wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Maternal and Neonatal Nursing Quiz

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) for induction of labor should be closely monitored for which complication?

a)

Fetal bradycardia

b)

Uterine hyperstimulation

c)

Hypotension

d)

Fetal movement increase

2.

Which of the following medications is contraindicated in clients with asthma?

a)

Pitocin

b)

Cytotec

c)

Hemabate

d)

Methergine

3.

Which medications are used to control postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Pitocin

b)

Hemabate

c)

Cytotec

d)

Duramorph

e)

Methergine

4.

Cytotec (Misoprostol) is given rectally after delivery primarily to:

a)

Relieve perineal pain

b)

Promote uterine relaxation

c)

Increase uterine tone and reduce bleeding

d)

Prevent infection

5.

Before administering Methergine (Methylergonovine), the nurse should assess:

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Temperature

c)

Pain scale

d)

Pulse oximetry

6.

A woman undergoing cesarean section is given sodium citrate before surgery. The nurse understands this drug:

a)

Stimulates uterine contractions

b)

Prevents nausea

c)

Neutralizes gastric acid to prevent aspiration

d)

Reduces postoperative pain

7.

The nurse knows Penicillin G is administered prior to cesarean delivery to:

a)

Prevent uterine relaxation

b)

Prevent postoperative infection

c)

Promote bowel movement

d)

Decrease anxiety

8.

If the client is allergic to Penicillin, which medication is typically substituted?

a)

Nubain

b)

Ampicillin

c)

Fentanyl

d)

Zofran

9.

The nurse monitors a patient after Duramorph (epidural morphine) for which priority complication?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Urinary retention

10.

Which drug is used to reverse the respiratory effects of Duramorph?

a)

Calcium gluconate

b)

Naloxone

c)

Methergine

d)

Betamethasone

11.

Which nursing interventions apply after administering Duramorph?

a)

Monitor respirations hourly

b)

Keep naloxone available

c)

Encourage ambulation immediately

d)

Assess for itching

e)

Monitor sedation level

12.

Nitrous oxide is most accurately described as:

a)

IV opioid analgesic

b)

Self-administered inhaled analgesic

c)

Epidural anesthetic

d)

Uterine stimulant

13.

The nurse instructs the client that Nubain (Nalbuphine) should not be administered within 1 hour of delivery because it can cause:

a)

Uterine hypertonicity

b)

Neonatal respiratory depression

c)

Postpartum hemorrhage

d)

Seizures

14.

The nurse prepares lidocaine for an episiotomy repair. The purpose of this medication is to:

a)

Induce labor

b)

Provide local anesthesia

c)

Control postpartum bleeding

d)

Prevent infection

15.

The nurse monitors a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

a)

BP 120/80 mmHg

b)

Urine output 40 mL/hr

c)

Respiratory rate 8/min

d)

DTRs 2+

16.

The antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity is:

a)

Protamine sulfate

b)

Calcium gluconate

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Naloxone

17.

The physician orders 40 units of Pitocin in 400 mL IV fluid. Each vial contains 10 units. How many vials are needed?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

18.

Administer a 4 g loading dose of magnesium sulfate over 30 minutes. The IV bag contains 40 g in 1000 mL. What is the infusion rate?

a)

100 mL/hr

b)

200 mL/hr

c)

400 mL/hr

d)

50 mL/hr

19.

After the loading dose, magnesium sulfate should infuse at 2 g/hr. Using the same concentration (40 g/1000 mL), what is the hourly rate?

a)

25 mL/hr

b)

50 mL/hr

c)

75 mL/hr

d)

100 mL/hr

20.

A mother rates her pain as 8/10 postpartum. The order reads Percocet 325–650 mg PRN. What dose should the nurse administer?

a)

325 mg

b)

650 mg

c)

975 mg

d)

Hold the dose

21.

Which medications are narcotic analgesics?

a)

Morphine

b)

Percocet

c)

Fentanyl

d)

Ibuprofen

e)

Toradol

22.

Which drug is not safe to administer to a hypertensive patient?

a)

Methergine

b)

Cytotec

c)

Pitocin

d)

Penicillin

23.

A postpartum woman complains of uterine cramping while breastfeeding. Which medication should the nurse administer?

a)

Iron

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Cytotec

d)

Colace

24.

Toradol (Ketorolac) should not exceed which total daily dose in adults?

a)

40 mg

b)

80 mg

c)

120 mg

d)

160 mg

25.

Colace (Docusate) is most important postpartum because it:

a)

Reduces uterine bleeding

b)

Relieves perineal pain

c)

Softens stool to prevent straining

d)

Prevents infection

26.

RhoGam should be administered:

a)

Within 72 hrs postpartum to Rh-negative moms with Rh-positive infants

b)
only after delivery of any baby
c)
to all pregnant women regardless of Rh status
d)
to Rh-positive pregnant women at 28 weeks of gestation
27.

Which statement shows correct teaching for oral iron (ferrous sulfate)?

a)

Take with milk

b)

It won’t affect stools

c)

Take with vitamin C (e.g., orange juice)

d)

Stop if stools darken

28.

The purpose of Vitamin K (phytonadione) given after birth is to:

a)

Boost immunity

b)

Treat infection

c)

Aid digestion

d)

Promote clotting and prevent hemorrhagic disease

29.

Erythromycin eye ointment in the newborn primarily prevents:

a)

RSV

b)

Candida

c)

Gonococcal/

chlamydial ophthalmia

d)

Group B strep sepsis

30.

Betamethasone/dexamethasone are given to mothers at risk of preterm birth to:

a)

Lower maternal BP

b)

Decrease anxiety

c)

Accelerate fetal lung maturity

d)

Delay labor indefinitely

31.

Which are routes of administration for misoprostol?

a)

Oral

b)

Vaginal

c)

Rectal

d)

Intravenous

32.

Which finding indicates effective oxytocin therapy postpartum?

a)

Boggy uterus, heavy lochia

b)

Firm fundus with decreasing lochia

c)

Elevated BP

d)

Severe headache

33.

Zofran (ondansetron) is used in OB primarily to:

a)

Treat hypertension

b)

Prevent/treat nausea

c)

Induce labor

d)

Control bleeding

34.

Which adverse effect is most associated with neuraxial Duramorph?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Pruritus

c)

Urinary frequency

d)

Hypertension

35.

Order: Ketorolac 30 mg IV q6h PRN, patient has already received 90 mg in the past 24 hr. How many additional mgmay be given in the next 24 hr without exceeding the max?

a)

10 mg

b)

30 mg

c)

60 mg

d)

0 mg

36.

Which teaching is correct for prenatal vitamins postpartum?

a)

Stop once breastfeeding starts

b)

Continue daily to support recovery and milk nutrients

c)

Take only with iron

d)

Skip on days with pain meds

37.

Which is a priority assessment for a mother receiving magnesium sulfate?

a)

Bowel sounds

b)

Deep tendon reflexes and respiratory rate

c)

Capillary refill

d)

Fundal height

38.

Which statement about nitrous oxide in labor is true?

a)

Requires continuous provider dosing

b)

Patient self-administers via mask during contractions

c)

Causes prolonged neonatal sedation

d)

Must be combined with opioids

39.

Morphine 2–5 mg IV is ordered for post-cesarean pain. Which parameter is most critical before dosing?

a)

Temperature

b)

Respiratory rate and sedation level

c)

Bowel sounds

d)

Fundal position

40.

Which uterotonic can be injected directly into the uterus during cesarean if needed?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Nubain

c)

Toradol

d)

Iron

41.

Key nursing instructions for iron therapy include

a)

Expect dark stools

b)

Use stool softener or prunes if constipated

c)

Take with vitamin C

d)

Take with milk for absorption

e)

Stop if stools change color

42.

Which medication is self-administered and inhaled for labor pain?

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Nubain

c)

Nitrous oxide

d)

Lidocaine

43.

Methergine is ordered, but the patient’s BP is 158/96. The nurse should:

a)

Administer and recheck BP later

b)

Give half dose

c)

Hold and notify the provider

d)

Give with IV fluids

44.

Naloxone should be given in mothers who received Duramorph only:

a)

As a routine postpartum med

b)

After breastfeeding

c)

With a direct order or if respiratory depression occurs

d)

If family requests it

45.

Order: Percocet 325–650 mg PO q4–6h PRN. Each tablet contains 325 mg acetaminophen. Patient requests the maximum dose now. How many tablets is that?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

46.

Which adverse effect is most concerning after ketorolac?

a)

Constipation

b)

Bleeding/renal impairment

c)

Rash

d)

Cough

47.

A newborn receives Vitamin K IM shortly after birth. The nurse documents the site as:

a)

Deltoid

b)

Dorsogluteal

c)

Vastus lateralis

d)

Ventrogluteal

48.

Which statement about erythromycin eye ointment application is correct?

a)

Applied only to one eye

b)

Apply a thin ribbon into each eye

c)

Rinse immediately after

d)

Apply deep into the conjunctival sac with pressure

49.

Priority education for oxytocin infusion includes:

a)

Continuous fetal heart rate monitoring

b)

Titrate based on uterine activity

c)

Increase rapidly if contractions space out to 1–2 min (unsafe)

d)

Stop infusion for tachysystole or non-reassuring FHR

e)

Ignore patient reports of severe pain

50.

In severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate, the nurse should keep which medication readily available at the bedside?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Calcium gluconate

c)

Naloxone

d)

Ketorolac

51.

Cytotec 600 mcg rectally is ordered for postpartum hemorrhage. The available tablets are 200 mcg each. How many tablets should be administered?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

52.

The nurse is preparing to administer Hemabate 250 mcg IM. The vial is labeled 250 mcg/mL. How many mL should the nurse draw up?

a)
1 mL
b)
0.5 mL
c)
2 mL
d)
1.5 mL
53.

The physician orders Nubain 10 mg IV. The vial label states 20 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse draw up?

a)
1 mL
b)
2 mL
c)
0.25 mL
d)
0.5 mL
54.

Magnesium sulfate 40 g in 1000 mL IV. The order is to give 1 g/hr. What rate should the IV pump be set to?

a)
20 mL/hr
b)
30 mL/hr
c)
25 mL/hr
d)
40 mL/hr
55.

Percocet 5 mg/325 mg PO is prescribed q6h PRN. The client requests pain medication for a 7/10 pain score. How many mg of acetaminophen will the client receive in 24 hours if they take 1 tab every 6 hours?

a)
1300 mg
b)
1500 mg
c)
1000 mg
d)
800 mg