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Chapter 1: Introduction to Government

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What goods are available to all without direct payment?

a)

private goods

b)

public goods

c)

common goods

d)

toll goods

2.

In which form of government does a small group of elite people hold political power?

a)

direct democracy

b)

monarchy

c)

oligarchy

d)

totalitarian

3.

Which statement correctly distinguishes representative democracy from direct democracy?

a)

In representative democracy, citizens vote on laws directly; in direct democracy, elected officials make laws.

b)

In representative democracy, elected officials make laws on behalf of citizens; in direct democracy, citizens vote on laws themselves.

c)

Representative democracy does not involve elections; direct democracy does.

d)

Representative democracy requires unanimity for laws; direct democracy requires a simple majority.

4.

Which option best describes a basic function governments perform for people?

a)

Governments ensure only private markets provide services.

b)

Governments provide order and public goods, and make policy decisions.

c)

Governments eliminate all taxes and regulations.

d)

Governments primarily serve wealthy elites and ignore ordinary citizens.

5.

The elite theory of government maintains that ________.

a)

special interest groups make government policy

b)

politicians who have held office for a long time are favored by voters

c)

poor people and people of color should not be allowed to vote

d)

wealthy, politically powerful people control government, and government has no interest in meeting the needs of ordinary people

6.

According to the pluralist theory of government, ________.

a)

government does what the majority of voters want it to do

b)

government policy is formed as a result of the competition between groups with different goals and interests

c)

ordinary people acting on their own have a significant influence on government

d)

wealthy people decide what government policy will be, and politicians have no interest in pleasing anyone else

7.

Which of the following is a good example of a tradeoff?

a)

The government pleases environmental activists by preserving public lands but also pleases ranchers by allowing them to rent public lands for grazing purposes.

b)

The government pleases environmental activists by reintroducing wolves to Yellowstone National Park but angers ranchers by placing their cattle in danger.

c)

The government pleases oil companies by allowing them to drill on lands set aside for conservation but allows environmental activist groups to protest the drilling operations.

d)

Groups that represent a variety of conflicting interests are all allowed to protest outside Congress and the White House.

8.

Supporting the actions of the Democratic Party simply because one identifies oneself as a member of that party is an example of ________.

a)

partisanship

b)

ideology

c)

latent preference

d)

social capital

9.

When a person is asked a question about a political issue that the person has little interest in and has not thought much about, the person’s answer will likely reflect ________.

a)

ideology

b)

partisanship

c)

intense preferences

d)

latent preferences

10.

Which type of good is both excludable and non-rival, often provided via tolls or fees?

a)

public good

b)

common good

c)

private good

d)

toll good

11.

British colonists in North America in the late seventeenth century were greatly influenced by the political thought of _______.

a)

King James II

b)

Thomas Jefferson

c)

John Locke

d)

James Madison

12.

The agreement that citizens will consent to be governed so long as government protects their natural rights is called _______.

a)

the divine right of kings

b)

the social contract

c)

a bill of rights

d)

due process

13.

Which key tenets of American political thought were influential in the decision to declare independence from Britain?

a)

Divine right and hereditary monarchy

b)

Natural rights and social contract

c)

Mercantilism and parliamentary supremacy

d)

Feudal obligations and common law

14.

Which British actions convinced many colonists that they needed to declare their independence?

a)

Repeal of all taxes and tariffs

b)

Expansion of colonial representation in Parliament

c)

Imposition of taxes and restrictions without colonial consent

d)

Granting full self-government to colonies

15.

What important power did the national government lack under the Articles of Confederation?

a)

It could not coin money.

b)

It could not declare war.

c)

It could not impose taxes.

d)

It could not conduct foreign affairs.

16.

In what ways did Shays’ Rebellion reveal the weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation?

a)

It showed the national government could easily raise taxes.

b)

It demonstrated strong federal military power to suppress unrest.

c)

It exposed the national government’s inability to maintain order and respond effectively to economic distress.

d)

It proved the confederation had excessive executive authority.

17.

According to the Great Compromise, how would representation in Congress be apportioned?

a)

Each state would have equal representation in both the House of Representatives and the Senate.

b)

Congress would be a unicameral legislature with each state receiving equal representation.

c)

Representation in the House of Representatives would be based on each state’s population and every state would have two senators.

d)

Representation in both the House of Representatives and the Senate would be based on a state’s population.

18.

How did the delegates to the Constitutional Convention resolve their disagreement regarding slavery?

a)

It was agreed that Congress would abolish slavery in 1850.

b)

It was agreed that a state’s enslaved population would be counted for purposes of representation but not for purposes of taxation.

c)

It was agreed that a state’s enslaved population would be counted for purposes of taxation but not for purposes of representation.

d)

It was agreed that 3 out of every 5 slaves would be counted for purposes of both representation and taxation in a state. (3/5 Compromise)

19.

What does separation of powers mean?

a)

All powers are combined in the legislature.

b)

Government powers are divided among different branches to prevent concentration of authority.

c)

The federal government holds all powers, with none reserved to states.

d)

Judicial review is the only check on executive power.

20.

Why were The Federalist Papers written?

a)

To encourage states to oppose the Constitution.

b)

To encourage the American people to ratify the Constitution.

c)

To oppose the admission of slaveholding states to the federal union.

d)

To encourage people to vote for George Washington as the nation’s first president.

21.

What argument did Alexander Hamilton use to convince people that it was not dangerous to place power in the hands of one man?

a)

That man would have to pass a religious test before he could become president; thus, citizens could be sure that he was of good character.

b)

One man could respond to crises more quickly than a group of men like Congress.

c)

It was easier to control the actions of one man than the actions of a group.

d)

both B and C

22.

Why did so many people oppose ratification of the Constitution, and how was their opposition partly overcome?

a)

They feared a weak national government; opposition was overcome by adding stronger state powers.

b)

They feared a too-powerful central government; opposition was partly overcome by the promise of a bill of rights.

c)

They feared foreign influence; opposition was overcome by Washington’s election.

d)

They feared taxation; opposition was overcome by the Great Compromise.

23.

How many states must ratify an amendment before it becomes law?

a)

all

b)

three-fourths

24.

What is the Bill of Rights?

a)

first ten amendments to the Constitution that protect individual freedoms

b)

powers given to Congress in Article I of the Constitution

c)

twenty-seven amendments added to the Constitution over the years

d)

document authored by Thomas Jefferson that details the rights of the citizens

25.

What did the Fourteenth Amendment achieve?

a)

It guaranteed equal protection for all (including slaves) and due process in both federal and state cases.

b)

It created the federal court system.

c)

It limited the president to two terms.

d)

It repealed Prohibition.

26.

Which statement about federal and unitary systems is most accurate?

a)

In a federal system, power is concentrated in the states; in a unitary system, it is concentrated in the national government.

b)

In a federal system, the constitution allocates powers between states and federal government; in a unitary system, powers are lodged in the national government.

c)

Today there are more countries with federal systems than with unitary systems.

d)

The United States and Japan have federal systems, while Great Britain and Canada have unitary systems.

27.

Which statement is most accurate about the sources of revenue for local and state governments?

a)

Taxes generate well over one-half the total revenue of local and state governments.

b)

Property taxes generate the most tax revenue for both local and state governments.

c)

Between 30 and 40 percent of the revenue for local and state governments comes from grant money.

d)

Local and state governments generate an equal amount of revenue from issuing licenses and certificates.

28.

In McCulloch v. Maryland, the Supreme Court invoked which provisions of the Constitution to establish the doctrine of implied powers for Congress and affirm the supremacy of federal law over state law?

a)

Tenth Amendment and spending clause

b)

commerce clause and supremacy clause

c)

necessary and proper clause and supremacy clause

d)

taxing power and necessary and proper clause

29.

Which statement about new federalism is not true?

a)

New federalism was launched by President Nixon and continued by President Reagan.

b)

New federalism is based on the idea that decentralization of responsibility enhances administrative efficiency.

c)

United States v. Lopez is a Supreme Court ruling that advanced the logic of new federalism.

d)

President Reagan was able to promote new federalism consistently throughout his administration.

30.

In a federal system, how are powers typically allocated?

a)

All powers are held by the national government.

b)

The constitution allocates powers between the national and state governments.

c)

States delegate all powers to the national government through statutes.

d)

Local governments hold sovereign powers independent of states.

31.

Which revenue source commonly provides the largest share of tax revenue for local governments?

a)

Sales taxes

b)

Income taxes

c)

Property taxes

d)

Excise taxes

32.

Which statement best distinguishes cooperative federalism from dual federalism?

a)

Cooperative federalism features overlapping policy responsibilities shared by federal and state governments, while dual federalism emphasizes distinct, separate spheres.

b)

Cooperative federalism limits federal involvement in state policy, while dual federalism expands it.

c)

Cooperative federalism abolishes local governments, while dual federalism strengthens them.

d)

Cooperative federalism requires block grants, while dual federalism only uses categorical grants.

33.

What was a key implication of McCulloch v. Maryland for federalism?

a)

It limited the necessary and proper clause.

b)

It affirmed federal supremacy and expanded implied powers through the necessary and proper clause.

c)

It prohibited the creation of a national bank.

d)

It granted states the authority to tax federal entities.

34.

Which statement about federal grants in recent decades is most accurate?

a)

The federal government allocates the most grant money to income security.

b)

The amount of federal grant money going to states has steadily increased since the 1960s.

c)

The majority of federal grants are block grants.

d)

Block grants tend to gain more flexibility over time.

35.

Which statement about unfunded mandates is false?

a)

The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act has prevented Congress from using unfunded mandates.

b)

The Clean Air Act is a type of federal partial preemptive regulation.

c)

Title VI of the Civil Rights Act establishes crosscutting requirements.

d)

New federalism promotes the use of unfunded mandates.

36.

In federalism discussions, what does the phrase “the carrot of grants and the stick of mandates” mean?

a)

Grants incentivize state compliance, while mandates compel action even without funding.

b)

Grants are punishments for states, while mandates are rewards.

c)

Both grants and mandates are voluntary for states.

d)

Mandates increase flexibility, while grants decrease it.

37.

Which statement about immigration federalism is false?

a)

The Arizona v. United States decision struck down all Arizona’s most restrictive provisions on undocumented immigration.

b)

Since the 1990s, states have increasingly moved into the policy domain of immigration.

c)

Federal immigration laws trump state laws.

d)

States’ involvement in immigration is partly due to interest in preventing undocumented immigrants from accessing certain public services.

38.

Which statement about the evolution of same-sex marriage is false?

a)

The federal government became involved in the issue when it passed DOMA.

b)

In the 1990s and 2000s, the number of state restrictions on same-sex marriage increased.

c)

United States v. Windsor legalized same-sex marriage in the United States.

d)

More than half the states had legalized same-sex marriage by the time the Supreme Court made it legal nationwide in 2015.

39.

Which statement about venue shopping is true?

a)

MADD steered the drinking age issue from the federal government down to the states.

b)

Anti-abortion advocates have steered the abortion issue from the states up to the federal government.

c)

Both MADD and anti-abortion proponents redirected their advocacy from the states to the federal government.

d)

None of the statements are correct.

40.

What does venue shopping mean in the context of public policy?

a)

Choosing the policy arena—state or federal—where advocates believe they are most likely to achieve their goals.

b)

Shopping for federal grants across agencies.

c)

Selecting which mandates to comply with based on cost.

d)

Switching political parties to gain legislative support.

41.

Which of the following is not a benefit of federalism?

a)

Federalism promotes political participation.

b)

Federalism encourages economic equality across the country.

42.

The Bill of Rights was added to the Constitution because _______.

a)

key states refused to ratify the Constitution unless it was added to protect the rights of individuals vs the government

b)

Alexander Hamilton believed it was necessary

c)

it was part of the Articles of Confederation

d)

it was originally part of the Declaration of Independence

43.

An example of a right explicitly protected by the Constitution as drafted at the Constitutional Convention, rather than part of the Bill of Rights, is the _______.

a)

right to free speech

b)

right to keep and bear arms

c)

right to a writ of habeas corpus

d)

right not to be subjected to cruel and unusual punishment

44.

The Fourteenth Amendment was critically important for civil liberties because it _______.

a)

guaranteed freed men the right to vote

b)

outlawed slavery

c)

provided equal protection and due process for all

d)

allowed the states to continue to enact Black codes

45.

Which of the following provisions is not part of the First Amendment?

a)

the right to keep and bear arms

b)

the right to peaceably assemble

c)

the right to free speech

d)

the protection of freedom of religion

46.

The Third Amendment can be thought of as _______.

a)

reinforcing the right to keep and bear arms guaranteed by the Second Amendment

b)

ensuring the right to freedom of the press

c)

forming part of a broader conception of privacy in the home that is also protected by the Second and Fourth Amendments

d)

strengthening the right to a jury trial in criminal cases

47.

The Fourth Amendment’s requirement for a warrant _______.

a)

applies only to searches of the home

b)

applies only to the seizure of property as evidence

c)

does not protect people who rent or lease property

d)

does not apply when there is a serious risk that evidence will be destroyed before a warrant can be issued

48.

Which clause prohibits the government from establishing an official religion?

a)

free exercise clause

b)

necessary and proper clause

c)

establishment clause

d)

equal protection clause

49.

Which clause protects individuals’ right to practice their religion?

a)

establishment clause

b)

free exercise clause

c)

supremacy clause

d)

privileges and immunities clause

50.

Which of the following rights is not protected by the Sixth Amendment?

a)

the right to trial by an impartial jury

b)

the right to cross-examine witnesses in a trial

c)

the right to remain silent

d)

the right to a speedy trial

51.

The double jeopardy rule in the Bill of Rights forbids which of the following?

a)

prosecuting someone in a state court for a criminal act they had been acquitted of in federal court

b)

prosecuting someone in federal court for a criminal act they had been acquitted of in a state court

c)

suing someone for damages for an act the person was found not guilty of

d)

none of these options

52.

Civil liberties primarily protect _______.

a)

group entitlements granted by Congress

b)

freedoms from government interference

c)

economic rights related to property ownership

d)

state powers under federalism

53.

The Supreme Court has decided that the death penalty _______.

a)

is always cruel and unusual punishment

b)

is never cruel and unusual punishment

c)

may be applied only to acts of terrorism

d)

may not be applied to those who were under 18 when they committed a crime

54.

The right to privacy has been controversial for all the following reasons except _______.

a)

it is not explicitly included in the Constitution or Bill of Rights

b)

it has been interpreted to protect women’s right to have an abortion

c)

it has been used to overturn laws that have substantial public support

d)

most U.S. citizens today believe the government should be allowed to outlaw birth control

55.

Which of the following rules has the Supreme Court said is an undue burden on the right to have an abortion?

a)

Women must make more than one visit to an abortion clinic before the procedure can be performed.

b)

Minors must gain the consent of a parent or judge before seeking an abortion.

c)

Women must notify their spouses before having an abortion.

d)

Women must be informed of the health consequences of having an abortion.

56.

Explain the difference between a right listed in the Bill of Rights and a common-law right.

a)

Bill of Rights protections are constitutional and enumerated; common-law rights are judge-made and derived from legal traditions.

b)

Both are explicitly listed in the Constitution but enforced differently by Congress.

c)

Common-law rights are stronger than constitutional rights because they cannot be amended.

d)

Bill of Rights protections only apply in civil cases; common-law rights only apply in criminal cases.

57.

Which legal standard would courts use to evaluate a claim that a public university’s admissions test discriminates against African American students?

a)

rational basis test

b)

intermediate scrutiny

c)

strict scrutiny

d)

equal protection

58.

Which statement best distinguishes criminal cases from civil cases?

a)

Criminal cases involve disputes between private parties; civil cases involve offenses against the state.

b)

Criminal cases may result in incarceration; civil cases typically seek monetary damages or injunctions.

c)

Criminal cases are decided by judges only; civil cases always require juries.

d)

Criminal cases cannot use plea bargains; civil cases always use plea bargains.

59.

Which statement about plea bargains is most accurate?

a)

They are used to avoid trials by jury and often result in reduced charges or sentences.

b)

They are unconstitutional and always overturned on appeal.

c)

They only apply to civil lawsuits and settlements.

d)

They require approval from the Supreme Court before being accepted.

60.

The equal protection clause became part of the Constitution as a result of _______.

a)

affirmative action

b)

the Fourteenth Amendment

c)

intermediate scrutiny

d)

strict scrutiny

61.

Which of the following types of discrimination would be subject to the rational basis test?

a)

A law that treats men differently from women

b)

An action by a state governor that treats Asian Americans differently from other citizens

c)

A law that treats White people differently from other citizens

d)

A law that treats 10-year-olds differently from 28-year-olds

62.

Which Supreme Court decision ruled that "separate but equal" was constitutional and allowed racial segregation to take place?

a)

Brown v. Board of Education

b)

Plessy v. Ferguson

c)

Loving v. Virginia

d)

Shelley v. Kraemer

63.

What were key provisions of the Civil Rights Act of 1964? Select the best summary.

a)

It abolished slavery nationwide and guaranteed voting rights.

b)

It banned discrimination in public accommodations and employment and strengthened school desegregation.

c)

It created affirmative action programs for all federal contractors.

d)

It guaranteed equal pay for women in all occupations.

64.

At the world’s first women’s rights convention in 1848, the most contentious issue proved to be ________.

a)

the right to education for women

b)

suffrage for women

c)

access to the professions for women

d)

greater property rights for women

65.

How did NAWSA differ from the NWP?

a)

NAWSA worked to win votes for women on a state-by-state basis while the NWP wanted an amendment added to the Constitution.

b)

NAWSA attracted mostly middle-class women while NWP appealed to the working class.

c)

The NWP favored more confrontational tactics like protests and picketing while NAWSA circulated petitions and lobbied politicians.

d)

The NWP sought to deny African Americans the vote, but NAWSA wanted to enfranchise all women.

66.

The doctrine that people who do jobs requiring the same level of skill, training, or education are entitled to equal pay is known as ________.

a)

the glass ceiling

b)

substantial compensation

c)

comparable worth

d)

affirmative action

67.

The Trail of Tears is the name given to the forced removal of which tribe from Georgia to Oklahoma?

a)

Lakota

b)

Paiute

c)

Navajo

d)

Cherokee

68.

AIM was ________.

a)

a federal program that returned control of Native American education to tribal governments

b)

a radical group of Native American activists who occupied the settlement of Wounded Knee on the Pine Ridge Reservation

c)

an attempt to reduce the size of reservations

d)

a federal program to give funds to Native American tribes to help their members open small businesses that would employ tribal members

69.

Mexican American farm workers in California organized ________ to demand higher pay from their employers.

a)

the bracero program

b)

the League of United Latin American Citizens

c)

the United Farm Workers union

d)

the Mattachine Society

70.

Which of the following best describes attitudes toward Asian immigrants in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries?

a)

Asian immigrants were welcomed to the United States and swiftly became financially successful.

b)

Asian immigrants faced suspicion and hostility, leading to exclusionary policies and discrimination.

c)

Asian immigrants were primarily recruited to serve in the military and received citizenship promptly.

d)

Asian immigrants were largely unaffected by U.S. laws and integrated without barriers.

71.

Which of the following is not an agent of political socialization?

a)

a family member

b)

a religious leader

c)

a teacher

d)

a U.S. senator

72.

How are most attitudes formed?

a)

in adulthood, based on life choices

b)

in childhood, based on early childhood experiences

c)

in college, based on classes and majors

d)

after college, based on finances

73.

________ political content is given by a media source that lets the reader or viewer know upfront there is a political bias or position.

a)

Overt

b)

Covert

74.

Which type of media content hides its political bias or position from the audience?

a)

Overt

b)

Covert

75.

The Bradley effect occurs when people ________.

a)

say they will vote for a candidate based on the candidate’s name

b)

say they will vote against a candidate because of the candidate’s race

c)

say they will vote for a candidate but then vote against that candidate

d)

say they will vote in the next election but instead stay home

76.

Which of the following is not part of a scientific poll design?

a)

a leading question

b)

a random sample

c)

a representative sample

d)

a low margin of error

77.

A poll states that a candidate will receive 43 percent of the vote. There is an 8 percent margin of error. What is the best evaluation of this poll?

a)

It is a good poll and the margin of error is small.

b)

It is a good poll and the margin of error is acceptable.

c)

It is a non-representative poll and the margin of error is too high.

d)

The poll accurately predicts the candidate will receive 43 percent of the vote.

78.

Which agents of socialization typically have the strongest impact on an individual?

a)

family and school

b)

news media and social media

c)

workplace and peers after college

d)

political parties and candidates

79.

Where do personal political beliefs most often originate?

a)

from family and early-life influences

b)

from campaign advertisements

c)

from voting in adulthood

d)

from college courses

80.

Why did it take so long for an active civil rights movement to begin in the LGBTQ community?

a)

Public acceptance made activism unnecessary.

b)

Legal equality was achieved early on.

c)

Social stigma and lack of visibility delayed collective action.

d)

Strong party support launched the movement immediately.

81.

Why do pollsters interview random people throughout the country when trying to project which candidate will win a presidential election?

a)

To save money on polling operations

b)

To ensure a representative sample of the electorate

c)

To focus only on likely voters in battleground states

d)

To avoid including undecided voters

82.

How have changes in technology made polling more difficult?

a)

They have eliminated the need for sampling

b)

They have made landline-only calling less reliable and complicated contacting diverse populations

c)

They guarantee higher response rates

d)

They allow instant correction of the margin of error

83.

Why are social policies controversial?

a)

They require people to accept the authority of the government.

b)

They require government to balance the rights and liberties of different groups.

c)

They require the government to increase spending.

d)

They require a decrease in regulations and laws.

84.

Which factor affects congressional approval ratings the most?

a)

presidential actions

b)

foreign events

c)

Supreme Court actions

d)

domestic events

85.

Which institution has the highest average public approval ratings?

a)

the presidency

b)

the U.S. House of Representatives

c)

the U.S. Senate

d)

the Supreme Court

86.

Why might one branch’s approval ratings be higher than another’s?

a)

Different visibility and responsibilities lead to varied public perceptions

b)

Equal powers ensure equal approval

c)

One branch polls more frequently

d)

Approval is fixed by the Constitution

87.

When are social and economic issues more likely to cause polarization in public opinion?

a)

When media coverage is limited

b)

When issues involve competing values and interests

c)

When elections are uncontested

d)

When polling margins of error are large

88.

How do polls affect presidential elections?

a)

Polls help voters research information about each of the candidates.

b)

Polls tell voters the issues that candidates support.

c)

Polls identify the top candidates and the media interview those candidates.

d)

Polls explain which candidates should win the election.

89.

Presidential approval ratings _______ over a president’s term of office.

a)

increase

b)

decline

c)

stay relatively stable

d)

seesaw

90.

Which body of government is least susceptible to public opinion polls?

a)

the president

b)

U.S. Senate

c)

U.S. House of Representatives

d)

U.S. Supreme Court

91.

Why would House of Representative members be more likely than the president to follow public opinion?

a)

They serve longer terms than the president.

b)

They face frequent elections in smaller constituencies.

c)

They are appointed, not elected.

d)

They have less media exposure.

92.

How do the media use public opinion polls during election season?

a)

To set legal thresholds for ballot access

b)

To report horserace coverage and identify leading candidates

c)

To determine the official party platforms

d)

To replace debates with survey summaries

93.

Which of the following makes it easy for a citizen to register to vote?

a)

grandfather clause

b)

lengthy residency requirement

c)

National Voter Registration Act

d)

competency requirement

94.

Which of the following is a reason to make voter registration more difficult?

a)

increase voter turnout

b)

decrease election fraud

c)

decrease the cost of elections

d)

make the registration process faster

95.

What unusual step did Oregon take to increase voter registration?

a)

The state automatically registers all citizens over eighteen to vote.

b)

The state ended voter registration.

c)

The state sends every resident a voter registration ballot.

d)

The state allows online voter registration.

96.

What effect did the National Voter Registration Act have on voter registration?

a)

It significantly reduced registration by imposing new restrictions.

b)

It increased registration by allowing voters to register at motor vehicle departments.

c)

It eliminated all residency requirements nationwide.

d)

It required same-day registration at polling places.

97.

What challenges do college students face with regard to voter registration?

a)

They cannot register without a property deed.

b)

They often move and may not meet residency requirements or deadlines.

c)

They are legally prohibited from voting outside their birth state.

d)

They must re-register every month.

98.

If you wanted to prove the United States is suffering from low voter turnout, a calculation based on which population would yield the lowest voter turnout rate?

a)

registered voters

b)

voting-eligible population

c)

voting-age population

d)

voters who voted in the last election

99.

What characterizes those most likely to vote in the next election?

a)

over forty-five years old

b)

income under $30,000

c)

high school education or less

d)

residency in the South

100.

Why do Belgium, Turkey, and Australia have higher voter turnout rates than the United States?

a)

compulsory voting laws

b)

more elections

c)

fewer registration laws

d)

more polling locations

101.

A state might hold a primary instead of a caucus because a primary is ________.

a)

inexpensive and simple

b)

transparent and engages local voters

c)

faster and has higher turnout

d)

highly active and promotes dialog during voting

102.

Which of the following citizens is most likely to run for office?

a)

Maria Trejo, a 28-year-old part-time sonogram technician and mother of two

b)

Jeffrey Lyons, a 40-year-old lawyer and father of one

c)

Linda Tepsett, a 40-year-old full-time orthopedic surgeon

d)

Mark Forman, a 70-year-old retired steelworker

103.

Where and when do Electoral College electors vote?

a)

at their precinct, on Election Day

b)

at their state capitol, on Election Day

c)

in their state capitol, in December

d)

in Washington D.C., in December

104.

In which type of election are you most likely to see coattail effects?

a)

presidential

b)

midterm

c)

special

d)

caucuses

105.

What problems will candidates experience with frontloading?

a)

It extends the primary calendar and increases campaign costs.

b)

It shortens the primary calendar, forcing rapid fundraising and organization.

c)

It delays the nomination until the national convention.

d)

It reduces media attention early in the race.

106.

Why have fewer moderates won primaries than they used to?

a)

Parties now ban moderate candidates from filing.

b)

Closed primaries prevent independents from voting.

c)

Primary voters tend to be more ideologically extreme than general-election voters.

d)

Caucuses favor low-turnout rural areas only.

107.

Susan is frustrated about the poor economy and votes for every challenger on the ballot because she feels the president and Congress are not doing enough to help her. What type of vote did she cast?

a)

retrospective

b)

prospective

c)

pocketbook

d)

straight ticket

108.

Which factor is most likely to lead to the incumbency advantage for a candidate?

a)

candidate’s socioeconomic status

b)

gerrymandering of the candidate’s district

c)

media’s support of the candidate

d)

candidate’s political party

109.

Which of the following is not a step in the initiative process for legislation?

a)

approval of initiative petition by state or local government

b)

collection of signatures

c)

state-wide vote during a ballot election

d)

signature or veto by state governor

110.

A referendum is not purely direct democracy because the ________.

a)

voters propose something but the governor approves it

b)

voters propose and approve something but the legislature also approves it

c)

government proposes something and the voters approve it

d)

government proposes something and the legislature approves it

111.

A local station that broadcasts national network programming is called a(an) ________ station.

a)

affiliate

b)

cable

c)

digital

d)

network

112.

Cable programming is often ________.

a)

local

b)

national

c)

network

d)

sports

113.

A conglomerate is a corporation that ________.

a)

owns only one local station

b)

operates without profit motives

c)

owns many different companies, often across media industries

d)

is regulated to prevent any mergers

114.

Pocketbook voting refers to voters making choices based primarily on which factor?

a)

foreign policy concerns

b)

personal economic circumstances

c)

party identification

d)

candidate’s charisma

115.

Prospective voting occurs when voters base their decisions on which consideration?

a)

past performance of incumbents

b)

expected future policies and outcomes

c)

candidate’s physical appearance

d)

media endorsements

116.

Agenda setting by the media most directly refers to which practice?

a)

deciding election outcomes

b)

selecting which issues receive prominent coverage

c)

writing legislation for Congress

d)

funding political campaigns

117.

A media conglomerate is best described as an organization that ________.

a)

owns all television news stations in a state

b)

owns many businesses and media networks

c)

owns only radio stations

d)

owns only televisions and newspapers

118.

When acting as an agenda setter, the media ________.

a)

decides which issues deserve public attention

b)

covers presidential campaigns equally

c)

reports on corruption in government

d)

brings in advertising revenue for the media corporation

119.

Which action illustrates how conglomerates can censor information?

a)

Restricting reporters from publishing stories that hurt corporate interests

b)

Increasing the number of investigative journalists on staff

c)

Offering more airtime to local community news

d)

Publishing all leaked documents without review

120.

Which example shows how media can promote the public good?

a)

Running stories that only entertain viewers

b)

Reporting health advisories and emergency information

c)

Avoiding coverage of controversial topics

d)

Prioritizing celebrity gossip over civic news

121.

Why is social media considered effective for spreading news and information?

a)

It guarantees all content is fact-checked

b)

It allows rapid, wide sharing among users

c)

It limits discussion to official sources

d)

It is regulated by the federal government

122.

During the Revolutionary War period, newspapers tended to ________.

a)

give fake news and sensationalize stories

b)

unite the colonists and provide information about the British

c)

print party propaganda

d)

attack colonial politicians

123.

Muckraking occurs when newspapers ________.

a)

investigate problems in government and business

b)

investigate actions of celebrities

c)

print sensational news on the front page to sell papers

d)

print more editorials and opinion pieces to sell papers

124.

Radio quiz shows and comedy shows were most popular in the ________.

a)

1900s

b)

1930s

c)

1970s

d)

1990s

125.

Television news became a regular feature during ________ due to the public’s demand for ________ to explain current events.

a)

WWI; images and maps

b)

Great Depression; charts and tables

c)

WWII; images and maps

d)

Vietnam War; charts and tables

126.

Why did Franklin D. Roosevelt’s fireside chats help the president enact his policies?

a)

They bypassed Congress to change laws directly

b)

They built public trust by explaining policies in simple terms

c)

They provided entertainment rather than information

d)

They were mandated by the Supreme Court

127.

How have modern presidents used television to reach out to citizens?

a)

Only through written press releases

b)

By delivering televised addresses and appearances

c)

By limiting interviews to print newspapers

d)

By banning live broadcasts from the White House

128.

Why is soft news effective at reaching and educating viewers?

a)

It focuses only on hard-hitting investigative reporting

b)

It blends information with entertainment to attract audiences

c)

It avoids visuals and storytelling

d)

It is regulated to ensure accuracy

129.

In which circumstance would the courts most likely find libel?

a)

A reporter uses a source that incorrectly states a celebrity is using drugs.

b)

A columnist writes his opinion about whether an actor is hiding a drug problem.

c)

A television reporter delivers a story about increased drug use at the local college.

d)

A reporter writes that local college students are drug dealers but has no sources.

130.

The Supreme Court determined that the right of the press to print classified material ________.

a)

is obsolete, and the press may never print classified material

b)

is partial, and the press may print classified material only if it does not compromise troops or covert operatives

c)

is complete, and the press may print anything it likes

d)

has not yet been defined

131.

The Federal Communications Commission oversees the programming of which entities?

a)

television

b)

television and radio

c)

television, radio, and satellite

d)

television, radio, satellite, and cable

132.

Which of the following is a reasonable exception to the Freedom of Information Act?

a)

medical records for government employees

b)

budget for the Department of Labor

c)

minutes from a president’s cabinet meeting

d)

transcript of meetings between Department of State negotiators and Russian trade negotiators

133.

Why is it a potential problem that the equal-time rule does not apply to candidates’ supporters?

a)

Supporters can be fined for appearing on air

b)

Media must give equal airtime to every supporter

c)

Supporters can appear frequently and shape coverage without balance

d)

Supporters are legally barred from interviews

134.

Under what circumstances might a journalist be compelled to give up a source?

a)

When the source requests anonymity

b)

When a court orders disclosure during a legal case

c)

When the story involves entertainment news

d)

When the source is a government official

135.

Which of the following is an example of episodic framing?

a)

a story on drug abuse that interviews addicts and discusses reasons for addiction and government responses to help addicts

b)

a story on how drug abuse policy has changed since 1984

c)

a story on candidates’ answers to a drug question in a debate

d)

a story detailing arguments against needle exchange programs

136.

According to research, why might a woman decide not to run for office?

a)

She feels the work is too hard.

b)

She fears her positions will be covered too closely by the press.

c)

She fears the media will criticize her family.

d)

She fears the campaign will be too expensive.

137.

Media coverage of a race tends to ________.

a)

accurately portray all races equally

b)

accurately portray White and Black Americans as victims

c)

overrepresent White people and the elderly as poor

d)

overrepresent African Americans as poor

138.

Which statement best describes how framing or priming might affect the way a reader or viewer thinks about an issue?

a)

They have no effect on opinions because people rely only on personal experience.

b)

They highlight certain aspects of an issue, shaping what people view as most important.

c)

They always provide complete and balanced information.

d)

They only change how experts, not the general public, interpret news.

139.

Why might inaccurate coverage of race and gender affect policy or elections?

a)

It reduces voter turnout by making polling places harder to find.

b)

It can mislead the public and policymakers, reinforcing stereotypes that influence decisions.

c)

It always benefits third-party candidates by increasing media attention.

d)

It only affects local school board races, not national elections.

140.

Which supporter of federalism warned people about the dangers of political parties?

a)

John Adams

b)

Alexander Hamilton

141.

Which term refers to news stories that focus on specific events or individuals rather than broader contexts or trends?

a)

Thematic framing

b)

Episodic framing

c)

Agenda setting

d)

Gatekeeping

142.

In early U.S. history, what concern did some federalists express about political parties?

a)

Parties would unify the nation by eliminating debate.

b)

Parties could be dangerous by fostering factional conflict and undermining governance.

c)

Parties were necessary to ensure military readiness.

d)

Parties would guarantee equal media coverage for all candidates.