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infoman

Total questions: 23

Worksheet time: 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In Module 1, which term is defined as organized collection of logically related data?

a)

Data

b)

Information

c)

Database

d)

DBMS

2.

Which limitation of file processing is explicitly mentioned as a cause of inconsistencies across systems?

a)

Program-data independence

b)

Data redundancy

c)

Better decision support

d)

Ease of data access

3.

According to the SDLC phases listed, which phase includes programming, testing, training, installation, and documentation?

a)

Planning

b)

Physical Design

c)

Implementation

d)

Maintenance

4.

In the Three-Schema Architecture, which schema represents the logical structure of the entire database?

a)

External schema

b)

Conceptual schema

c)

Internal schema

d)

Physical schema

5.

Which identifier type is described as a potential identifier that satisfies uniqueness and non-null requirements?

a)

Primary Key

b)

Foreign Key

c)

Candidate Key

d)

Composite Key

6.

What is the cardinality constraint defined as in the relationships section?

a)

A link between entities

b)

Number of instances that can/must participate

c)

A collection of entities with shared properties

d)

Specific link between entity instances

7.

When is an associative entity created according to the notes?

a)

When two entities are unary

b)

When a relationship has attributes or needs a unique identifier

c)

When an entity has a multivalued attribute

d)

When supertypes inherit attributes

8.

In Module 3, what is the attribute called that determines subtype membership?

a)

Subtype Key

b)

Subtype Discriminator

c)

Attribute Inheritance

d)

Supertype Identifier

9.

In the relational model, what is a relation defined as?

a)

A hierarchical tree of nodes

b)

A named, two-dimensional table of data

c)

An unstructured collection of documents

d)

A graph of connected entities

10.

Which property is required for all relations according to the properties listed?

a)

Every attribute value may be multivalued

b)

Order of rows and columns determines meaning

c)

Every row must be unique

d)

Attributes can share the same name

11.

What is the role of a foreign key as defined in the content?

a)

Uniquely identifies each row within its own relation

b)

Refers to a primary key in another relation

c)

Is a key made up of two or more attributes

d)

Could serve as a primary key within the same relation

12.

Under referential integrity, which action sets the foreign key to null when the parent is deleted?

a)

Restrict

b)

Cascade

c)

Set-to-Null

d)

Enforce

13.

According to normalization rules presented, which statement best describes Second Normal Form (2NF)?

a)

1NF with no partial dependencies

b)

1NF with no transitive dependencies

c)

No multivalued attributes; atomic values

d)

All attributes are functionally dependent on a surrogate key

14.

Which anomaly occurs when deleting one row removes needed data, as described under 'Anomalies (Why Normalization Matters)'?

a)

Insertion anomaly

b)

Deletion anomaly

c)

Modification anomaly

d)

Projection anomaly

15.

For a one-to-many binary relationship, where should the foreign key be placed according to the transformation guidelines?

a)

On the "one" side

b)

On both sides

c)

On the "many" side

d)

In a separate associative relation only

16.

In a supertype/subtype relationship, what becomes the primary key of a subtype?

a)

A new composite key formed from subtype attributes

b)

A surrogate key generated during transformation

c)

The supertype’s primary key

d)

A foreign key from an unrelated relation

17.

According to the SQL Overview, which statement correctly matches each term to its definition?

a)

SQL is software used to manage databases; DBMS is the language standard for relational databases.

b)

SQL is the language standard for relational databases; DBMS is software used to manage databases.

c)

RDBMS is a software tool used to design hardware; SQL is used only for NoSQL databases.

d)

DBMS manages data as tables with relationships; RDBMS is the overall software suite.

18.

Which set lists the SQL command type categories exactly as shown under SQL Command Types?

a)

DDL, DML, DCL, TCL

b)

DQL, DDL, DML, DTL

c)

DDL, DML, DCL, Transaction Control

d)

Data Control, Table Control, Row Control, Query Control

19.

Under Table Structure, what is the naming rule for a table as stated?

a)

It may begin with any character, must be under 64 characters, and can use reserved words.

b)

It must begin with a letter, maximum 30 characters, and cannot use reserved words.

c)

It must begin with a digit, maximum 128 characters, reserved words allowed with quotes.

d)

It must be unique across all databases and contain at least one underscore.

20.

Which constraint specifically ensures that each row in a table can be uniquely identified?

a)

NOT NULL

b)

UNIQUE

c)

PRIMARY KEY

d)

FOREIGN KEY

21.

Referential Integrity in the content ensures which of the following?

a)

Every column must have a value or be NULL.

b)

Foreign key values match primary key values or are NULL.

c)

Duplicate values are prevented across all columns.

d)

Only numeric foreign keys are allowed.

22.

Which DML command combination is correctly paired with its action as listed?

a)

INSERT removes rows; DELETE adds new rows; MERGE modifies existing rows.

b)

INSERT adds new rows; UPDATE modifies existing rows; DELETE removes rows.

c)

UPDATE adds new rows; MERGE removes rows; INSERT modifies existing rows.

d)

MERGE only deletes and inserts but cannot update.

23.

In Transaction Control, which statement matches the action to the command exactly as described?

a)

COMMIT undoes changes; ROLLBACK saves changes; SAVEPOINT deletes a table.

b)

COMMIT saves changes; ROLLBACK undoes changes; SAVEPOINT sets rollback marker.

c)

COMMIT sets rollback marker; ROLLBACK saves changes; SAVEPOINT undoes changes.

d)

COMMIT and ROLLBACK both save changes; SAVEPOINT ignores changes.