WorksheetsMICRO-1
Total questions: 123
Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Protection and control for biological materials to prevent their UNAUTHORIZED access, loss, theft, diversion, or INTENTIONAL release. Prevents Bio Crime.
a)
Biosafety
b)
Biosecurity
2.
Protect the GERMS from PEOPLE
a)
Biosafety
b)
Biosecurity
3.
Personnel security (access controls), physical security (CCTV, password-protected doors), Material control, Quarantine, Policy, are all examples of?
a)
Biosafety
b)
Biosecurity
4.
PPE, Spill kit, Engineering controls (BSC, fume hoods) Sterilization, Disinfection, and Isolation techniques, are all examples of?
a)
Biosafety
b)
Biosecurity
5.
Protect the PEOPLE from GERMS
a)
Biosafety
b)
Biosecurity
6.
Containment principles and practices to prevent UNINTENTIONAL EXPOSURE to pathogens and toxins or their UNINTENTIONAL release
a)
Biosafety
b)
Biosecurity
7.
A combination of the probability of occurrence of harm and the severity of that harm, where the source of harm is a biological agent or toxin.
a)
Biorisk
b)
Biorisk Assessment
c)
Biotin
d)
Biot
8.
A process of evaluating the biorisk(s) arising from a biohazard(s), taking into account the adequacy of any existing controls, and deciding whether or not the biorisk(s) is acceptable.
Steps: (1) Identify the hazard; (2) Identify the risk; (3) Develop plans to eliminate/control the hazard
a)
Biorisk
b)
Biorisk Assessment
c)
Biotin
d)
Biot
9.
Highest rank in LRN; Responsible for definitive characterization (e.g. molecular sequencing) of agents (example: CDC)
a)
NRL Laboratories
b)
Reference Laboratories
c)
Sentinel Laboratories
10.
Second rank in LRN; Has the reagents and technology for confirmatory testing of pathogens (example: RITM)
a)
NRL Laboratories
b)
Reference Laboratories
c)
Sentinel Laboratories
11.
Lowest rank in LRN; Formerly “Level A laboratories”; Detects and recognizes a possible bioterrorism event (conducts surveillance).
a)
NRL Laboratories
b)
Reference Laboratories
c)
Sentinel Laboratories
12.
Highest risk; Easily transmitted Highly infectious
a)
Category A
b)
Category B
c)
Category C
13.
Smallpox, B. anthracis, Y. pestis, C. botulinum falls under which category of bioterrorism agents?
a)
Category A
b)
Category B
c)
Category C
14.
B. pseudomallei, B. mallei, Brucella, E. coli O157, C. perfringens toxins falls under which category of bioterrorism agents?
a)
Category A
b)
Category B
c)
Category C
15.
Moderately easy to transmit Moderate to Low mortality
a)
Category A
b)
Category B
c)
Category C
16.
Emerging/Recurrent Could be engineered in the future
a)
Category A
b)
Category B
c)
Category C
17.
Ebola, Dengue, MERS-CoV, Hemorrhagic fever viruses falls under which category of bioterrorism agents?
a)
Category A
b)
Category B
c)
Category C
18.
Treat all human blood and certain body fluids as infectious for blood-borne pathogens (HIV, HBV, etc.)
a)
Universal precautions
b)
General precautions
c)
Specific precautions
d)
Laboratory precautions
19.
Microorganisms attached to secretions
a)
Droplet
b)
Droplet nuclei
c)
Aerosol
20.
Residue from evaporated large droplets
a)
Droplet
b)
Droplet nuclei
c)
Aerosol
21.
Free microorganisms from sneeze/cough
a)
Droplet
b)
Droplet nuclei
c)
Aerosol
22.
>5 um
a)
Droplet
b)
Droplet nuclei
c)
Aerosol
23.
Can droplet be found in suspended air?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
No but need physical distancing (1 meter or 3 ft)
24.
Can droplet nuclei be found in suspended air?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
No but need physical distancing (1 meter or 3 ft)
25.
Can aerosol be found in suspended air?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
No but need physical distancing (1 meter or 3 ft)
26.
Is droplet airborne?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
No but need physical distancing (1 meter or 3 ft)
27.
Is droplet nuclei airborne?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
No but need physical distancing (1 meter or 3 ft)
28.
N95 respirators filters 95% of all airbone particles as small as
a)
0.1 um
b)
0.2 um
c)
0.3 um
d)
0.4 um
29.
Every use, personnel should perform fit check or seal to ensure that the N95 respirator is _________
a)
Loose fit
b)
Snug fit
c)
Tight fit
d)
Oversized fit
30.
Is aerosol airborne?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
No but need physical distancing (1 meter or 3 ft)
31.
1 to 5 um
a)
Droplet
b)
Droplet nuclei
c)
Aerosol
32.
Which of the following have minimal risk?
a)
Risk group I
b)
Risk group II
c)
Risk group III
d)
Risk group IV
33.
Which of the following have moderate risk?
a)
Risk group I
b)
Risk group II
c)
Risk group III
d)
Risk group IV
34.
Which of the following have high risk?
a)
Risk group I
b)
Risk group II
c)
Risk group III
d)
Risk group IV
35.
Which of the following have extreme risk?
a)
Risk group I
b)
Risk group II
c)
Risk group III
d)
Risk group IV
36.
Which of the following causes deadly disease?
a)
Risk group I
b)
Risk group II
c)
Risk group III
d)
Risk group IV
37.
Which of the following causes possibly serious disease?
a)
Risk group I
b)
Risk group II
c)
Risk group III
d)
Risk group IV
38.
Which of the following might possibly cause disease?
a)
Risk group I
b)
Risk group II
c)
Risk group III
d)
Risk group IV
39.
Which of the following is unlikely to cause disease?
a)
Risk group I
b)
Risk group II
c)
Risk group III
d)
Risk group IV
40.
Which of the following has no or low individual risk?
a)
Risk group I
b)
Risk group II
c)
Risk group III
d)
Risk group IV
41.
Which of the following has moderate individual risk?
a)
Risk group I
b)
Risk group II
c)
Risk group III
d)
Risk group IV
42.
Which of the following has high individual risk?
a)
Risk group I
b)
Risk group II
c)
Risk group III
d)
Risk group IV
43.
Which of the following has high community risk?
a)
Risk group I
b)
Risk group II
c)
Risk group III
d)
Risk group IV
44.
Which of the following has low community risk?
a)
Risk group I
b)
Risk group II
c)
Risk group III
d)
Risk group IV
45.
Which of the following has no or low community risk?
a)
Risk group I
b)
Risk group II
c)
Risk group III
d)
Risk group IV
46.
Which of the following has an available treatment or prevention?
a)
Risk group I
b)
Risk group II
c)
Risk group III
d)
Risk group IV
47.
Which of the following has no available treatment or prevention?
a)
Risk group I
b)
Risk group II
c)
Risk group III
d)
Risk group IV
48.
Bacillus subtilis
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
49.
Mycobacterium gordonae
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
50.
Naegleria gruberi
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
51.
Infectious canine hepatitis virus
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
52.
Escherichia coli
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
53.
Salmonella spp.
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
54.
HIV
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
55.
Prions
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
56.
F. tularensis
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
57.
Toxoplasma spp.
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
58.
Hepatitis B virus
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
59.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
60.
Mold stages of Systemic fungi
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
61.
toxins of Clostridium
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
62.
Yersinia pestis
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
63.
cultures of F. tularensis
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
64.
Aerosol generating, manipulation of high concentrations of respiratory agents
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
65.
St. Louis Encephalitis virus
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
66.
Coxiella burnetti
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
67.
Ebola Zaire virus
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
68.
Lassa
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
69.
Hemorrhagic fever viruses
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
70.
Marburg
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
71.
Congo-Crimean
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
72.
Rift Valley Fever virus
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
73.
Which of the following DON'T HAVE primary barriers?
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
74.
Scrub suits or coveralls are not removed from the laboratory.
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
75.
Additional practices include:
Showering or chemical treatment of personnel
Log of all personnel/items entering and exiting the lab
Complex waste management
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
76.
Additional practices include:
Routine serum testing of personnel
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
77.
Additional practices include:
Biohazard symbol on entrance
Immunization
Personnel training
Biosafety manual Incident/Exposure procedures
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
78.
Additional practices include:
Limited Lab access, Decontamination procedure
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
79.
Secondary barriers include: GLP Handwashing
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
80.
Secondary barriers include: Waste management Pest management Eye wash station
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
81.
Secondary barriers include: Ventilation requirements (Negative pressure room airflow) Separated from the main lab with selfclosing doors. With anteroom
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
82.
Secondary barriers include: specialized ventilation systems. Laboratory is in separate building. Items are processed through a fumigation chamber of airlock system
a)
Biosafety Level 1
b)
Biosafety Level 2
c)
Biosafety Level 3
d)
Biosafety Level 4
83.
What is the isolation technique for MDR bacteria, sepsis, and N. meningitidis?
a)
Strict
b)
Protective/Reverse
c)
Respiratory
d)
Enteric
84.
What is the isolation technique for Cancer, HIV/AIDS, burn patients?
a)
Strict
b)
Protective/Reverse
c)
Respiratory
d)
Enteric
85.
What is the isolation technique for Tuberculosis, Brucella, Coxiella?
a)
Strict
b)
Protective/Reverse
c)
Respiratory
d)
Enteric
86.
What is the isolation technique for Salmonella, Giardia, Cryptosporidium?
a)
Strict
b)
Protective/Reverse
c)
Respiratory
d)
Enteric
87.
What is the priority PPE when handling MDR bacteria, sepsis, N. meningitidis?
a)
Gown, mask, gloves
b)
Mask/respirator
c)
Gloves
d)
No PPE
88.
What is the priority PPE when handling Cancer, HIV/AIDS, burn patients?
a)
Gown, mask, gloves
b)
Mask/respirator
c)
Gloves
d)
No PPE
89.
What is the priority PPE when handling Tuberculosis, Brucella, Coxiella?
a)
Gown, mask, gloves
b)
Mask/respirator
c)
Gloves
d)
No PPE
90.
What is the priority PPE when handling Salmonella, Giardia, Cryptosporidium?
a)
Gown, mask, gloves
b)
Mask/respirator
c)
Gloves
d)
No PPE
91.
MDR bacterial infections, Adenovirus, Diarrhea and gastrointestinal infections, Hepatitis A, Herpes simplex, Lice, Scabies Mask if with respiratory: Parainfluenza, RSV, Chickenpox
a)
Contact precautions
b)
Droplet precautions
c)
Airborne precautions
92.
Pertussis, Influenza, Neisseria meningitidis and other bacterial meningitis, Coxsackie, RSV, Mumps, Rubella
a)
Contact precautions
b)
Droplet precautions
c)
Airborne precautions
93.
Chicken pox, Shingles, Measles N95 respirator: Tuberculosis, SARS, Avian influenza (H5-H10)
a)
Contact precautions
b)
Droplet precautions
c)
Airborne precautions
94.
Pertussis, Influenza, Neisseria meningitidis and other bacterial meningitis, Coxsackie, RSV, Mumps, Rubella
a)
Negative pressure
b)
Fluid-resistant mask and eye protection
c)
All of the above
d)
None of the above
95.
Chicken pox, Shingles, Measles N95 respirator: Tuberculosis, SARS, Avian influenza (H5-H10)
a)
Negative pressure
b)
Fluid-resistant mask and eye protection
c)
All of the above
d)
None of the above
96.
MDR bacterial infections, Adenovirus, Diarrhea and gastrointestinal infections, Hepatitis A, Herpes simplex, Lice, Scabies Mask if with respiratory: Parainfluenza, RSV, Chickenpox
a)
Negative pressure
b)
Fluid-resistant mask and eye protection
c)
All of the above
d)
None of the above
97.
Disinfect all interior surfaces with tissue/gauze pad wet with
a)
70% isopropanol
b)
70% ethanol
c)
95% isopropanol
d)
95% ethanol
98.
In at front through HEPA to the outside or into the room through HEPA
a)
BSC Class I
b)
BSC Class I B2
c)
BSC Class II A1
d)
BSC Class II A2
99.
NO AIR RECIRCULATION; total exhaust to the outside
a)
BSC Class I
b)
BSC Class I B2
c)
BSC Class II A1
d)
BSC Class II A2
100.
With possible contamination
a)
BSC Class I
b)
BSC Class I B2
c)
BSC Class II A1
d)
BSC Class II A2
101.
70% air recirculate, 30% air exhaust
a)
BSC Class II A1
b)
BSC Class II A2
c)
BSC Class II B1
d)
BSC Class II B2
e)
BSC Class III
102.
70% EXHAUSTED; 30% RECIRCULATED
a)
BSC Class II A1
b)
BSC Class II A2
c)
BSC Class II B1
d)
BSC Class II B2
e)
BSC Class III
103.
No Air Recirulation
a)
BSC Class II A1
b)
BSC Class II A2
c)
BSC Class II B1
d)
BSC Class II B2
e)
BSC Class III
104.
SUPPLY and EXHAUST air thru HEPA. Close cabinet for BSL-4 with built-in gloves
a)
BSC Class II A1
b)
BSC Class II A2
c)
BSC Class II B1
d)
BSC Class II B2
e)
BSC Class III
105.
Exhaust air inside room. WITH AIR RECIRCULATION.
a)
BSC Class II A1
b)
BSC Class II A2
c)
BSC Class II B1
d)
BSC Class II B2
e)
BSC Class III
106.
Vertical Laminar Flow: air flows in sheets.
a)
BSC Class II A1
b)
BSC Class II A2
c)
BSC Class II B1
d)
BSC Class II B2
e)
BSC Class III
107.
recommended in school/hospitals
a)
BSC Class II A1
b)
BSC Class II A2
c)
BSC Class II B1
d)
BSC Class II B2
e)
BSC Class III
108.
recommended in Research facilities
a)
BSC Class II A1
b)
BSC Class II A2
c)
BSC Class II B1
d)
BSC Class II B2
e)
BSC Class III
109.
There should be ___ feet around the BSC during operation to ensure the proper air-circulating system
a)
1 feet
b)
2 feet
c)
3 feet
d)
4 feet
110.
Certification of Biosafety Cabinet should be done after: 1. Installation ;
2. If Repositioned more than 18 inches ; or
3. _____, or as indicated by risk assessment.
a)
Semi-annual
b)
Quarterly
c)
Monthly
d)
Annually
111.
Exhaust air outside the building; for radioisotopes, carcinogens, & toxic chemicals
a)
BSC Class II A1
b)
BSC Class II A2
c)
BSC Class II B1
d)
BSC Class II B2
e)
BSC Class III
112.
killing all forms of microbial life including spores
a)
Sterilization
b)
Disinfection
c)
Decontamination
113.
killing pathogenic microbes, but not necessarily all microbes, prions, and spores.
a)
Sterilization
b)
Disinfection
c)
Decontamination
114.
removal of pathogenic microbes in inanimate objects so that they are safe to handle/dispose.
a)
Sterilization
b)
Disinfection
c)
Decontamination
115.
High risk of infection
a)
Critical items
b)
Semi-critical items
c)
Non-critical items
116.
Exposed to nonintact skin and mucous membrane
a)
Critical items
b)
Semi-critical items
c)
Non-critical items
117.
Exposed to intact skin but not mucous membrane
a)
Critical items
b)
Semi-critical items
c)
Non-critical items
118.
Noncritical patient care items such as bedpans, blood pressure cuffs, computers, crutches etc. Noncritical environmental surfaces: bed rails, bedside tables, patient furniture, and floors are all examples of?
a)
Critical items
b)
Semi-critical items
c)
Non-critical items
119.
Respiratory therapy and anesthesia equipment, endoscope, laryngoscope blades, esophageal manometry probes, cystoscopes, anorectal manometry catheters, and diaphragm fitting rings are all examples of?
a)
Critical items
b)
Semi-critical items
c)
Non-critical items
120.
Surgical instruments Cardiac/Urinary catheter Ultrasound probes are all examples of?
a)
Critical items
b)
Semi-critical items
c)
Non-critical items
121.
Ethylene oxide, Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma Cold sterilization chemicals are used on
a)
Critical items
b)
Semi-critical items
c)
Non-critical items
122.
Cold sterilization chemicals are used on
a)
Critical items
b)
Semi-critical items
c)
Non-critical items
123.
Low or intermediate level of disinfectants are used on
a)
Critical items
b)
Semi-critical items
c)
Non-critical items
100 %
