management by Objectives (MBO) is associated with:

a)

A. Peter Drucker

b)

B. F.W. Taylor

c)

C. Henry Fayol

d)

D. Elton Mayo

51.

The main aim of performance appraisal is:

a)

To assess and improve employee performance

b)

To determine tax liability

c)

To select new employees

d)

To reduce turnover

52.

The 360-degree feedback system collects input from:

a)

Superiors, peers, subordinates, and self

b)

Only managers

c)

HR department

d)

Customers only

53.

Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) is used in:

a)

Performance appraisal

b)

Recruitment

c)

Job analysis

d)

Training design

54.

Potential appraisal focuses on:

4 lines
55.

Employee empowerment means:

a)

Giving employees more authority and responsibility

b)

Increasing supervision

c)

Reducing autonomy

d)

Delegating only routine tasks

56.

Job satisfaction can be measured using:

a)

Surveys and interviews

b)

Payroll data

c)

Training feedback

d)

Productivity reports only

57.

The concept of Emotional Intelligence was popularized by:

a)

A. Daniel Goleman

b)

B. Elton Mayo

c)

C. Henry Fayol

d)

D. Douglas McGregor

58.

Employee engagement refers to:

a)

The emotional commitment of employees to their organization

b)

Attendance rate

c)

Turnover

d)

Contract duration

59.

Work-life balance programs aim to:

a)

Help employees balance personal and professional life

b)

Increase overtime

c)

Reduce salaries

d)

Promote layoffs

60.

Employee turnover rate measures:

a)

The rate at which employees leave the organization

b)

Training hours

c)

Promotions

d)

Appraisal frequency

61.

Industrial relations primarily concern:

a)

Relationship between employer, employees, and trade unions

b)

Machinery maintenance

c)

Financial policies

62.

The main objective of industrial relations is to:

a)

Maintain industrial peace and harmony

b)

Reduce workforce size

c)

Increase employee turnover

d)

Encourage conflict

63.

A trade union is an association of:

a)

Workers formed to protect their interests

b)

Employers for cost control

c)

Managers for planning

d)

Customers for advocacy

64.

Collective bargaining is a process of:

a)

Negotiation between employer and employee representatives

b)

Recruiting employees

c)

Individual negotiation

d)

Salary benchmarking

65.

Grievance refers to:

a)

Employee dissatisfaction over work-related issues

b)

Bonus payment

c)

Promotion policy

d)

Job enrichment

66.

A strike is:

a)

Refusal by employees to work until demands are met

b)

Employer’s reward scheme

c)

Training method

d)

Arbitration process

67.

Lockout means:

a)

Temporary closure of workplace by employer

b)

Employees leaving work voluntarily

c)

Overtime denial

d)

Dismissal of workers

68.

Arbitration in industrial disputes means:

a)

Settlement by a neutral third party

b)

Negotiation between employees

c)

Strike action

d)

Suspension of work

69.

Disciplinary action is taken when:

4 lines
70.

The term ‘Collective Bargaining’ was coined by:

a)

Sydney and Beatrice Webb

b)

Elton Mayo

c)

Henry Fayol

d)

Douglas McGregor

71.

A works committee is formed under:

a)

Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

b)

Factories Act, 1948

c)

Trade Unions Act, 1926

d)

Payment of Wages Act, 1936

72.

The main objective of labor welfare is to:

a)

Promote employee well-being and productivity

b)

Reduce wages

c)

Maximize profit only

d)

Control unions

73.

The Factories Act, 1948 deals with:

a)

Health, safety, and welfare of workers

b)

Recruitment

c)

Wages

d)

Appraisal system

74.

The Payment of Wages Act, 1936 ensures:

a)

Timely payment of wages without unauthorized deductions

b)

Bonus calculation

c)

Pension benefits

d)

Insurance cover

75.

The Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) provides:

a)

Retirement benefits

b)

Health insurance

c)

Bonus

d)

Training opportunities

76.

The Minimum Wages Act was enacted in:

a)

1948

b)

1952

c)

1936

d)

1965

77.

The Payment of Bonus Act was passed in:

a)

1965

b)

1955

c)

1947

d)

1970

78.

The Maternity Benefit Act ensures:

a)

Paid leave to women employees during maternity

b)

Free meals for all employees

c)

Health insurance for dependents

d)

Retirement allowance

79.

The Apprentices Act aims to:

a)

Regulate training of apprentices in industry

b)

Govern promotions

c)

Control union formation

d)

Manage employee appraisal

80.

HR metrics are used to:

a)

Measure HR performance quantitatively

b)

Calculate profit

c)

Track sales

d)

Assess market demand

81.

HR Scorecard helps in:

a)

Linking HR strategy to organizational performance

b)

Managing inventory

c)

Payroll processing

d)

Customer management

82.

HR analytics is based on:

a)

Data-driven decision making in HR

b)

Manual evaluation

c)

Employee intuition

d)

Random sampling

83.

E-HRM refers to:

a)

Use of internet and digital tools for HR activities

b)

Employee holidays

c)

External hiring

d)

Early retirement

84.

Competency mapping identifies:

a)

Employee’s key skills and capabilities

b)

Pay structure

c)

Absenteeism

85.

Talent management focuses on:

a)

Attracting, developing, and retaining top talent

b)

Firing employees

c)

Reducing staff size

d)

Payroll processing

86.

Succession planning ensures:

a)

Continuity of leadership positions

b)

Hiring external candidates only

c)

Job enlargement

d)

Downsizing

87.

Diversity management promotes:

a)

Inclusion of employees from varied backgrounds

b)

Uniformity

c)

Redundancy

d)

Strict hierarchy

88.

Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) in HR relates to:

a)

A. Ethical and community-focused employment practices

b)

B. Marketing campaigns

c)

C. Tax reduction

d)

D. Overtime pay

89.

The future of HR is moving toward:

a)

Strategic, data-driven, and technology-enabled roles

b)

Manual record-keeping

c)

Purely administrative tasks

d)

Union negotiations only

90.

HR as a business partner means:

a)

HR contributes to achieving business objectives strategically

b)

HR focuses only on hiring

c)

HR handles payroll

d)

HR avoids business discussions

91.

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93.

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