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Non-Infectious Diseases Part 1

Total questions: 29

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If a patient is diagnosed with an immune-mediated disorder, under which category would this condition be classified?

a)

I

b)

M

c)

A

d)

T

2.

A health disorder is found to be nutritional in origin. Which other type of disorder shares the same initial letter in its categorization?

a)

Neoplastic

b)

Metabolic

c)

Allergies

d)

Trauma

3.

Strategically analyze: If a disorder is both metabolic and miscellaneous, which letter would you use to categorize it, and why might this dual categorization be important in clinical diagnosis?

a)

M; because both metabolic and miscellaneous disorders may require different diagnostic approaches.

b)

N; because nutritional and neoplastic disorders are often related.

c)

T; because toxic and trauma disorders are acute in nature.

d)

D; because degenerative and developmental disorders are chronic.

4.

A breeder wants to reduce the risk of hip dysplasia in large breed puppies. Which combination of strategies would be most effective based on the information provided?

a)

Restricting diets, controlling body weight, and discouraging excessive exercise between 2-7 months

b)

Feeding for maximum growth, encouraging excessive exercise, and ignoring body weight

c)

Allowing puppies to eat freely, restricting exercise, and not monitoring weight

d)

Providing high-calorie diets, encouraging running, and ignoring hereditary factors

5.

Explain how nutrition can influence the development of hip dysplasia in puppies.

a)

Feeding puppies for maximum growth can cause acetabular growth plates to close early, increasing the risk of hip dysplasia.

b)

Nutrition has no effect on hip dysplasia.

c)

Overfeeding always prevents hip dysplasia.

d)

Underfeeding causes acetabular growth plates to remain open longer, preventing hip dysplasia.

6.

Which of the following dog breeds is at risk for hip dysplasia according to the Orthopedic Foundation for Animals?

a)

Labrador Retriever

b)

Chihuahua

c)

Beagle

d)

Dachshund

7.

If a veterinarian is developing a screening program for hip dysplasia, which breeds should be prioritized based on risk?

a)

Labrador Retriever, German Shepherd, Rottweiler, Poodle, Great Dane, St. Bernard

b)

Chihuahua, Beagle, Dachshund, Pomeranian, Shih Tzu, Maltese

c)

Golden Retriever, Boxer, Bulldog, Corgi, Husky, Dalmatian

d)

Pug, Boston Terrier, Shiba Inu, Akita, Border Collie, Whippet

8.

A dog older than 4 months is showing severe lameness and difficulty climbing stairs. What condition might these clinical signs indicate?

a)

Hip dysplasia

b)

Heartworm disease

c)

Diabetes

d)

Parvovirus infection

9.

Which of the following heart conditions is associated with abnormal configurations of major blood vessels?

a)

Pulmonic stenosis

b)

Collie eye anomaly

c)

Glaucoma

d)

Cataract

10.

A veterinarian observes a narrowing of the pulmonary artery above the valve in a dog’s heart. Which type of pulmonic stenosis does this indicate?

a)

Supravalvular stenosis

b)

Valvular stenosis

c)

Subvalvular stenosis

d)

Mitral stenosis

11.

Strategically, why does pulmonic stenosis make it harder for the heart to pump blood?

a)

Because the valve is narrowed, creating an obstruction that increases resistance to blood flow.

b)

Because the left ventricle is weakened, reducing blood pressure.

c)

Because the atria are enlarged, causing backflow.

d)

Because the pulmonary veins are blocked, preventing blood entry.

12.

Strategically, how could a pet owner reduce the risk of allergy symptoms in their dog based on the triggers shown in the material?

a)

By keeping the dog indoors during high pollen seasons

b)

By feeding the dog more treats

c)

By bathing the dog less frequently

d)

By ignoring environmental changes

13.

Which of the following best describes what happens in the body during Diabetes Mellitus?

a)

The body cannot transport enough glucose into cells, leading to metabolic starvation and breakdown of fat and muscle tissue.

b)

The body produces excess glucose, causing cells to function abnormally and store more fat.

c)

The body transports too much glucose into cells, resulting in energy overload and muscle growth.

d)

The body breaks down only carbohydrates, ignoring fat and muscle tissue.

14.

Which of the following best describes the difference between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes in dogs and cats?

a)

Type 1 diabetes is caused by the pancreas producing too much insulin, while Type 2 is caused by the pancreas producing no insulin.

b)

Type 1 diabetes occurs when immune cells destroy beta cells in the pancreas, preventing insulin production; Type 2 diabetes occurs when the body does not detect or respond to insulin appropriately.

c)

Type 1 diabetes is only found in cats, while Type 2 is only found in dogs.

d)

Type 1 diabetes results in more glucose moving into cells, while Type 2 results in less glucose in the blood.

15.

Explain how the clinical signs of Diabetes Mellitus differ between dogs and cats, and discuss the implications for diagnosis and management.

a)

Dogs show rear-limb weakness, while cats develop cataracts; both require the same treatment.

b)

Dogs develop diabetic cataracts leading to blindness, while cats exhibit rear-limb weakness with hocks touching the ground; these differences affect diagnostic focus and management strategies.

c)

Both dogs and cats only show increased appetite and thirst, so diagnosis is identical.

d)

Cats and dogs do not show any clinical signs, making diagnosis difficult.

16.

Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical sign of hyperthyroidism in cats?

a)

Polyphagia

b)

Weight gain

c)

Polyuria

d)

Unkempt haircoat

17.

Given the clinical signs of polyphagia, weight loss, polyuria, polydipsia, restlessness, and unkempt haircoat, what reasoning supports the diagnosis of hyperthyroidism in a middle-aged cat?

a)

These signs are unrelated and suggest a behavioral issue.

b)

The combination of increased appetite with weight loss and other metabolic symptoms points to excessive thyroid hormone production.

c)

Only weight loss is relevant; other signs are not important.

d)

These signs are more consistent with a urinary tract infection.

18.

Which hormone is responsible for regulating electrolytes such as sodium and potassium in dogs, and is inadequately produced in Addison’s Disease?

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Cortisol

c)

Insulin

d)

Thyroxine

19.

Which hormone produced by the adrenal glands is primarily responsible for regulating electrolyte balance and extracellular fluid volume?

a)

Mineralocorticoids

b)

Glucocorticoids

c)

Insulin

d)

Thyroxine

20.

Which of the following dog breeds is NOT listed as being predisposed to Addison's Disease?

a)

Labrador Retrievers

b)

Standard Poodles

c)

Great Danes

d)

Bearded Collies

21.

Which of the following best describes the primary cause of Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s Disease)?

a)

Deficiency of corticosteroids

b)

Excessive amounts of corticosteroids

c)

Lack of ACTH production

d)

Insufficient adrenal gland activity

22.

Compare and contrast the mechanisms by which pituitary dependent and adrenal dependent Cushing’s Disease result in excessive cortisol production. Use evidence from the types described.

a)

Both types involve tumors in the adrenal glands producing excessive cortisol.

b)

Pituitary dependent involves a pituitary tumor producing ACTH, while adrenal dependent involves an adrenal tumor producing cortisol.

c)

Both types are caused by treating with high doses of steroids.

d)

Pituitary dependent involves kidney dysfunction, while adrenal dependent involves brain dysfunction.

23.

Which of the following is a common clinical sign of chronic kidney failure in older dogs and cats?

a)

Polyuria

b)

Vomiting

c)

Seizures

d)

Skin rash

24.

Evaluate why obesity might increase the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes.

a)

Obesity improves metabolism and heart function.

b)

Excess weight strains the body, leading to metabolic and heart issues.

c)

Obesity has no effect on cardiovascular or metabolic health.

d)

Obesity only affects bone health.

25.

Which clinical sign is commonly associated with Feline Lower Urinary Tract Disease?

a)

Vomiting

b)

Dysuria

c)

Sneezing

d)

Diarrhea

26.

When managing CaOx stones in cats with FLUTD, which strategy should be avoided?

a)

Acidifying diets

b)

Surgery

c)

Increasing water consumption

d)

Decreasing stress

27.

A cat with FLUTD is found to have both struvite and CaOx stones. What is the most strategic approach to dietary management in this case?

a)

Carefully balance the diet to avoid acidifying for CaOx stones while acidifying for struvite stones

b)

Only acidify the diet regardless of stone type

c)

Avoid all dietary changes and rely solely on surgery

d)

Decrease water consumption to prevent stone formation

28.

If a cat owner wants to respect their cat’s sense of smell and other senses, which pillar should they focus on?

a)

Pillar 1

b)

Pillar 3

c)

Pillar 5

d)

Pillar 2

29.

A cat is displaying boredom and lack of stimulation. Which pillar should be enhanced to address this issue?

a)

Pillar 3: Provide opportunity for play and predatory behavior

b)

Pillar 1: Provide a safe place

c)

Pillar 2: Provide multiple and separated key environmental resources

d)

Pillar 5: Provide an environment that respects the cat’s sense of smell & other senses