wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Platform Technologies Midterm Examination - Multiple Choice

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which technology marked the first generation of computers?

a)

Transistors

b)

Vacuum tubes

c)

Integrated circuits

d)

Microprocessors

2.

A modern computer typically consists of which of the following components?

a)

A. CPU, input/output devices, and main memory

b)

B. Punch cards, compiler, and tape drives

c)

C. Keyboard, printer paper, and card reader

d)

D. None of the above

3.

What best describes the purpose of hardware architecture?

a)

It specifies the computer’s physical structure and interconnections.

b)

It defines how software communicates with the user.

c)

It refers only to the external design of computer casing.

d)

It manages files and directories in a computer system.

4.

Which type of operating system is designed to handle multiple programs simultaneously?

a)

Batch operating system

b)

Multiprogramming operating system

c)

Real-time operating system

d)

Distributed operating system

5.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the operating system acting as a resource manager?

a)

A. A user typing a document in Microsoft Word

b)

B. The OS allocating memory among multiple running programs

c)

C. A printer connected to a laptop via Bluetooth

d)

D. Installing an application from the Internet

6.

Which trend correctly represents the evolution of IT infrastructure over time?

a)

From mobile computing → cloud computing → mainframe computing

b)

From mainframe computing → client/server → enterprise → cloud computing

c)

From personal computing → minicomputers → batch systems

d)

From internet-based systems → minicomputers → mainframes

7.

If a company’s network platform fails, which service would be affected the most?

a)

Local file storage only

b)

Shared network resources

c)

Standalone applications

d)

Peripheral device access

8.

An organization plans to integrate multiple legacy systems and web applications. Which infrastructure component should be prioritized?

a)

Consulting and system integration services

b)

Operating system platforms

c)

Data management and storage

d)

Internet platforms

9.

Which of the following best defines an operating system?

a)

A software used to design applications

b)

A program that manages computer hardware and software resources

c)

A device driver for input devices

d)

A type of utility for data recovery

10.

Which component of a computer system executes the instructions of a program?

a)

Memory

b)

Input devices

c)

CPU

d)

Output devices

11.

Which of the following is an example of a batch operating system?

a)

MS-DOS

b)

UNIX

c)

Windows 10

d)

Android

12.

The main goal of a multiprogramming operating system is to:

a)

Reduce CPU usage

b)

Allow only one program to run at a time

c)

Maximize CPU utilization by running multiple jobs

d)

Improve the graphical interface

13.

Time-sharing operating systems differ from batch systems because they:

a)

Do not use CPU scheduling

b)

Allow user interaction with running jobs

c)

Are slower than batch systems

d)

Work only in mainframe environments

14.

Which of the following is true about real-time operating systems (RTOS)?

a)

They process data in random order.

b)

They guarantee that all tasks are completed within a fixed deadline.

c)

They are designed mainly for office productivity.

d)

They cannot be embedded in devices.

15.

A hospital life-support system requires immediate response from its OS. Which type of OS should be used?

a)

Batch OS

b)

Real-time OS

c)

Distributed OS

d)

Network OS

16.

A company uses several computers connected in a LAN to share resources. Which OS setup is most appropriate?

a)

Multiprocessing OS

b)

Network OS

c)

Time-sharing OS

d)

Batch OS

17.

In a university computer lab, several users access the same system at once. The most suitable OS is:

a)

Multiprocessing OS

b)

Network OS

c)

Time-sharing OS

d)

Batch OS

18.

How does a distributed OS differ from a multiprocessing OS?

a)

Distributed OS runs on one computer only.

b)

Multiprocessing OS uses several CPUs in one machine; distributed OS uses multiple machines.

c)

Both refer to the same concept.

d)

Multiprocessing OS requires networking infrastructure.

19.

Which type of OS would be best for a supercomputer performing complex calculations simultaneously?

a)

Real-time OS

b)

Multiprocessing OS

c)

Batch OS

d)

Network OS

20.

What is a major disadvantage of batch processing systems?

a)

They require expensive hardware.

b)

They waste CPU time.

c)

There is no user interaction during job execution.

d)

They do not support printers.

21.

If you were to design an OS for a mobile phone, which OS features would you combine?

a)

Multiprogramming and real-time

b)

Batch and distributed

c)

Time-sharing and batch

d)

Multiprocessing and batch

22.

You are tasked to design an OS for industrial automation. Which must be prioritized?

a)

Multitasking capability

b)

Graphical interface

c)

Real-time response

d)

Resource sharing

23.

Among all types of OS, which one provides the highest reliability in mission-critical environments?

a)

Multiprogramming OS

b)

Distributed OS

c)

Batch OS

d)

Desktop OS

24.

If system reliability, scalability, and cost-efficiency are priorities, which OS architecture would you recommend for a growing enterprise?

a)

Multiprogramming OS

b)

Batch OS

c)

Distributed OS

d)

Real-time OS

25.

What is the primary purpose of memory management in an operating system?

a)

Control user input

b)

Manage allocation and deallocation of memory

c)

Render graphics

d)

Execute network protocols

26.

Which of the following represents the actual memory locations in RAM?

a)

Logical address space

b)

Virtual address space

27.

Which memory segment is reserved for the operating system?

a)

High memory

b)

Low memory

c)

Cache memory

d)

Stack

28.

Which hardware component maps logical addresses to physical addresses?

a)

CPU

b)

MMU (Memory Management Unit)

c)

Disk controller

d)

Linker

29.

Dynamic loading is more memory-efficient than static loading because:

a)

The program is always loaded at a fixed address

b)

Program routines are loaded only when needed

c)

It eliminates paging

d)

All processes share the same memory block

30.

Static linking differs from dynamic linking in that:

a)

It requires a stub at runtime

b)

It combines all required modules into a single executable

c)

It avoids using memory

d)

It loads modules only when called

31.

Which of the following is true about swapping?

a)

Swapping permanently deletes processes from memory

b)

It temporarily moves processes between main memory and secondary storage

c)

It prevents all types of fragmentation

d)

It only works with contiguous memory allocation

32.

If a process requires 150 KB but the first free memory block is 200 KB, which fragmentation occurs?

a)

External fragmentation

b)

Internal fragmentation

c)

Paging fragmentation

d)

Segmentation fault

33.

In contiguous memory allocation, if memory is divided into fixed partitions and a process cannot fit any partition despite enough total free memory, the problem is:

a)

Internal fragmentation

b)

External fragmentation

c)

Paging

d)

Segmentation

34.

Which placement algorithm allocates the first free partition large enough to accommodate a process?

a)

Best Fit

b)

First Fit

c)

Worst Fit

d)

Next Fit

35.

A user program references logical address 500, and the base register contains 1000. The physical address used in memory is:

a)

500

b)

1000

c)

1500

d)

2000

36.

Static and dynamic loading are two methods of loading programs. Which loading method is more suitable for large programs?

a)

Static loading

b)

Dynamic loading

c)

Both are equally suitable

d)

Neither is suitable

37.

Given the following memory allocation status, which free block will First Fit choose for a process of 120 KB?

a)

0k

b)

100k

c)

250k

d)

450k

38.

Why does dynamic linking improve memory utilization compared to static linking?

a)

Because it preloads all library routines

b)

Because it only loads library routines when they are actually used

c)

Because it avoids using relocation registers

d)

Because it fixes external fragmentation

39.

You are designing a system that frequently runs large programs with multiple library calls. Which memory management technique would you prioritize?

a)

Static linking and static loading

b)

Dynamic linking and dynamic loading

c)

Single-partition contiguous allocation

d)

Worst-fit allocation only

40.

If a system suffers from external fragmentation despite using contiguous memory allocation, the best approach to improve memory utilization is:

a)

Increase physical RAM only

b)

Use compaction or dynamic relocation

c)

Avoid dynamic linking

d)

Only use fixed partitions

41.

What component of the CPU executes arithmetic and logical operations?

a)

Control Unit

b)

Arithmetic Logic Unit

c)

Program Counter

d)

Memory Address Register

42.

Which register temporarily holds data being transferred to or from memory?

a)

Accumulator

b)

Memory Data Register

c)

Instruction Register

d)

Stack Pointer

43.

Which bus carries the address of data between memory and CPU?

a)

Data Bus

b)

Control Bus

c)

Address Bus

d)

System Bus

44.

What is the main function of the Control Unit in a CPU?

a)

Perform logical operations

b)

Direct the execution of instructions

c)

Store data permanently

d)

Manage cache memory

45.

Which type of architecture stores instructions and data in the same memory?

a)

Harvard

b)

Von Neumann B

c)

RISC

d)

CISC

46.

In Programmed I/O, how does the CPU interact with the I/O device?

a)

CPU executes other instructions while I/O works

b)

CPU waits for the device to complete data transfer

c)

I/O device directly transfers data to memory

d)

CPU and I/O share the bus alternately

47.

Which I/O technique allows high-speed data transfer without CPU intervention?

a)

Programmed I/O

b)

Interrupt-driven I/O

c)

Direct Memory Access

d)

Cycle stealing

48.

In interrupt handling, what is a disadvantage of daisy chaining?

a)

Cannot handle multiple interrupts

b)

Slower priority handling for devices farther from CPU

c)

Requires extra hardware for each device

d)

Devices are serviced in parallel

49.

Which type of DMA transfer takes control of the bus for the entire block of data?

a)

Cycle stealing

b)

Burst mode

c)

Programmed I/O

d)

Interrupt-driven I/O

50.

What is the role of the Program Counter (PC)?

a)

Store intermediate results

b)

Hold the address of the next instruction

c)

Store memory contents temporarily

d)

Control data transfer between CPU and I/O

51.

Which register stores the currently fetched instruction to be decoded?

a)

Instruction Register A

b)

Memory Data Register

c)

Stack Pointer

d)

Accumulator

52.

Which type of hazard in pipelining occurs due to resource conflicts?

a)

Data hazard

b)

Control hazard

c)

Structural hazard

d)

Instruction hazard

53.

Which type of hazard occurs when a branch instruction causes uncertainty in the pipeline?

a)

Structural hazard

b)

Data hazard

c)

Control hazard C

d)

Execution hazard

54.

In a pipelined processor, which technique reduces stalls caused by control hazards?

a)

Branch prediction

b)

Instruction pipelining

c)

Cache prefetching

d)

Register renaming

55.

Which I/O interface method uses a flag to notify the CPU that data is ready?

a)

Programmed I/O

b)

Interrupt-driven I/O

c)

DMA

d)

Cycle stealing

56.

Why is DMA preferred for high-speed I/O devices?

a)

CPU manages all transfers directly

b)

It reduces CPU involvement and speeds up data transfer

c)

Transfers data one byte at a time only

d)

It requires the CPU to wait for completion

57.

A word in computer organization refers to:

a)

The smallest unit of storage

b)

A fixed-sized group of digits handled as a unit by the processor

c)

A single bit

d)

A group of four bits

58.

How many bits are in a byte?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

16

d)

32

59.

Which number system is based on powers of 10?

a)

Binary

b)

Octal

c)

Decimal

d)

Hexadecimal

60.

Convert the binary number 101.01 to decimal:

a)

5.25

b)

5.5

c)

6.25

d)

6.5

61.

Which is the correct decimal equivalent of binary 1011?

a)

9

b)

10

c)

11

d)

12

62.

Which base is used in octal numbers?

a)

2

b)

8

c)

10

d)

16

63.

Convert decimal 175 to octal:

a)

257

b)

275

c)

527

d)

572

64.

Convert decimal fraction 0.625 to binary:

a)

0.101

b)

0.110

65.

How many bits represent one hexadecimal digit?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

8

66.

Convert hexadecimal 3A9F to decimal:

a)

14999

b)

149991

c)

159991

d)

15999

67.

Which code is Binary Coded Decimal (BCD)?

a)

110101

b)

0011 0010 1001

c)

11100011

d)

10101010

68.

Why is Gray code useful?

a)

To represent decimal digits

b)

To reduce errors in communication

c)

For binary arithmetic operations

d)

To represent ASCII characters

69.

Which ASCII code represents uppercase 'A'?

a)

41 (hex)

b)

61 (hex)

c)

42 (hex)

d)

62 (hex)

70.

Convert binary 101011110110011 to octal:

a)

53663

b)

53763

c)

35663

d)

56363

71.

Convert the same binary 101011110110011 to hexadecimal:

a)

57B3

b)

57C3

c)

5AB3

d)

5AC3

72.

Why might computers use BCD instead of pure binary?

a)

To save memory

b)

To simplify decimal display for humans

c)

To speed up binary calculations

d)

To avoid Gray code errors