Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Module 7

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In a chart note “pt arrived DOA”; what does DOA indicate?

a)

Diagnosis on Admission

b)

Dead on Arrival

c)

Discharged on Advice

d)

Date of Admission

2.

Which abbreviation refers specifically to imaging modality using magnetic fields?

a)

CT

b)

PET

c)

MRI

d)

US

3.

If a chart records “ABG shows low PaO2,” ABG stands for:

a)

Absolute Blood Glucose

b)

Arterial Blood Gas

c)

Albumin-Bilirubin Gradient

d)

Ambulatory Blood Glucose

4.

NICU is the correct abbreviation for:

a)

Neurology Intensive Care Unit

b)

Neonatal Intensive Care Unit

c)

Nursing Inpatient Care Unit

d)

National Institute of Cardiac Unit

5.

Which abbreviation denotes the blood test measuring liver transaminase SGPT?

a)

Serum Gamma-Glutamyl Transpeptidase

b)

Serum Glutamic-Pyruvic Transaminase

c)

Serum Creatinine Phosphate Test

d)

Serum Glucose Post Test

6.

A patient’s file notes “Hx: HTN, DM, CAD.” What does CAD mean?

a)

Chronic Airway Disease

b)

Coronary Artery Disease

c)

Cell Adhesion Deficiency

d)

Corrected Anion Deficit

7.

In ECG reporting, “PVC” indicates:

a)

Partial Ventricular Conduction

b)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

c)

Pulmonary Vascular Collapse

8.

When an order reads “IV TPN,” TPN refers to:

a)

Total Parenteral Nutrition

b)

Transpulmonary Nitrogen

c)

Tonic Peripheral Nutrition

d)

Thrombotic Platelet Number

9.

“NG” tube placement is recorded. NG stands for:

a)

Nasogastric

b)

NeoGastrostomy

c)

Non-Granular

d)

Nutrient Graft

10.

Which abbreviation is used for the chest X-ray view “PA”?

a)

Posterior-Anterior

b)

Pulmonary Artery

c)

Pressure-Adjusted

d)

Pre-Anesthetic

11.

If a lab report lists “CRP elevated,” CRP is:

a)

Creatine Reductase Product

b)

C-reactive Protein

c)

Cardiac Reperfusion Pressure

d)

Calcium Reaction Potential

12.

A surgical note lists “TAH” as performed. TAH stands for:

a)

Total Abdominal Hysterectomy

b)

Trans-arterial Hemostasis

c)

Thoracic Aortic Heparinization

d)

Tracheal Airway Heuristic

13.

Which abbreviation denotes the cell-count test commonly abbreviated “CBC”?

a)

Creatinine Blood Count

b)

Complete Blood Count

c)

Cardiac Biomarker Chart

d)

Cerebral Blood Calculation

14.

“RR” in a vital sign column usually denotes:

a)

Respiratory Rate

b)

Renal Ratio

c)

Right Rales

d)

Repeat Reading

15.

“PRBC” transfusion stands for packed:

a)

Platelet-rich blood cells

b)

Plasma-rich blood components

c)

Packed Red Blood Cells

d)

Partial RBC concentrate

16.

In microbiology, “UA” commonly abbreviates:

a)

Uric Acid test only

b)

Urine Analysis / Urinalysis

c)

Upper Airway assessment

d)

Ulnar Artery check

17.

A postoperative order reads “O2 via NC at 2 L/min.” NC denotes:

a)

Nasal Cannula

b)

Nasogastric Catheter

c)

Non-rebreather Cannister

d)

Nerve Conduction

18.

“BUN” is a lab abbreviation for:

a)

Blood Urea Nitrogen

b)

Basal Urea Number

c)

Blood Uric Nitrite

d)

Basic Urine Nitrate

19.

The abbreviation “ECG” versus “ECHO”: ECG records electrical activity; ECHO is:

a)

Electrical cardiac output

b)

Echocardiogram (ultrasound of heart)

c)

Electrochemical gradient

d)

Endocardial coagulation test

20.

“FBS” in lab panels stands for:

a)

Fasting Blood Sugar

b)

Fresh Blood Sample

c)

Fluid Balance Score

21.

If a physician writes “pt to ICU from PACU,” PACU stands for:

a)

Pre-anesthesia Care Unit

b)

Post-Anesthesia Care Unit

c)

Pulmonary Airway Care Unit

d)

Primary Acute Cardiac Unit

22.

Which abbreviation denotes a diagnostic ECG lead recording device used for 24 hours?

a)

ECHO

b)

Holter monitor (Holter)

c)

PET

d)

CT

23.

“PR” is used in prescriptions to indicate:

a)

Per rectum (PR)

b)

Post-renal

c)

Partial refill

d)

Pulse rate

24.

“PTT” measured in coagulation testing stands for:

a)

Partial Thromboplastin Time

b)

Prothrombin Thrombotic Test

c)

Peripheral Time Test

d)

Platelet Thinning Test

25.

“ICU” vs “SICU”: SICU specifically refers to:

a)

Surgical Intensive Care Unit

b)

Special Infectious Care Unit

c)

Secondary Intensive Care Unit

d)

Sundry Intensive Care Unit

26.

“CPK” is often ordered to evaluate:

a)

Cerebral perfusion kinetics

b)

Creatine Phosphokinase (muscle injury marker)

c)

Cardio pressure kurtosis

d)

Capillary perfusion kinetics

27.

The abbreviation “PT” in many charts means:

a)

Physical Therapy

b)

Prothrombin Time

c)

Post-Transfusion

d)

Pulmonary Test

28.

“ASD” is NOT in the abbreviation PDF; choose the best interpretation from common medical usage:

a)

Aortic Stenosis Disease

b)

Atrial Septal Defect

c)

Acute Stroke Diagnosis

d)

Antibody Specific Dilution

29.

On a surgical list “ET” tube is mentioned; ET stands for:

a)

External Traction

b)

Endotracheal

c)

Epigastric Tape

d)

Endovascular Transducer

30.

“Hb” or “Hgb” stands for:

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Hemobility gradient

c)

Heartbeats per gram

d)

Hepatic bilirubin

31.

In neonatal notes “UAC” is recorded — UAC stands for:

a)

Umbilical Artery Catheter

b)

Upper Airway Clearance

c)

Urine Analysis Collection

d)

Unilateral Appendicitis Check

32.

“WBC” differential is requested; WBC signifies:

a)

Whole Blood Chemistry

b)

White Blood Cell (count)

c)

Whole Body Clearance

d)

Water Balance Coefficient

33.

When a report references “PTSD” it means:

a)

Prolonged Thrombotic Syndrome Disorder

b)

Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder

c)

Peripheral Temperature Sensing Device

d)

Post Transfusion Serum Delay

34.

“KUB” x-ray is ordered — what does KUB evaluate?

a)

Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder

b)

Key Urgent Bones

c)

Kidney upper bronchus

d)

Keratinized uterine bed

35.

“NGT” placement confirmation is often via CXR; NGT stands for:

a)

Nasogastric Tube

b)

Naso-Gingival Transplant

c)

Non-Graphic Test

d)

Nasal Graft Technique

36.

The abbreviation “PRBC” would be cross-checked for which blood component?

a)

Platelet Rich Buffy Cells

b)

Packed Red Blood Cells

c)

Plasma Reduced Buffy Cells

d)

Partial RBC count

37.

If a clinician writes “UA: +++ albumin,” UA refers to:

a)

Urine Analysis (Urinalysis)

b)

Upper Airway assessment

c)

Uric Acid test only

d)

Ultrasound abdomen

38.

“HgbA1c” appears in diabetic workups — HgbA1c measures:

a)

Hemoglobin variant associated with iron deficiency

b)

Glycated hemoglobin reflecting average glucose control

c)

Hepatic bilirubin index

d)

Heart beating average over 1 cycle

39.

“MSDU” in hospital services is the:

a)

Medical Surgical Day Unit

b)

Mobile Surgery Duty Unit

c)

Minimum Service Diagnostic Unit

40.

“TLC” used in pulmonary testing stands for:

a)

Total Lung Capacity

b)

Thrombus Lytic Coefficient

c)

Total Leukocyte Count

d)

Temperature Level Check

41.

“DPT” in immunization stands for vaccine for:

a)

Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus

b)

Diarrhea, Polio, Typhoid

c)

Doxorubicin, Paclitaxel, Tamoxifen

d)

Diabetes Prevention Therapy

42.

“ARF” commonly abbreviates which renal condition?

a)

Acute Renal Failure

b)

Aortic Regurgitation Flow

c)

Arterial Resistive Factor

d)

Acute Respiratory Fungus

43.

“Sx” in clinical notes most commonly refers to:

a)

Suture exchange

b)

Symptoms

c)

Secondary x-ray

d)

Sodium xanthate test

44.

“MVA” frequently appears in trauma documentation; MVA stands for:

a)

Mitral Valve Assessment

b)

Motor Vehicle Accident

c)

Mesenteric Vascular Aneurysm

d)

Medical Ventilation Assistance

45.

“NABH” as an institutional tag denotes:

a)

National Accreditation Board for Hospitals & Healthcare Providers

b)

National Association of Blood Hospitals

c)

Nursing Accreditation Bureau of Health

d)

National Ambulance Board and Health

46.

“SBS” under GI history indicates:

a)

Short Bowel Syndrome

b)

Superior Biliary Stenosis

c)

Small Bile Secretion

d)

Scattered Bowel Sounds

47.

In emergency abbreviations “AAA” when used in vascular context denotes:

a)

Acute Arthritis Assessment

b)

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

c)

Antiarrhythmic Agent Activity

d)

Anterior Atrial Access

48.

“CPK” spike with chest pain usually suggests:

a)

Liver injury

b)

Myocardial or muscle injury (creatine phosphokinase elevation)

c)

Low platelet count

d)

Kidney function improvement

49.

“ENT” department abbreviation stands for:

a)

Emergency Nursing Team

b)

Ears, Nose and Throat

c)

Enteric Nutrition Therapy

d)

External Nerve Testing

50.

“TB” as entry on a public health ledger most often abbreviates:

a)

Thromboxane B level

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Tertiary Bile test

d)

Transbronchial biopsy

51.

Which documentation element is most critical to trace a recalled drug batch in hospital stock?

a)

Supplier’s bank details

b)

Batch number and expiry date recorded in ward and pharmacy records

c)

Consumer feedback forms

d)

Marketing brochure

52.

If a ward receives a drug with suspected contamination, the immediate correct sequence is:

a)

Use it partially → inform supplier → no record

b)

Quarantine the batch → inform pharmacist → document and return on credit

53.

Which inventory policy reduces stockouts for rare but life-saving drugs while minimizing expiry losses?

a)

Zero stock policy

b)

Safety stock with longer shelf-life monitoring and vendor-managed replenishment

c)

Overstock everything monthly

d)

First come, first served purchasing

54.

Which control most effectively reduces dispensing errors from illegible prescriptions?

a)

Hiring more attendants

b)

Implement electronic prescribing with pharmacist verification

c)

Increasing counter discounts

d)

Accepting verbal orders only

55.

A pharmacy discovers repeated minor dispensing mistakes by one staff member. Best administrative action is:

a)

Immediate dismissal without investigation

b)

Root-cause analysis, retraining, and monitored performance improvement plan

c)

Ignore and hope it stops

d)

Replace the billing software

56.

When fixing reorder quantity using ABC analysis, which class requires most rigorous control?

a)

Class C (low value, many items)

b)

Class A (high value, few items)

c)

Class B only when suppliers demand

d)

None — all equal

57.

A drug labelled for 2–8°C is mistakenly stored at 12°C for 48 hours. The pharmacist should:

a)

Continue use; temperature deviations are minor.

b)

Quarantine affected stock, consult manufacturer stability data, and document decision.

c)

Return to shelf after shaking.

d)

Mix with other batches to dilute risk.

58.

Which audit metric best identifies pharmacy billing accuracy?

a)

Number of prescriptions printed per day

b)

Percentage of bills matching prescriptions on retrospective audit

59.

A hospital wants to discourage stockpiling of antibiotics in wards. Most effective measure:

a)

Allow wards unlimited direct purchases

b)

Centralized issue from substores with strict requisition and return policy

c)

Ban antibiotics entirely

d)

Increase retail price in hospital shop

60.

Which is the single best evidence that a supplier is an authorized dealer for a drug company?

a)

A casual phone call from supplier

b)

Official authorization certificate or dealer code from the manufacturer

c)

Attractive discount offers

d)

Long paragraph on supplier letterhead without verification

61.

When selecting one of two similar brand formulations, the pharmacist’s most important comparison is:

a)

Colour of packaging

b)

Clinical bioequivalence and excipient differences relevant to patient groups

c)

Popularity on social media

d)

Supplier’s office location

62.

What is the main advantage of keeping two alternate brands for a generic drug in formulary?

a)

Make shelves colorful

b)

Reduce procurement risk and ensure supply continuity during shortage

c)

Confuse prescribers

d)

Increase storage needs only

63.

Which pharmacy practice most reduces financial loss from returned, unopened high-cost medicines?

a)

Refuse all returns routinely

b)

Accept unopened returns, credit ward/patient, and re-enter into inventory with QC checks

c)

Discard without documentation

d)

Donate immediately to charitable outlets

64.

Q14. The equipment performance metric that a biomedical department should report to hospital management to demonstrate reliability is:

a)

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

b)

Acquisition Cost

c)

Energy Consumption

d)

User Satisfaction Score

65.

A newly procured MRI arrives with partial documentation. The biomedical engineer should:

a)

Install and use immediately.

b)

Hold installation until complete technical manual, schematic drawings, and service agreements are obtained.

c)

Send to scrap.

d)

Use only for research.

66.

Which calibration schedule best balances patient safety and resource constraints for critical monitors?

a)

Never calibrate — saves money

b)

Regular manufacturer-recommended calibration with risk-based prioritization for critical devices

c)

Calibrate only after failure

d)

Monthly for all devices irrespective of use

67.

During a major drug recall from a manufacturer, the pharmacy’s immediate priority is to:

a)

Maximize sales of remaining stock.

b)

Rapidly identify and quarantine all affected batches across wards and substores.

c)

Replace labels only.

d)

Ignore unless complaints arise.

68.

Which of these is the best way to detect diversion/pilferage in pharmacy counters?

a)

Rely on staff honesty only

b)

Regular transaction audits cross-referenced to patient charts and inventory variances

c)

Remove CCTV from pharmacy

d)

Count only once a year

69.

For an anesthesia machine with integrated ventilator, the biomedical team must prioritize:

a)

Cosmetic cleaning only

b)

Daily functional checklists and preventive maintenance per manufacturer before first use each day

c)

Only weekly checks

70.

Which indicator best signals potential stock obsolescence in pharmacy?

a)

High turnover of fast-moving drugs

b)

Growing percentage of slow/zero movement SKUs beyond their shelf-life horizon

c)

Increased footfall in OPD

d)

New brands added monthly

71.

A ward nurse returns a sealed IV drug vial with intact label but batch unknown. Most correct action:

a)

Re-dispense immediately.

b)

Accept return only after verifying batch and expiry with pharmacy and recording appropriately.

c)

Destroy it immediately.

d)

Sell to other ward.

72.

Which procurement strategy reduces risk of counterfeit drugs entering hospital supply chain?

a)

Split orders across unverified local vendors

b)

Single-source purchases without verification

c)

Use authenticated supplier network with random batch testing and supplier audits

d)

Buy only based on lowest price

73.

When assessing a biomedical equipment tender, which cost element is most often overlooked but critical?

a)

Shipping toys for staff

b)

Lifecycle costs including spares, AMC, consumables and training

c)

Colour of packaging

d)

Free samples only

74.

Which action most reduces medication errors from look-alike packaging?

a)

Place them adjacent for convenience

b)

Segregate and label prominently, use barcode scanning for dispensing verification

c)

Handwrite brand names differently each day

d)

Store behind locked cabinets inaccessible to staff

75.

A biomedical equipment shows intermittent alarms only during peak load. A sound diagnostic step is to:

a)

Monitor the equipment during peak load to observe the issue.

b)

Replace the equipment immediately.

c)

Ignore the alarms as they are intermittent.

d)

Reduce the load permanently to avoid alarms.

76.

Which of the following is the best way to prevent nuisance alarms in a hospital setting?

a)

Ignore alarms outside office hours

b)

Perform load testing, log alarm timestamps, check power quality and environmental parameters (temp/humidity) during peaks

c)

Replace whole system immediately without analysis

d)

Shift device to a different room randomly

77.

Which pharmacy ledger best prevents double billing and ensures accountability?

a)

Handwritten random notes

b)

Integrated electronic transaction logs linking prescription, bill, and issued stock lot numbers

c)

Separate paper for each cashier with no reconciliation

d)

Daily verbal summaries only

78.

During an equipment condemnation decision, the biomedical engineer should prioritize:

a)

Equipment age only

b)

Clinical safety risk, repair cost vs replacement cost, availability of spares and downtime history

c)

Color and brand preference

d)

Staff sentiment only

79.

Which pharmacy KPI most directly correlates with patient satisfaction?

a)

Variety of brands stocked

b)

Average patient wait time for medicine collection and error-free dispense rate

c)

Number of stockrooms

d)

Quantity of promotional materials available

80.

Which device is most appropriate to monitor oxygen saturation during a stress test?

a)

Defibrillator only

b)

Portable pulse oximeter integrated with exercise ECG system

c)

Static X-ray machine

d)

Blood cell counter

81.

What’s the safest policy for handling returned outer cartons where inner strips are intact but outer carton is missing?

a)

Accept without checks

b)

Verify strip integrity, labels, expiry and batch; quarantine if any discrepancy before re-issuing

c)

Immediately restock to shelves without logging

d)

Destroy automatically regardless of condition

82.

Which of the following best reduces equipment downtime caused by missing spares?

a)

Order spares after failure only

b)

Critical spares stocking policy based on failure modes and lead time analysis

c)

Keep no spares to save storage space

d)

Rely on external suppliers to ship overnight always

83.

In a hospital formulary review, pharmacoeconomic evaluation primarily assesses:

a)

Package design aesthetics

b)

Cost-effectiveness relative to clinical benefit and budget impact

c)

Social media marketing reach

d)

Supplier loyalty discounts only

84.

Which preventive maintenance action is most important for incubators used in pathology?

a)

Painting outer body every month

b)

Temperature uniformity checks and alarm verification at set intervals

c)

Only cleaning external surfaces weekly

d)

No maintenance unless failure occurs

85.

For barcode-assisted dispensing, what is the primary reason for scanning both patient ID and medicine barcode?

a)

Increase time spent at counter

b)

Ensure right patient receives right drug and reduce wrong-patient errors

c)

Create extra paperwork for auditors

d)

For staff amusement only

86.

Which regulatory step is necessary before introducing a new high-risk device (e.g., ventilator) into clinical service?

a)

Immediate clinical use without testing

b)

Acceptance testing, user training, availability of spares and signed operational procedures

c)

Only a memo to the CEO

d)

Advertising it to patients first

87.

Which of the following pharmacy practices most minimizes antibiotic resistance concerns institutionally?

a)

Over-dispense broad-spectrum agents routinely

b)

Implement antimicrobial stewardship with restricted lists and pre-authorization for certain antibiotics

88.

A biomedical engineer receives repeated breakdown reports for a particular model—best strategic response is:

a)

Patch individual units only

b)

Analyze common failure mode, contact manufacturer for root-cause, plan retrofit or replacement across fleet if needed

c)

Replace with same model mindlessly

d)

Stop recording failures to reduce paperwork

89.

Which stock rotation method most reduces expiry losses?

a)

Last-In First-Out (LIFO) only

b)

First-Expiry First-Out (FEFO) with expiry alerts in inventory system

c)

Random rotation based on convenience

d)

Use expired goods first

90.

For hospital purchases, technical sanction differs from financial sanction because it:

a)

Is done by anyone on staff

b)

Confirms clinical and technical suitability before funds are released

c)

Only checks price

d)

Is optional

91.

Which of the following is the most reliable method to confirm an IV fluid bottle is not contaminated before use?

a)

Smell test only

b)

Visual inspection, check seal/integrity, expiry, and batch traceability; if suspected, return to pharmacy for QC

c)

Shake vigorously and administer

d)

Use only if color seems fine

92.

A pharmacy detects a sudden spike in returns of a particular analgesic. Best immediate investigation focus:

a)

Supplier’s PR campaign

b)

Check for adverse reaction reports, batch defects, and prescribing pattern changes

c)

Fire the cashier handling those bills

d)

Stop all analgesic use permanently

93.

Which is the best practice for antibiotic stewardship?

a)

Leave antibiotic choice entirely to patient preference

b)

Always use oldest stock first without clinical oversight

c)

Implement antimicrobial stewardship with restricted lists and pre-authorization for certain antibiotics

94.

Which of the following best limits obsolescence of diagnostic equipment?

a)

Buy the cheapest model always

b)

Buy modular, serviceable equipment with available spares and vendor support for upgrades

c)

Purchase custom one-off devices with proprietary parts only

d)

Avoid service contracts always

95.

Which item must appear on every dispensed medicine label to enable traceability?

a)

Pharmacist’s nickname

b)

Lot/batch number and expiry date along with patient name and dispensing date

c)

Manufacturer’s slogan only

d)

Barcode only without human-readable text

96.

When a ward requests emergency procurement of a critical drug outside formulary, the pharmacist should:

a)

Refuse always

b)

Facilitate emergency procurement with provisional documentation and submit for committee ratification afterward

c)

Buy randomly without records

d)

Ask nurse to find it from outside market without hospital records

97.

Which environmental control is most critical for CT and MRI suites?

a)

Indoor plants only

b)

Stable power supply, temperature, humidity control and stray magnetic field management (for MRI)

c)

Open windows for ventilation always

d)

No air conditioning to save cost

98.

Which pharmacy control minimizes financial leaks from expired stock?

a)

No expiry checks ever

b)

Active expiry monitoring with automated alerts and rotation to near-expiry clinics for prioritized use or returns

c)

Keep expired stock hidden until audit

d)

Donate expired drugs without checks

99.

Which biomedical metric helps prioritize preventive maintenance schedules by criticality?

a)

Color of the device panel

b)

Clinical Criticality Index combined with usage hours and failure history

100.

Which of the following is the best method to assess the criticality of a medical device?

a)

Number of screws on the casing

b)

Clinical Criticality Index combined with usage hours and failure history

c)

Manufacturer’s marketing rating only

d)

Manufacturer’s marketing rating only