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Unit 2 - Entertainment Study Guide

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A video game company collaborates with a movie studio to feature a film’s characters in a game. Both companies profit from this arrangement. This is an example of:

a)

Sponsorship

b)

Licensing partnership

c)

Product placement

d)

Merchandising tie-in

2.

Which of the following is most likely to generate residual income for an actor?

a)

A bonus for social media promotions

b)

A rerun of their TV show on a new streaming platform

c)

Merchandise sales from a fan convention

d)

A one-time licensing deal for their image

3.

A small independent film relies heavily on local sponsors to fund production and promote the movie. This shows how sponsorships can:

a)

Replace the need for licensing deals

b)

Provide financial backing and marketing exposure without giving up ownership

c)

Increase box office ticket sales directly

d)

Limit collaboration between industries

4.

If a streaming service lowers subscription prices to attract more users, what impact might this have on royalties paid to artists?

a)

Royalties will automatically increase.

b)

Royalties may decrease if total revenue per stream declines.

c)

Royalties remain fixed and unaffected by pricing.

d)

Royalties are only paid based on downloads.

5.

A theme park creates an interactive concert experience using a popular artist’s brand. Which two revenue streams are likely combined here?

a)

Residuals and royalties

b)

Events & experiences and licensing

c)

Sponsorship and merchandising

d)

Product placement and residuals

6.

Which of the following is an example of a “Streaming Subscription” revenue source?

a)

Ticket sales at a concert

b)

Monthly payments to Netflix or Disney+

c)

Profits from toy sales

d)

Sponsorships during award shows

7.

Licensing allows companies to:

a)

Protect their employees from competition

b)

Use other companies’ intellectual property for a fee

c)

Control product placement in films

d)

Reduce marketing costs

8.

Sponsorships and partnerships are used when:

a)

Brands want to directly fund an entertainment company

b)

Brands want their products connected to entertainment content

c)

A film studio needs to avoid advertising

d)

Merchandising isn’t available

9.

Royalties are payments made for:

a)

Using intellectual property such as songs or logos

b)

Selling products through social media

c)

Purchasing ad space on television

d)

Filming on private property

10.

Which type of royalty is earned when music is used in a commercial, film, or video game?

a)

Streaming royalties

b)

Public performance royalties

c)

Sync royalties

d)

Residual royalties

11.

Public performance royalties are collected when:

a)

Music is streamed online privately

b)

A song is played in a public or commercial setting

c)

An artist sells a concert ticket

d)

Music is downloaded from an app

12.

Residuals are best described as:

a)

Payments made for every social media post

b)

One-time salary bonuses for actors

c)

Payments made when a show or film is reused or rerun

d)

Merchandise revenue earned by the production team

13.

Which of the following statements best describes product placement?

a)

A company pays to have its brand shown within entertainment content

b)

Fans submit their own products for promotion

c)

It refers to creating branded merchandise

d)

It is a form of copyright protection

14.

A movie studio gives a toy company permission to make action figures using its characters. The toy company pays a percentage of each sale. This is an example of:

a)

Sponsorship

b)

Licensing

c)

Residuals

d)

Merchandising

15.

A streaming platform pays a record label each time a song is played by users. This is an example of:

a)

Product placement

b)

Public performance royalties

c)

Streaming royalties

d)

Merchandising

16.

A soda brand pays to have its cans featured in a popular movie scene. This is an example of:

a)

Licensing

b)

Product placement

c)

Merchandising

d)

Royalties

17.

An actor receives yearly payments because their TV show continues to be shown on streaming platforms. This is an example of:

a)

Residuals

b)

Sponsorships

c)

Public performance royalties

d)

Sync royalties

18.

When a song is played at a sports event and the artist is paid, what kind of royalty is that?

a)

Sync

b)

Public performance

c)

Streaming

d)

Residual

19.

Why is licensing important for entertainment brands?

a)

It increases short-term profit but limits exposure

b)

It allows brands to reach new audiences through collaborations

c)

It replaces the need for traditional marketing

d)

It eliminates competition in the market

20.

Why is marketing essential for maximizing entertainment revenue?

a)

It guarantees higher box office sales

b)

It ensures the brand name remains private

c)

It promotes awareness and demand across multiple revenue streams

d)

It prevents the need for product placement

21.

What does 'constant consumption' mean in the context of music marketing?

a)

Listeners buy music in bulk rather than individually.

b)

Fans stream or listen to music daily, creating ongoing exposure and income.

c)

Artists constantly release new albums to maintain attention.

d)

Record labels rely on one-time sales for profit.

22.

Which statement best describes a 'revenue stream' in the music industry?

a)

A method for increasing a song’s tempo.

b)

A type of promotion designed to attract sponsors.

c)

A distinct source of income such as streaming, touring, or licensing.

d)

A category of fans based on demographics.

23.

A brand pays a popular artist to promote their clothing line on social media. What type of revenue stream is this?

a)

Licensing

b)

Sponsorship and endorsement

c)

Merchandising

d)

Royalties

24.

Why do streaming services play such a major role in modern music marketing?

a)

They require artists to sell physical albums.

b)

They provide consistent income and real-time listener data.

c)

They eliminate the need for live performances.

d)

They operate independently of fan engagement.

25.

What is one benefit of an artist engaging directly with fans online?

a)

It replaces the need for paid advertisements entirely.

b)

It builds a personal connection that can increase loyalty and sales.

c)

It allows fans to control the artist’s brand decisions.

d)

It guarantees a viral trend.

26.

Which of the following would NOT be considered a major music industry revenue stream?

a)

Licensing songs for commercials

b)

Selling artist merchandise

c)

Investing in other companies unrelated to music

d)

Performing live concerts

27.

A musician earns a portion of revenue each time their track is streamed online. This is an example of:

a)

Sync royalty

b)

Streaming royalty

c)

Residual income

d)

Endorsement income

28.

What is a key marketing advantage of collaborations between artists?

a)

They reduce the need for concert promotion.

b)

They expose artists to each other’s fan bases and expand reach.

c)

They eliminate the need for digital streaming.

d)

They guarantee higher royalties for both artists.

29.

How do sponsorships differ from licensing agreements?

a)

Sponsorships involve payment for brand exposure, while licensing allows the use of intellectual property.

b)

Licensing always costs more than sponsorship.

c)

Sponsorships are limited to live performances only.

d)

Licensing does not generate long-term income.

30.

Why is 'direct fan engagement' considered a modern marketing advantage for artists?

a)

It eliminates the role of record labels entirely.

b)

It allows artists to connect instantly with fans without expensive intermediaries.

c)

It focuses on traditional print advertising.

d)

It limits the spread of user-generated content.

31.

Which best explains why music marketing often relies on emotional appeal?

a)

Emotional content is easier to copyright.

b)

Emotional connections motivate fans to buy, stream, and share music.

c)

Music sales depend entirely on price discounts.

d)

Emotional marketing violates advertising laws.

32.

An artist’s song is featured in a commercial for a new smartphone. What type of income would the artist likely receive?

a)

Sync royalty

b)

Performance royalty

c)

Sponsorship

d)

Merchandising

33.

Why is it important for artists to balance authenticity with marketing strategy?

a)

Fans value genuine connection, but strategic promotion maintains visibility and profit.

b)

Marketing should always replace creative decision-making.

c)

Authenticity is irrelevant when revenue is high.

d)

Branding should never include personal values.

34.

What does the term “opening weekend” refer to in the film industry?

a)

The total box office revenue of a movie’s entire run

b)

The first weekend after a movie’s trailer release

c)

The first weekend a movie is released in theaters

d)

The first day a film starts production

35.

What does “box office” mean?

a)

The place where movie posters are displayed

b)

The marketing budget for a new film

c)

The total ticket sales a film earns while in theaters

d)

The amount paid to stream a movie

36.

For television shows, why are the first few episodes so crucial?

a)

They determine which actors get promoted

b)

Networks decide whether to continue or cancel a show based on early viewership

c)

They are the cheapest to produce

d)

They set the price for future streaming rights

37.

Which of the following strategies helps studios build hype before a movie’s release?

a)

Limiting social media access

b)

Teasers, trailers, and press tours featuring stars

c)

Waiting until after release to advertise

d)

Avoiding emotional content

38.

Why is emotional marketing effective in promoting movies?

a)

It creates logical arguments about why a movie should be watched

b)

 It builds personal connections between audiences and stories or characters

c)

It focuses solely on celebrity endorsements

d)

It reduces production costs

39.

What is the definition of a profit driver?

a)

The person who manages company finances

b)

Any expense that reduces overall profitability

c)

A factor that strongly influences or predicts business or customer outcomes

d)

A short-term marketing campaign

40.

Why do many “hit” movies still lose money despite strong box office performance?

a)

Most profits go entirely to actors

b)

They often have very high production and marketing costs that reduce net profit

c)

Theaters refuse to share revenue

d)

Audiences only pay for streaming

41.

Which of the following is a core challenge for profitability in the movie industry?

a)

Low ticket prices set by theaters

b)

Marketing and promotion costs that can equal or exceed the production budget

c)

Low demand for franchise sequels

d)

Decreasing advertising rates

42.

In TV and streaming, what is considered the core income source?

a)

Syndication deals

b)

Subscription retention and recurring revenue

c)

Product placement within shows

d)

Movie licensing

43.

Why is subscription retention critical for streaming platforms?

a)

New subscribers pay lower prices

b)

Retaining subscribers ensures consistent monthly income over time

c)

Subscribers don’t impact ad revenue

d)

It reduces the need to produce original content

44.

In the music industry, what generates the majority of artist revenue?

a)

Merchandise and product licensing

b)

Touring and live performances

c)

Royalties from streaming

d)

Record label contracts

45.

What is one major challenge facing artists in the streaming era?

a)

High ticket prices for concerts

b)

Streaming royalties pay very little per play

c)

Limited access to brand sponsorships

d)

Fans don’t attend live events anymore

46.

For amusement parks, which factor contributes most to profitability beyond ticket sales?

a)

Parking fees

b)

In-park spending on food, souvenirs, and upgrades

c)

Local tourism subsidies

d)

Employee payroll cuts

47.

Why is brand licensing valuable for amusement parks?

a)

It increases staffing efficiency

b)

It builds loyalty by connecting rides and experiences to recognizable characters

c)

It replaces in-park spending entirely

d)

It reduces ride maintenance costs

48.

When calculating ROI (Return on Investment), what does the formula measure?

a)

The total number of sales

b)

How efficiently profit was generated from the cost of investment

c)

The total revenue over multiple years

d)

The ratio between total views and followers

49.

Why do amusement parks typically have lower ROI compared to films or concerts?

a)

They are less popular with audiences

b)

They have high fixed costs like staffing, maintenance, and insurance

c)

They earn no in-park spending

d)

They don’t offer licensing opportunities

50.

Which of the following is an example of an engagement metric KPI?

a)

Brand loyalty

b)

Emotional connection

c)

Attendance and participation rates

d)

Customer satisfaction

51.

What type of KPI measures measurable performance indicators expressed as numbers?

a)

Qualitative

b)

Quantitative

c)

Emotional

d)

Strategic

52.

What type of KPI measures intangible aspects like customer satisfaction and brand loyalty?

a)

Quantitative

b)

Numerical

c)

Qualitative

d)

Financial

53.

A theme park creates a new VR attraction that costs $10 million but frequently crashes and has long wait times due to technical issues. Which TWO challenges is this activation facing?

a)

High costs and Technology Risks & Barriers

b)

Authenticity vs Commercialization, and Scalability

c)

Health, Safety & Logistics

d)

Scalability and Accessibility

54.

A movie studio creates an immersive pop-up experience in one city that receives amazing reviews from attendees. However, fans from other countries complain on social media that they can't access the experience. Which challenge does this scenario illustrate?

a)

High costs & ROI pressure

b)

Authenticity vs Commercialization

c)

Scalability and Accessibility

d)

Technology Risks & Barriers

55.

A concert tour creates an interactive app that lets fans unlock exclusive content during the show. To measure success, the marketing team tracks the number of app downloads, the number of active users per show, and total in-app interactions. What type of KPIs are they using?

a)

Qualitative only

b)

Quantitative only

c)

Neither qualitative nor quantitative

d)

Both qualitative and quantitative

56.

What is the main difference between amusement parks and theme parks?

a)

Theme parks have more expensive tickets and premium experiences

b)

Amusement parks focus on thrill rides with minimal storytelling

c)

Amusement parks are always larger in size

d)

Theme parks attract more visitors annually

57.

What does USP stand for?

a)

Universal Service Provider

b)

Unique Selling Proposition

c)

Ultimate Sales Plan

d)

Unified Strategic Platform

58.

What is a 'fandom'?

a)

A type of ride at theme parks

b)

A community of active fans united by shared enthusiasm

c)

A discount program for families

d)

A section of the park

59.

Which realm of engagement involves shows, fireworks, and parades?

a)

Education

b)

Escapism

c)

Esthetics

d)

Entertainment

60.

What elements contribute to the Escapism realm?

a)

Ticket pricing strategies

b)

Employee scheduling

c)

'Lands,' rides, employee roles, and merchandise

d)

Food and beverage only

61.

What is a major benefit of the Escapism realm?

a)

It reduces overall park operating expenses

b)

Guests become fully immersed, leading to higher spending and stronger fan loyalty

c)

It speeds up attraction wait times

d)

It decreases the need for park employees

62.

What is Disney's term for adding details that guests may not notice but that improve immersion?

a)

Detailing

b)

Plussing

c)

Enhancing

d)

Layering

63.

What is 'customer journey mapping'?

a)

Creating park maps for guests

b)

Designing experiences around the customer journey from pre-arrival to post-visit

c)

Tracking guest movements with GPS

d)

Planning employee shift schedules

64.

What is 'service culture' in theme parks?

a)

The food served at restaurants

b)

How employees interact with guests to create a consistently positive experience

c)

The types of shows performed

d)

The design of the park entrance

65.

Why is the ending of a theme park visit carefully designed with fireworks and parades?

a)

To make guests leave faster

b)

To ensure guests end on a high note, utilizing the peak-end rule in psychology

c)

To create a more coordinated exit route

d)

To advertise to people outside the park

66.

A theme park notices that guests are leaving immediately after the last ride closes, missing out on evening merchandise sales. According to the Four Realms of Engagement, which realm should they enhance to keep guests in the park later and increase sales?

a)

Education - by adding more informational exhibits

b)

Esthetics - by improving photo opportunities

c)

Entertainment - by adding evening shows, fireworks, or parades

d)

Escapism - by creating more themed lands

67.

A theme park operator wants to justify higher ticket prices to parents who are budget-conscious. The park already has exciting rides and beautiful theming. Which realm of engagement should they emphasize in their marketing to show additional value?

a)

Entertainment - highlighting their parade schedule

b)

Education - promoting learning opportunities that make visits worthwhile

c)

Esthetics - showcasing their beautiful landscaping

d)

Escapism - advertising their merchandise selection

68.

A theme park receives feedback that while their attractions are thrilling, the park feels cluttered and uninviting. Guests say there aren't good places to take photos or relax. Which realm should the park prioritize improving?

a)

Entertainment

b)

Education

c)

Escapism

d)

Esthetics

69.

Two theme parks have similar attractions, but Park A consistently rates higher in guest satisfaction. Park A ensures their nightly fireworks spectacular is the last thing guests experience before leaving. What psychological principle is Park A leveraging?

a)

The realm rule

b)

The peak-end rule

c)

Service culture

d)

Plussing

70.

Why can’t theme parks simply increase ticket sales to boost revenue?

a)

It’s illegal to exceed park capacity.

b)

Overcrowding leads to poor guest experiences and negative reviews.

c)

Ticket prices are already regulated by local governments.

d)

Adding more guests automatically decreases per capita spending.

71.

What does the term *capacity management* refer to in the theme park industry?

a)

Limiting park hours to save money

b)

Managing the balance between crowd size, wait times, and guest satisfaction

c)

Increasing the number of rides in a park

d)

Building larger parking lots for more visitors

72.

What does *per capita spending* mean in the context of theme parks?

a)

The average amount a guest spends during their visit

b)

The total revenue of a theme park per year

c)

The number of guests who visit the park each day

d)

The total cost of running a park per employee

73.

Why is per capita spending a key performance metric for parks?

a)

It measures employee satisfaction.

b)

It reflects how effectively the park generates revenue beyond admission sales.

c)

It determines ride capacity limits.

d)

It shows how much guests pay for parking.

74.

Why are unique food items like Dole Whip and Butterbeer important for parks?

a)

They reduce wait times for other attractions.

b)

They create memorable experiences and increase social media exposure.

c)

They are required by sponsorship contracts.

d)

They help control crowd flow during peak hours.

75.

Which of the following best describes upselling?

a)

Offering refunds for canceled tickets

b)

Encouraging guests to purchase higher-value add-ons such as Fast Passes or photo packages

c)

Selling leftover merchandise at a discount

d)

Upgrading rides to increase speed

76.

Which strategy helps parks maintain crowd flow and reduce long wait times?

a)

Flash sales on tickets

b)

Queue management systems like virtual lines and wait-time apps

c)

Free parking offers

d)

Eliminating parades and shows

77.

Which of the following describes the purpose of event scheduling?

a)

To move guests throughout the park at different times

b)

To eliminate downtime between attractions

c)

To advertise seasonal events only

d)

To track employee work hours

78.

Seasonal pricing helps parks manage crowds by:

a)

Offering the same price year-round to build loyalty

b)

Charging higher prices during peak times to reduce overcrowding

c)

Charging less during holidays

d)

Giving discounts to employees only

79.

What do all capacity management strategies have in common?

a)

They prioritize short-term sales over guest experience.

b)

They balance guest satisfaction and spending opportunities with crowd control.

c)

They reduce marketing costs across departments.

d)

They eliminate the need for advertising campaigns.

80.

A park notices guests leaving early because of long waits at food stands. What strategy would best address this?

a)

Add mobile ordering or stagger meal times to manage flow.

b)

Increase ticket prices.

c)

Reduce food variety to shorten lines.

d)

Close restaurants during peak hours.

81.

A theme park introduces a special 'after-dark' event to spread attendance throughout the day. This is an example of:

a)

Seasonal pricing

b)

Event scheduling

c)

Upselling

d)

Reservation system

82.

If a park offers lower prices during weekdays to attract more visitors, this is an example of:

a)

Queue management

b)

Seasonal pricing

c)

Merchandising

d)

Bundling

83.

Why is balancing crowd size important beyond just customer satisfaction?

a)

Less crowding increases per capita spending and positive word-of-mouth.

b)

It reduces staff payroll costs.

c)

It eliminates the need for marketing budgets.

d)

It guarantees lower ticket prices.

84.

A theme park wants to grow profit without exceeding capacity. Which strategy is most effective?

a)

Increase merchandise and dining options to raise per capita spending.

b)

Increase ticket sales to the maximum capacity limit.

c)

Cut park hours to reduce operating costs.

d)

Limit marketing efforts to online advertising only.

85.

How should marketers interpret record-breaking sales within a movie's first three days?

a)

The movie will likely perform poorly in streaming

b)

Strong opening weekend success suggests long-term box office profitability

c)

The marketing strategy failed to attract fans

d)

There’s no connection between marketing and revenue

86.

What is the most likely outcome when a new show’s first two episodes receive low viewership ratings?

a)

The network will extend its budget for more episodes

b)

The show may be canceled or rebranded to attract a new audience

c)

The show will automatically renew for another season

d)

The marketing team will stop promoting it completely

87.

What makes film marketing different from product marketing for items like shoes or electronics?

a)

Movies depend heavily on emotional and time-sensitive promotion

b)

Movies have long shelf lives similar to durable goods

c)

Product marketing focuses more on storytelling

d)

Film promotion never uses social media

88.

When a movie’s actors appear on talk shows before release, this marketing method mainly supports which goal?

a)

Building audience connection and anticipation

b)

Testing audience reactions

c)

Negotiating contracts with networks

d)

Reducing advertising costs

89.

A streaming platform releases all episodes of a show at once, relying on fans to share reactions online. This strategy depends most on:

a)

Community hype

b)

Emotional selling

c)

Licensing agreements

d)

Sponsorship deals

90.

What is an AI influencer?

a)

A real person who uses artificial intelligence software

b)

A computer-generated artificial character operated by algorithms and social media teams

c)

A celebrity who promotes technology products

d)

An influencer who only posts about artificial intelligence

91.

Which of the following is NOT considered a strategic advantage of influencer marketing over celebrity endorsements?

a)

Credibility

b)

Affordability

c)

Guaranteed viral content

d)

Reduced risk

92.

Why do social media influencers have credibility with their audiences?

a)

They are viewed as experts in their areas of focus

b)

They are more famous than traditional celebrities

c)

They have the most followers

d)

They appear in television commercials

93.

What is a key difference in how younger generations respond to influencers versus traditional celebrities?

a)

Younger generations prefer celebrities over influencers

b)

Younger generations aren't easily swayed by celebrities but respond better to influencers' personal, relatable engagement

c)

Younger generations only follow AI influencers

d)

Younger generations ignore all forms of endorsements

94.

Who can become a social media influencer?

a)

Only professional athletes and actors

b)

Only people with college degrees in marketing

c)

Anyone from high school students to industry experts to wealthy luxury enthusiasts

d)

Only people who live in major cities

95.

Celebrity endorsers are typically:

a)

Only athletes

b)

Only musicians

c)

Musicians, actors, athletes, or other public figures

d)

Only actors in movies

96.

What is the primary consideration for brands when choosing an influencer to work with?

a)

The influencer's age

b)

The influencer's location

c)

The number of followers and engagement rate

d)

How expensive the influencer is

97.

Why is influencer marketing fundamentally similar to traditional endorsements?

a)

Both use the same social media platforms

b)

Both involve a company paying a person with an established audience to endorse their brand

c)

Both cost exactly the same amount

d)

Both only target millennial consumers

98.

Celebrity endorsements have been shown to have a positive impact on:

a)

Coordination of marketing efforts

b)

Impressions made per customer

c)

Brand image, consumer buying behavior, and profitability

d)

Social media algorithms

99.

Which statement best describes why influencers can interact with audiences differently than traditional celebrities?

a)

Influencers have more money than celebrities

b)

Influencers appear in more commercials

c)

Influencers can engage with audiences on a personal, relatable level

d)

Influencers only post once per month

100.

A fashion brand wants to promote a new line of affordable athletic wear to young adults. Which marketing approach would likely be MOST cost-effective while still reaching a large, engaged audience?

a)

Hiring a famous Olympic athlete as a celebrity endorser

b)

Working with a social media influencer who focuses on fitness and has strong engagement

c)

Creating only traditional TV commercials

d)

Using only print advertisements in magazines

101.

What is the key difference between experiential marketing in entertainment versus other industries?

a)

It costs more money

b)

It only happens at theme parks

c)

The product is already an experience (music, film, amusement), and experiential marketing amplifies it by letting fans live it firsthand

d)

It doesn't use technology

102.

What is an 'activation' in marketing?

a)

Turning on a computer

b)

A specific marketing event, campaign, or experience designed to 'activate' consumer engagement

c)

A type of social media account

d)

A discount code for products

103.

According to the best practices, experiential marketing activations should:

a)

Only be available online

b)

Align with fan expectations of the franchise

c)

Be expensive and exclusive to wealthy fans only

d)

Avoid creating community experiences

104.

Why should experiential marketing events 'leave fans with a keepsake or photo op'?

a)

To charge fans additional money

b)

To create lasting memories and shareable moments

c)

To replace the actual experience

d)

To reduce attendance at future events

105.

Which of the following is NOT listed as an experiential marketing strategy?

a)

Immersive worlds and pop-ups

b)

Technology integration

c)

Magazine advertisements

d)

Social amplification

106.

What are immersive worlds and pop-ups?

a)

Permanent store locations

b)

Temporary experiences that recreate movie sets, music video worlds, or iconic TV locations

c)

Online shopping websites

d)

Traditional movie theaters

107.

What characterizes fan-centric events?

a)

Fans only watch from a distance

b)

Events are only for celebrities

c)

Fans participate, not just watch

d)

No interaction is allowed

108.

What role does social amplification play in experiential marketing?

a)

Experiences are designed for Instagram, TikTok, and fan communities to create viral buzz

b)

It limits who can attend events

c)

It allows for in-person experiences

d)

It only matters for music artists

109.

Theme parks are described as a prime example of experiential marketing because they:

a)

Sell food and merchandise

b)

Create fully immersive, 360-degree environments

c)

Require in person interaction

d)

Use technology

110.

A music artist wants to create an experiential marketing campaign for their new album. Which approach BEST follows experiential marketing principles?

a)

Only posting the album on streaming services

b)

Creating a multisensory immersive event where fans experience rooms tied to each track

c)

Sending press releases to newspapers

d)

Making a traditional music video

111.

A streaming platform wants to promote a new thriller series. Which experiential marketing strategy would be most effective?

a)

Creating escape rooms based on the show's storyline

b)

Running TV commercials

c)

Posting clues on TikTok

d)

Publishing magazine reviews

112.

What does ROI stand for?

a)

Rate of Interest

b)

Return on Investment

c)

Revenue on Income

d)

Ranking of Investments

113.

What is brand authenticity?

a)

The age of a brand

b)

How expensive a brand is

c)

How genuine the brand appears

d)

The number of products a brand sells

114.

What is a major consequence when an experiential activation feels like 'a giant ad' rather than a meaningful fan experience?

a)

Increased ticket sales

b)

More social media followers

c)

It risks backlash from fans

d)

Better brand reputation

115.

What does UX stand for?

a)

Universal Experience

b)

User Exchange

c)

User Experience

d)

Unified Exhibition

116.

What does UX measure?

a)

How much an event costs

b)

How many people attend

c)

How enjoyable and seamless the experience feels to the participant

d)

How long an event lasts

117.

Which of the following is a technology risk or barrier in experiential marketing?

a)

Too many security guards

b)

Glitches, lag, or poor execution that can break immersion

c)

Events starting too early

d)

Too much parking available

118.

Why might not all fans be able to participate in digital experiential marketing experiences?

a)

They don't want to participate

b)

Digital experiences are always free

c)

Not all fans have access to expensive devices or strong Wi-Fi

d)

Digital experiences are worse than in-person ones

119.

What is crowd management?

a)

Selling tickets online

b)

How to safely handle large groups of people

c)

Creating social media content

d)

Designing event posters

120.

Which challenge involves concerns about large crowds, ride-based attractions, or stunt activations?

a)

Authenticity vs Commercialization

b)

Scalability and Accessibility

c)

Health, Safety & Logistics

d)

Technology Risks & Barriers

121.

What does KPI stand for?

a)

Key Personal Investment

b)

Key Performance Indicator

c)

Known Public Interest

d)

Kinetic Performance Index

122.

What are KPIs used for?

a)

To hire new employees

b)

To measure success through specific metrics

c)

To design event posters

d)

To schedule event dates

123.

Which of the following is an example of an engagement metric KPI?

a)

Brand loyalty

b)

Emotional connection

c)

Attendance and participation rates

d)

Customer satisfaction