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Quiz on Hypertension

Total questions: 29

Worksheet time: 15hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to JNC 7, what is the systolic blood pressure range for prehypertension?

a)

120-140 mmHg

b)

140-160 mmHg

c)

>160 mmHg

d)

80-120 mmHg

2.

Which of the following best describes isolated systolic hypertension?

a)

Increase in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure

b)

Systolic blood pressure without increase in diastolic blood pressure

c)

Decrease in systolic blood pressure only

d)

Increase in diastolic blood pressure only

3.

What is the role of decreased atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) in hypertension?

a)

It contributes to increased blood pressure.

b)

It lowers blood pressure.

c)

It has no effect on blood pressure.

d)

It increases insulin sensitivity.

4.

A 60-year-old patient with rapidly progressive hypertension and early complications is most likely suspected of having which type of hypertension?

a)

Secondary hypertension

b)

Primary hypertension

c)

White coat hypertension

d)

Gestational hypertension

5.

Conn’s syndrome is characterized by which of the following symptoms?

a)

Never severe hypertension, muscle weakness, and hypokalemia

b)

Paroxysmal hypertension

c)

Endothelial hyperplasia

d)

Isolated systolic hypertension

6.

Which of the following is a central nervous system (CNS) cause listed in the material?

a)

Polycythemia

b)

Lesions of the medulla

c)

Contraceptive pills

d)

Calcium

7.

Lesions of the medulla can impact central nervous system function by:

a)

disrupting autonomic functions such as breathing and heart rate.

b)

only affecting limb movement.

c)

improving cognitive function.

d)

having no impact on the CNS.

8.

Which of the following best defines hypertensive urgency?

a)

Rapid rise of BP > 220/120 mmHg not associated with target organ damage

b)

Rapid rise of BP > 220/120 mmHg associated with target organ damage

c)

Hypertensive emergency with development of papilloedema

d)

Similar to malignant hypertension without papilloedema

9.

A patient presents with a rapid rise in blood pressure above 220/120 mmHg and evidence of target organ damage. What is the most appropriate classification for this condition?

a)

Hypertensive emergency

b)

Hypertensive urgency

c)

Accelerated hypertension

d)

Essential hypertension

10.

How does accelerated hypertension differ from malignant hypertension?

a)

Accelerated hypertension does not have papilloedema

b)

Accelerated hypertension is associated with heart failure

c)

Malignant hypertension does not have target organ damage

d)

Malignant hypertension is not a hypertensive emergency

11.

Which term best describes the inability of cerebral blood vessels to maintain constriction during an acute rise in blood pressure?

a)

Failure of auto regulation

b)

Vasodilation syndrome

c)

Neurogenic shock

d)

Cerebral infarction

12.

Arrange the four grades of retinal changes in hypertensive retinopathy in the correct order from Grade I to Grade IV.

a)

Thickening of arterioles, kinking of veins, hemorrhage & exudates, papilloedema

b)

Kinking of veins, thickening of arterioles, papilloedema, hemorrhage & exudates

c)

Papilloedema, hemorrhage & exudates, kinking of veins, thickening of arterioles

d)

Hemorrhage & exudates, papilloedema, thickening of arterioles, kinking of veins

13.

Which test is primarily used to assess renal complications?

a)

Echo

b)

MRI brain

c)

Urine analysis

d)

ECG

14.

A patient presents with refractory hypertension. Which strategic approach should be taken regarding investigations?

a)

Only cardiac investigations should be performed

b)

Investigations for the cause should be considered

c)

No investigations are necessary

d)

Only urine analysis is required

15.

What is the target blood pressure (BP) for most patients according to the treatment guidelines?

a)

Lower than 140/90 mmHg

b)

Lower than 130/80 mmHg

c)

Lower than 150/100 mmHg

d)

Lower than 120/80 mmHg

16.

Which of the following is a non-pharmacological lifestyle modification recommended for the treatment of hypertension?

a)

Lose weight if overweight

b)

Increase salt intake

c)

Avoid exercise

d)

Consume more dietary fat

17.

Which combination of lifestyle modifications is most effective in controlling risk factors for hypertension?

a)

Regular exercise, reducing salt intake, and stopping smoking

b)

Increasing dietary fat, avoiding exercise, and increasing salt intake

c)

Skipping meals, increasing stress, and smoking

d)

Only taking medication without lifestyle changes

18.

Non-pharmacological lifestyle modifications can facilitate blood pressure control when used alongside antihypertensive drugs by:

a)

Enhancing the effectiveness of antihypertensive drugs by addressing underlying risk factors.

b)

Replacing the need for antihypertensive drugs entirely.

c)

Having no impact on blood pressure control.

d)

Increasing the side effects of antihypertensive drugs.

19.

Which type of diuretic is most commonly used in the treatment of hypertension?

a)

Thiazide

b)

Lasix

c)

Indapamide

d)

K sparing diuretic

20.

Which side effect is most likely to occur with sudden withdrawal of clonidine?

a)

Rebound hypertension

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Insomnia

21.

A patient taking clonidine reports feeling dizzy upon standing and experiencing a dry mouth. Which side effects of clonidine do these symptoms represent?

a)

Postural hypotension and dry mouth

b)

Tachycardia and blurred vision

c)

Nausea and vomiting

d)

Constipation and headache

22.

Which side effects are associated with α methyl dopa and can be remembered by the mnemonic "3H"?

a)

Postural hypotension, Hepatitis, Hemolysis

b)

Headache, Hypertension, Hyperglycemia

c)

Hypokalemia, Hypernatremia, Hallucinations

d)

Hirsutism, Hypercalcemia, Hypotonia

23.

A patient is prescribed Prazosin for hypertension. Which side effect should the physician warn the patient about, especially after the first dose?

a)

First dose syncope

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Renal failure

d)

Constipation

24.

Compare the mechanisms of action of α methyl dopa and Prazosin. How do their effects on the nervous system differ?

a)

α methyl dopa decreases catecholamine synthesis, while Prazosin causes vasodilatation by blocking α receptors.

b)

Both increase catecholamine synthesis.

c)

Both act as direct vasoconstrictors.

d)

α methyl dopa increases heart rate, while Prazosin decreases it.

25.

Which of the following is a non-selective β blocker?

a)

Propranolol

b)

Atenolol

c)

Metoprolol

d)

Bisoprolol

26.

Which of the following β blockers is classified as a selective β1 blocker?

a)

Propranolol

b)

Carvedilol

c)

Atenolol

d)

Labetalol

27.

Which of the following is a side effect of β blockers related to the lungs?

a)

Bronchospasm

b)

Asthma

c)

Pulmonary edema

d)

Pneumonia

28.

A patient taking β blockers develops depression and impotence. What is the most likely cause?

a)

Side effects of β blockers

b)

Drug interaction with antibiotics

c)

Vitamin deficiency

d)

Excessive exercise

29.

Decreased bradykinin inactivation leads to an increase in which of the following?

a)

Vasodilator effect

b)

Vasoconstrictor effect

c)

Sodium retention

d)

Aldosterone secretion