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Infection Control Review

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Where would you most likely find an anaerobic microorganism thriving?

a)

On a toilet seat

b)

In the soil

c)

In the air

d)

In sterile water

2.

Which statement accurately describes bacteria?

a)

All bacteria are harmful

b)

All bacteria are round

c)

All bacteria reproduce inside other living cells

d)

All bacteria are single-celled organisms

3.

A patient’s sore throat is caused by streptococcus. What is the appropriate treatment?

a)

Antibiotic medication

b)

Antifungal gargle

c)

Antiviral throat wash

d)

No treatment is available

4.

A man died from an infection caused by rickettsiae. How was it most likely transmitted?

a)

Walking barefoot in a locker room

b)

A blood transfusion

c)

The bite of a tick

d)

Breathing in contaminated air

5.

Which organism can only be seen with an electron microscope?

a)

Virus

b)

Protozoa

c)

Bacteria

d)

Fungus

6.

Beth has a nosocomial (HAI) infection. Where did she acquire it?

a)

Hiking in the woods

b)

At a hotel spa

c)

From contaminated food

d)

During a hospital stay

7.

What do all pathogens have in common?

a)

They are animal-like

b)

They cause disease

c)

They are visible to the naked eye

d)

They are multicellular

8.

Tuberculosis is caused by which type of microorganism?

a)

Virus

b)

Protozoa

c)

Bacteria

d)

Fungus

9.

Albert has a yeast infection under his arm. What is the best treatment?

a)

Antifungal cream

b)

Antibiotic ointment

c)

Vaccination

d)

Hot compress

10.

An infection that occurs when the immune system is weakened is called a/an:

a)

Mutant infection

b)

Nonpathogenic infection

c)

Opportunistic infection

d)

Recessive infection

11.

A sterile towel falls on the floor. It is now considered:

a)

Infectious

b)

Contaminated

c)

Antiseptic

d)

Disinfected

12.

What should be found on the surface of a sterile instrument?

a)

Viruses

b)

Spores

c)

Microbes

d)

Nothing

13.

Which vaccine must be provided free to healthcare workers with occupational exposure, per OSHA?

a)

Influenza

b)

Mumps

c)

Meningitis

d)

Hepatitis B

14.

A patient on airborne precautions must be transported. What should they wear?

a)

A mask

b)

Goggles

c)

Gloves

d)

A gown

15.

Which healthcare worker should wear eye protection?

a)

Nursing assistant taking blood pressure

b)

Pharmacist filling prescriptions

c)

Dentist extracting a tooth

d)

EMT responding to cardiac arrest

16.

When should gowns and gloves be worn?

a)

When contact with blood or body fluids is possible

b)

When entering a room of an HIV-positive patient

c)

When the worker has a cold

d)

For all respiratory infections

17.

Following standard precautions is an example of medical:

a)

Asepsis

b)

Transmission

c)

Contamination

18.

What is the first link in the chain of infection?

a)

Portal of entry

b)

Infectious agent

c)

Reservoir

d)

Mode of transmission

19.

Which of the following is considered a reservoir in the chain of infection?

a)

Hand sanitizer

b)

Human body

c)

Surgical mask

d)

Antibiotics

20.

Identify the term that describes the way an infectious agent leaves the reservoir.

a)

Portal of entry

b)

Mode of transmission

c)

Portal of exit

d)

Susceptible host

21.

Which of the following is a mode of transmission in the chain of infection?

a)

Direct contact

b)

Immune response

c)

Vaccination

d)

Antibiotic resistance

22.

What is the term for the way an infectious agent enters a new host?

a)

Portal of entry

b)

Reservoir

c)

Mode of transmission

d)

Portal of exit

23.

Which of the following is an example of a susceptible host?

a)

A vaccinated individual

b)

A person with a strong immune system

c)

A newborn baby

d)

A person taking antibiotics

24.

What is the role of handwashing in breaking the chain of infection?

a)

It acts as a reservoir

b)

It strengthens the immune system

c)

It removes infectious agents

d)

It serves as a portal of entry

25.

Which of the following is NOT a link in the chain of infection?

a)

Infectious agent

b)

Reservoir

c)

Immune response

d)

Susceptible host

26.

What is the purpose of vaccination in the context of the chain of infection?

a)

To act as a reservoir

b)

To eliminate the portal of exit

c)

To reduce susceptibility of the host

d)

To increase the mode of transmission

27.

Which of the following can be considered a portal of exit for an infectious agent?

a)

Skin

b)

Blood

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Vaccines

28.
When taking off PPE, what should you remove first?
a)
Gown
b)
Gloves
c)
Mask
d)
Goggles
29.

Which of these should you put on first if you will be wearing a gown, gloves, mask and goggles?

a)
Gloves
b)
Gown
c)
Mask
d)
Goggles
30.

It is important to sanitize your hands again for 20 seconds after taking off PPE.

a)
True
b)
False
31.
What does the abbreviation PPE stand for?
a)
personal protecting equipment
b)
protection providing equipment
c)
personal protective equipment
d)
personally protected equipment
32.

Should you wash your hand before donning PPE?

a)

Yes

b)

No

33.

Rather than using hand sanitizer, you should always wash your hands with soap and water if they are visibly soiled or dirty.

a)

true

b)

false

34.

If soap and water are not available, which alternative is recommended for hand hygiene?

a)

Use a dry tissue

b)

Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer

c)

Use hand lotion

d)

Use a wet cloth

35.

A healthcare worker notices that their hands are visibly dirty after removing gloves. What should they do next?

a)

Use hand sanitizer only

b)

Wipe hands with a tissue

c)

Wash hands with soap and water

d)

Put on a new pair of gloves

36.

This type of precaution requires anyone entering a patient's room to perform hand hygiene and wear a mask and eye protection.

a)

Airborne

b)

Contact

c)

Droplet

37.

This type of precaution requires a patient to be in a negative pressure room and for anyone entering the room to perform hand hygiene and wear a N95 Respirator.

a)

Airborne

b)

Contact

c)

Droplet

38.

Contact precautions would be used for this infection.

a)

C. Difficile

b)

Lyme Disease

c)

Influenza

39.
What is the best and easiest way to cut down on nosocomial infections in inpatient populations?
a)
Nothing can be done. It's the inevitable
b)
Healthcare workers practicing proper medical aseptic technique
40.

Which of the following best describes a procedure to create barriers to the transmission of infectious agents?

a)

Using personal protective equipment (PPE) such as gloves and masks

b)

Allowing unrestricted visitor access

c)

Sharing medical instruments between patients

d)

Avoiding handwashing

41.

A patient develops an infection two days after being admitted to the hospital for surgery. Using your knowledge of infection types, classify this infection and justify your answer.

a)

Community-acquired infection, because it developed after admission

b)

Hospital Acquired Infection (aka: Nosocomial infection), because it was acquired during hospital treatment

c)

Vector-borne infection, because it happened in a hospital

d)

Airborne infection, because it was not present before admission

42.

The statement: All blood and certain body fluids must be treated as if known to be infectious for blood-borne pathogens. Is best descrbied as:

a)

Continuity of Care

b)

Universal Precautions

c)

PPE

d)

Ethical work practice

43.

What is the best method to ensure that spores are destroyed?

a)

sanitize

b)

sterilize

c)

disinfection

d)

ultrasonic bath

44.

Which of the following actions by the medical assistant is the first line of defense in preventing the spread of microorganisms?

a)

wear non-sterile gloves when performing venipuncture

b)

perform regular hand hygiene

c)

wear sterile gloves when changing a dressing

d)

use aseptic technique when drawing up a medication

45.

After hand washing, the ECG technician notices the patient has MRSA sores. The next step to take in order to prevent infection is to

a)

don a protective mask.

b)

use universal precautions.

c)

implement reverse isolation.

d)

reschedule the patient when the MRSA sores have healed.

46.

The process used to wash and remove blood and tissue from medical instruments is called:

a)

Sterilization

b)

Sanitization

c)

Dissinfect

d)

Asepsis

47.

What are droplet precautions?

a)

Methods of infection control that must be used for patients known or suspected to be infected with pathogens transmitted by airborne droplet nuclei.

b)

Methods of infection control that must be used for patients known or suspected to be infected with epidemiological microorganisms that can be transmitted by either direct or indirect contact.

c)

Method of infection control that must be used for patients known or suspected to be infected with pathogens transmitted by large particle droplets expelled during coughing, sneezing, talking, or laughing.

d)

Recommendations that must be followed to prevent transmission of pathogenic organisms by way of blood and body fluids.

48.

What are or is a helminth?

a)

Group of simple, plantlike animals that live on dead organic matter (for example, yeast and molds).

b)

Microscopic, one-celled animals often found in decayed materials and contaminated water.

c)

Parasitic microorganisms that live on other living organisms.

d)

A parasitic worm (for example, a tapeworm or leech).

49.

What is the definition of bacteria?

a)

One-celled microorganisms, some of which are beneficial and some of which cause disease.

b)

A pathogen that causes hemorrhagic fever disease.

c)

smallest microorganism that lives and reproduces inside another living cell

d)

Disease-producing organisms.

50.

Which of the following are part of the chain of infection?

a)

portal of entry

b)

reservoir

c)

infection agent

d)

autoclave

e)

epidemic

51.

Chain of Infection means

a)

Being free from infection.

b)

Factors that lead to the transmission or spread of disease.

c)

Free of all organisms, including spores and viruses.

d)

Free from organisms causing disease.

52.

What is PPE?

a)

Aseptic control that inhibits, retards growth of, or kills pathogenic organisms; not effective against spores and viruses.

b)

Aseptic-control method that destroys pathogens but does not usually kill spores and viruses.

c)

Microorganisms that are not capable of causing disease.

d)

Protective barriers such as a mask, gown, gloves, and protective eyewear that help protect a person from contact with infectious material.

53.

What is bioterrorism?

a)

An infectious disease that affects a large number of people within a population, community, or region at the same time.

b)

The cleaning process employed in an ultrasonic unit; bubbles explode to drive cleaning solution onto article being cleaned.

c)

The use of biological agents, such as pathogens, for terrorist purposes.

d)

An infectious disease that affects many people over a wide geographic area; a worldwide epidemic.

54.

The reduction in the number of microorganisms and viruses, particularly potential pathogens, on living tissue is known as _________.

a)

sanitization

b)

aseptic

c)

antisepsis

d)

sterilization

55.

____________ is the destruction of most microorganisms and viruses on nonliving tissue.

a)

disinfection

b)

sanitization

c)

sterilization

d)

degerming

56.
Which of the following is a true statement?
a)
Hand washing is non vital when you use gloves.
b)
Wash your hands before and after work only.
c)
Hand hygiene is done before and after every patient.
d)
Washing with soap kills all pathogens.
57.
In the dental environment, the general routes of disease transmission can be described as follows: (Check ALL that apply)
a)
Direct contact with pathogens present in saliva, blood, respiratory secretions, or lesions
b)
Direct contact with airborne contaminated present in spatter or aerosols of oral and respiratory fluids
c)
A susceptible host
d)
Indirect contact with contaminated objects or instruments
58.
Which of the following are the Recommended infection control practices that directly relate to dental radiography procedures? Check ALL that apply.
a)
PPE
b)
Handwashing and care of hands
c)
Sterilization and Disinfection of Instruments
d)
A portal of entry
e)
Cleaning and Disinfection of dental unit and environmental surfaces
59.
Which of the following PPE is used to prevent skin and mucous membrane exposure when contact with blood or other bloody fluids is anticipated?
a)
Masks
b)
Gloves
c)
Protective clothing
d)
Scrub cap
60.

Bloodborne Pathogens are microorganisms such as ________or bacteria that are carried in blood, internal body fluids, and unfixed tissue that can cause disease in humans.

a)

The flu

b)

Microorganisms

c)

Viruses

d)

Blood

61.

Organisms can enter the body though...

a)

Ingestion, Inhalation and Direct Blood Contact

b)

Dirty Surfaces, Inhalation and Direct Blood Contact

c)

Ingestion, the Flu Virus and Direct Blood Contact

d)

Ingestion, Viruses and Microorganisms

62.

One of a large group of very small microorganisms, many of which cause disease; visible only using an

electron microscope.

a)

Fungi

b)

Bacteria

c)

Virus

d)

Pathogen

63.

Disease-producing organisms; germs.

a)

Virus

b)

Pathogen

c)

Fungi

d)

Bacteria

64.

One-celled microorganisms, some of which are beneficial and some of which cause disease.

a)

Bacteria

b)

Fungi

c)

Protozoa

d)

Virus

65.

Aseptic-control method that destroys pathogens but does not usually kill spores and viruses.

a)

Sterile

b)

Contaminated

c)

Disinfection

d)

Sterilization

66.

Group of simple, plantlike animals that live on dead organic matter.

a)

Protozoa

b)

Bacteria

c)

Virus

d)

Fungi

67.

Microscopic, one-celled animals often found in decayed materials and contaminated water.

a)

Protozoa

b)

Virus

c)

Bacteria

d)

Fungi

68.

Infection or disease originating outside of or external to the body.

a)

Asepsis

b)

Endogenous

c)

Antisepsis

d)

Exogenous

69.

Requiring oxygen to live and grow.

a)

Aerobic

b)

Endogenous

c)

Anaerobic

d)

Exogenous

70.

Containing infection or infectious organisms or germs.

a)

Sterilization

b)

Disinfection

c)

Contaminated

d)

Sterile

71.

The absence of disease-producing microorganisms, or pathogens; Being free from infection.

a)

Antisepsis

b)

Sterile

c)

Sterilization

d)

Asepsis

72.

Rules developed by the CDC to prevent the spread of infection.

a)

Standard Precautions

b)

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

c)

Chain of Infection

d)

Nosocomial

73.

Process that results in total destruction of all microorganisms, both pathogenic and nonpathogenic, including spores and viruses.

a)

Disinfection

b)

Sterilization

c)

Sterile

d)

Antisepsis

74.

Infection or disease originates within the body.

a)

Aerobic

b)

Exogenous

c)

Anaerobic

d)

Endogenous

75.

Aseptic control that inhibits, retards growth of, or kills pathogenic organisms; not effective against spores

and viruses.

a)

Antisepsis

b)

Asepsis

c)

Sterile

d)

Sterilization

76.

Small, living plant or animal not visible to the naked eye; a microbe; must be viewed under a microscope.

a)

Bacteria

b)

Viruses

c)

Microorganism

d)

Fungi

77.

Not requiring oxygen to live and grow; able to thrive in the absence of oxygen.

a)

Sterile

b)

Anaerobic

c)

Sterilization

d)

Aerobic

78.

Free of all organisms, including spores and viruses.

a)

Sterilization

b)

Antisepsis

c)

Asepsis

d)

Sterile