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Audit Evidence Practice Questions

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is audit evidence according to PSA 500?

a)

Information used by the auditor to arrive at conclusions on the audit opinion.

b)

Information used by the auditor to prepare financial statements.

c)

Information used by the auditor to calculate tax liabilities.

d)

Information used by the auditor to assess employee performance.

2.

Which of the following is NOT a component of audit evidence as per PSA 500?

a)

Accounting records.

b)

Other information obtained by the auditor.

c)

Employee performance reviews.

d)

Analytical data.

3.

What does "sufficient appropriate audit evidence" mean?

a)

Evidence that is both quantitative and qualitative.

b)

Evidence that is sufficient in quantity and appropriate in quality.

c)

Evidence that is only quantitative.

d)

Evidence that is only qualitative.

4.

Which factor affects the reliability of audit evidence?

a)

The auditor's personal opinion.

b)

The source and nature of the evidence.

c)

The financial performance of the entity.

d)

The number of employees in the entity.

5.

What is the difference between external and internal sources of audit evidence?

a)

External sources are less reliable than internal sources.

b)

External sources are more reliable than internal sources.

c)

Internal sources are always more reliable than external sources.

d)

Internal sources are irrelevant to audit evidence.

6.

Why is evidence obtained directly by the auditor considered more reliable?

a)

It is based on inference.

b)

It is obtained through indirect methods.

c)

It is observed or inspected directly by the auditor.

d)

It is prepared by the client.

7.

What does PSA 500 emphasize about accounting records as part of audit evidence?

a)

Accounting records alone are sufficient for audit evidence.

b)

Accounting records must be corroborated by evidence from other sources.

c)

Accounting records are irrelevant to audit evidence.

d)

Accounting records are the only source of audit evidence.

8.

What is the role of professional judgment in determining sufficient appropriate audit evidence?

a)

To determine the quantity and quality of evidence needed.

b)

To ignore the risk assessment process.

c)

To rely solely on weak evidence.

d)

To avoid gathering evidence from multiple sources.

9.

Which type of evidence is considered more reliable according to the text?

a)

Oral representations

b)

Written or documentary form

c)

Photocopies of documents

d)

Digital scans

10.

Why are original documents preferred over copies in audit procedures?

a)

Copies are easier to handle.

b)

Originals are more reliable and ensure authenticity.

c)

Originals are less expensive to obtain.

d)

Copies are always accurate.

11.

What makes evidence more persuasive according to the text?

a)

When it is consistent with other independent sources.

b)

When it is obtained from oral explanations.

c)

When it is based on assumptions.

d)

When it is derived from incomplete documents.

12.

What is the primary purpose of inspecting tangible assets during an audit?

a)

To verify the existence and condition of the asset.

b)

To calculate the depreciation of the asset.

c)

To determine the market value of the asset.

d)

To compare the asset with similar assets.

13.

Which audit procedure involves obtaining a direct written response from a third party?

a)

Observation

b)

Inquiry

c)

External confirmation

d)

Recalculation

14.

What is the main focus of analytical procedures in auditing?

a)

Physically examining assets.

b)

Evaluating financial information through analysis of relationships.

c)

Observing processes performed by others.

d)

Asking questions of knowledgeable persons.

15.

Which audit procedure involves checking the mathematical accuracy of documents or records?

a)

Observation

b)

Inquiry

c)

Recalculation

d)

External confirmation

16.

What is the limitation of observation as an audit procedure?

a)

It is time-consuming.

b)

It may influence how the procedure is performed.

c)

It requires external confirmation.

d)

It cannot verify tangible assets.

17.

What does re-performance in auditing aim to achieve?

a)

To verify the effectiveness of controls.

b)

To observe processes performed by others.

c)

To confirm the existence of tangible assets.

d)

To analyze financial relationships.

18.

What is the role of inquiry in audit procedures?

a)

To provide direct written responses.

b)

To ask questions of knowledgeable persons for explanations.

c)

To observe processes performed by others.

d)

To evaluate financial relationships.

19.

What is the purpose of scanning in analytical procedures as per PSA 520?

a)

To identify unusual items and follow up with other procedures.

b)

To perform 100% examination of all transactions.

c)

To validate sources of evidence.

d)

To select representative samples for testing.

20.

Which method involves testing specific items based on criteria such as high-risk items or transactions?

a)

100% Examination.

b)

Specific Selection.

c)

Audit Sampling.

d)

Professional Skepticism.

21.

What does PSA 500 recommend if evidence obtained is inconsistent or raises doubts about its reliability?

a)

Ignore the inconsistency and proceed with the audit.

b)

Perform additional procedures to reconcile the differences.

c)

Select representative samples for testing.

d)

Focus only on high-risk items.

22.

What is the goal of audit sampling as described in the text?

a)

To test all items in a population.

b)

To project results to the entire population.

c)

To validate sources of evidence.

d)

To identify unusual items.

23.

What should an auditor do if a piece of evidence seems unreliable, such as an unusual document or oral statement?

a)

Ignore the evidence and proceed with the audit.

b)

Seek evidence from a more reliable source.

c)

Perform 100% examination of all transactions.

d)

Select representative samples for testing.

24.

What does professional skepticism require an auditor to do?

a)

Trust all evidence without questioning its authenticity.

b)

Remain skeptical and not ignore doubts.

c)

Perform 100% examination of all transactions.

d)

Focus only on high-risk items.

25.

What does scope limitation refer to in auditing?

a)

The inability to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence to resolve inconsistency or doubt.

b)

The process of selecting representative samples for testing.

c)

The act of performing 100% examination of all transactions.

d)

The validation of sources of evidence.

26.

Why are accounting records alone not sufficient as audit evidence?

a)

They are always accurate and reliable.

b)

They are internal to the entity and may be biased or incomplete.

c)

They provide all the corroborating evidence needed.

d)

They are external and free from manipulation.

27.

What is the primary reason auditors seek corroborating evidence in addition to accounting records?

a)

To reduce the workload of the audit process.

b)

To ensure the financial statements are free from errors or fraud.

c)

To avoid relying on external sources of information.

d)

To simplify the audit process.

28.

Which type of audit evidence is considered to have the highest reliability?

a)

Internally generated documents with weak controls.

b)

Oral evidence (inquiry).

c)

Third-party confirmations.

d)

Photocopies or faxes.

29.

What is an example of physical evidence used in an audit?

a)

Bank confirmation of account balance.

b)

Observing inventory in a warehouse.

c)

Auditor’s analysis of ratios and trends.

d)

Copy of a contract emailed to the auditor.

30.

Why is oral evidence considered to have low reliability?

a)

It is always biased and incomplete.

b)

It requires corroboration as it can be biased or misremembered.

c)

It is obtained directly from external sources.

d)

It is based on physical inspection of assets.

31.

Which type of internally generated document is considered to have moderate reliability?

a)

Documents from an entity with effective internal controls.

b)

Documents from an entity with poor controls.

c)

Photocopies of contracts.

d)

Oral explanations from management.

32.

What is the reliability of calculations performed by the auditor, such as recalculating depreciation?

a)

Low reliability.

b)

High reliability.

c)

Moderate reliability.

d)

Varies depending on the source.

33.

What is the reliability of photocopies or faxes used as audit evidence?

a)

High reliability.

b)

Moderate reliability.

c)

Lower than original documents.

d)

Equal to original documents.

34.

Which type of evidence is obtained directly from independent external sources?

a)

Internally generated documents.

b)

Third-party confirmations.

c)

Oral evidence.

d)

Analytical evidence.

35.

What is an example of analytical evidence in an audit?

a)

Observing inventory in a warehouse.

b)

Auditor’s analysis of ratios or trends.

c)

Bank confirmation of account balance.

d)

Management explanations about fluctuations.

36.

What is the primary purpose of analytical procedures in auditing?

a)

To identify unusual fluctuations and assist in risk assessment

b)

To prepare financial statements for external reporting

c)

To replace substantive procedures entirely

d)

To ensure compliance with tax regulations

37.

At what two key stages are analytical procedures required during an audit according to PSA 520?

a)

Planning stage and overall review stage

b)

Substantive testing stage and compliance stage

c)

Risk assessment stage and tax review stage

d)

Financial statement preparation stage and reporting stage

38.

Which of the following is an example of analytical procedures used as a substantive procedure?

a)

Comparing payroll expenses to expected amounts to identify discrepancies

b)

Preparing tax returns for the entity

c)

Conducting interviews with employees

d)

Reviewing the entity’s compliance with industry regulations

39.

What is the underlying premise of analytical procedures in auditing?

a)

Relationships among data should exist and persist unless something unusual has occurred

b)

Financial statements should always match industry norms

c)

Auditors should focus solely on non-financial data

d)

Analytical procedures are only used for tax audits

40.

How do analytical procedures assist during the planning stage of an audit?

a)

By identifying areas of potential risk of material misstatement

b)

By preparing the financial statements for external reporting

c)

By ensuring compliance with tax regulations

d)

By conducting interviews with management

41.

What is the role of analytical procedures during the overall review stage of an audit?

a)

To provide a final check for reasonableness and internal consistency of financial statements

b)

To prepare tax returns for the entity

c)

To conduct interviews with employees

d)

To ensure compliance with industry regulations

42.

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of analytical procedures in auditing?

a)

Identifying unusual fluctuations

b)

Assisting in risk assessment

c)

Ensuring compliance with tax regulations

d)

Obtaining substantive evidence

43.

What is the purpose of the Overall Review Stage in an audit?

a)

To identify areas of potential misstatement risk early in the audit.

b)

To apply analytical procedures as an overall review of financial statements.

c)

To investigate significant unexpected differences in financial data.

d)

To develop expectations for recorded account balances.

44.

Which of the following is NOT a source of expectations for analytical procedures?

a)

Prior period data.

b)

Industry data.

c)

Non-financial information.

d)

Random guesses.

45.

What is the first step involved in performing analytical procedures?

a)

Investigate significant differences.

b)

Compare the expectation to actual data.

c)

Develop an expectation.

d)

Recompute key financial ratios.

46.

What does the acronym PAINT stand for in the context of sources of expectations for analytical procedures?

a)

Prior period data, Anticipated results, Industry data, Non-financial information, Typical relationships.

b)

Predictive analysis, Annual trends, Industry benchmarks, Non-financial data, Time-based analysis.

c)

Prior period data, Analytical trends, Industry data, Non-financial information, Time-based analysis.

d)

Predictive analysis, Anticipated results, Industry benchmarks, Non-financial data, Typical relationships.

47.

What should an auditor do if significant unexpected differences are identified during analytical procedures?

a)

Ignore the differences if they are minor.

b)

Investigate the differences and obtain evidence of their cause.

c)

Recompute financial ratios to confirm the differences.

d)

Compare the differences to prior period data.

48.

Which of the following is an example of a substantive test that might use analytical procedures?

a)

Comparing depreciation expense to prior years.

b)

Investigating fraud through expanded procedures.

c)

Reviewing the auditor’s expectations of financial statements.

d)

Calculating the tolerance for differences in financial data.

49.

What is the role of inquiry of management during the investigation of significant unexpected differences?

a)

To develop expectations for recorded account balances.

b)

To obtain explanations for the reasons behind the variance.

c)

To compare actual recorded amounts to expected values.

d)

To recompute financial ratios for accuracy.

50.

What is the importance of tolerance for differences in analytical procedures?

a)

It ensures that the auditor investigates all variances.

b)

It sets an appropriate level for the assurance needed.

c)

It helps in developing expectations for financial data.

d)

It eliminates the need for substantive testing.

51.

Which of the following is an example of a high-level assessment performed during the Overall Review Stage?

a)

Comparing current year’s financial ratios to prior years.

b)

Investigating significant unexpected differences.

c)

Recomputing key financial ratios like return on assets and debt-to-equity.

d)

Developing expectations for recorded account balances.

52.

What is the purpose of comparing the expectation to actual data during analytical procedures?

a)

To develop an expectation for recorded account balances.

b)

To identify fluctuations or relationships that do not align with expectations.

c)

To recompute financial ratios for accuracy.

d)

To set tolerance levels for differences.

53.

Which factor influences the effectiveness of analytical procedures by determining whether financial statement items are amenable to analysis?

a)

Nature of the Assertion and Account

b)

Reliability of Data

c)

Precision of the Expectation

d)

Determination of an Appropriate Threshold

54.

What does the auditor rely on to ensure the analytical procedure's conclusions are not flawed?

a)

Predictability of Relationships

b)

Source data reliability

c)

Determination of an Appropriate Threshold

d)

Nature of the Assertion and Account

55.

Which factor involves the auditor defining what difference from expectation will be considered significant?

a)

Precision of the Expectation

b)

Determination of an Appropriate Threshold

c)

Reliability of Data

d)

Predictability of Relationships

56.

What is the role of analytical procedures when used as substantive tests?

a)

To detect material misstatements in financial statements

b)

To obtain direct evidence about financial statement assertions

c)

To compare industry averages with client operations

d)

To identify predictable patterns in financial data

57.

Which factor makes relationships involving income statement accounts more predictable?

a)

Precision of the Expectation

b)

Predictability of Relationships

c)

Determination of an Appropriate Threshold

d)

Reliability of Data

58.

What is the auditor's primary concern when using budget data for analytical procedures?

a)

Whether the data is realistic and not manipulated

b)

Whether the data is proportional to sales

c)

Whether the data is based on known loan terms

d)

Whether the data is affected by one-time events

59.

How can the precision of analytical procedures be improved?

a)

By using industry averages

b)

By incorporating multiple factors through regression analysis

c)

By relying on internal reports

d)

By using disaggregated data

60.

What type of accounts are less effective for analytical procedures due to their unique transactions or estimates?

a)

Income statement accounts proportional to sales

b)

Accounts with predictable patterns

c)

Accounts with unique transactions or estimates like impairment loss

d)

Accounts with monthly level data

61.

What does the auditor consider when determining the tolerable difference for analytical procedures?

a)

Materiality and level of assurance desired

b)

Predictability of relationships

c)

Reliability of data

d)

Nature of the assertion and account

62.

What type of analytical procedures can provide evidence for assertions such as completeness, occurrence, or valuation?

a)

Substantive tests

b)

Regression analysis

c)

Disaggregated data analysis

d)

Industry average comparisons

63.

What is required for an analytical procedure to serve as a substantive test?

a)

The relationship being tested must be sound and correlated with the account.

b)

The expectation must be quantified with an explicit expected value or range.

c)

The difference between the recorded amount and the expectation must be evaluated against a pre-determined threshold.

d)

All of the above.

64.

Which of the following is an example of trend analysis in auditing?

a)

Comparing monthly sales over the year to identify unusual spikes or dips.

b)

Evaluating relationships between financial statement items using ratios.

c)

Developing an expected value for an account using available information.

d)

Using regression to predict an account based on multiple factors.

65.

What does ratio analysis in auditing typically involve?

a)

Comparing account balances over time.

b)

Evaluating relationships between financial statement items using ratios like gross profit margin and current ratio.

c)

Developing an expected value for an account using available information.

d)

Using regression to predict an account based on multiple factors.

66.

Which of the following is an example of reasonableness tests in auditing?

a)

Comparing this year’s balances to last year’s and computing the percentage change.

b)

Estimating interest expense using loan balance and interest rates from bank confirmations.

c)

Evaluating relationships between financial statement items using ratios.

d)

Using regression to predict an account based on multiple factors.

67.

What is structural modeling or regression analysis used for in auditing?

a)

Comparing account balances over time.

b)

Evaluating relationships between financial statement items using ratios.

c)

Predicting account balances based on economic indicators or internal drivers.

d)

Developing an expected value for an account using available information.

68.

What is the primary focus of analytical procedures during the planning stage of an audit?

a)

To enhance understanding of the client's business and identify areas of increased risk of misstatement.

b)

To recompute ratios and compare them to prior periods.

c)

To ensure completeness and consistency of financial statements.

d)

To verify the launch of new products through press releases.

69.

What is the main objective of analytical procedures during the final review stage of an audit?

a)

To identify areas of interest for further examination during fieldwork.

b)

To act as a completeness and consistency check for financial statements.

c)

To calculate expected raw material usage based on production units.

d)

To detect waste, theft, or error in recording.

70.

What should an auditor do if analytical procedures uncover an unexpected difference?

a)

Ignore the difference if it is minor.

b)

Treat the difference as a red flag and resolve it.

c)

Adjust the financial statements without further investigation.

d)

Recompute ratios and compare them to prior periods.

71.

Which of the following is an example of corroborating management’s explanation for an unexpected difference?

a)

Asking management for reasons behind the difference.

b)

Verifying the launch of a new product through press releases or website information.

c)

Comparing financial statements to budgets and forecasts.

d)

Calculating expected raw material usage based on production units.

72.

What is the difference in materiality thresholds between planning analytics and final review analytics?

a)

Materiality thresholds are tighter during the planning stage.

b)

Materiality thresholds are tighter during the final review stage.

c)

Materiality thresholds are the same in both stages.

d)

Materiality thresholds are not considered in either stage.

73.

What is the purpose of comparing financial data to non-financial data during an audit?

a)

To detect waste, theft, or errors in recording.

b)

To recompute ratios and compare them to prior periods.

c)

To act as a completeness and consistency check.

d)

To identify areas of interest for further examination.

74.

What is the role of planning analytics in an audit?

a)

To act as a net to catch any residual issues at the end of the audit.

b)

To cast a wide net to catch any potential risk areas early.

c)

To recompute ratios and compare them to prior periods.

d)

To ensure the results of substantive tests align with financials.

75.

What is the significance of large variances between budgets and actual results during an audit?

a)

They indicate the budgets were realistic.

b)

They suggest an undisclosed liability or loss.

c)

They confirm the accuracy of financial statements.

d)

They show the effectiveness of management’s planning.

76.

What is the primary purpose of external confirmations in auditing?

a)

To verify internal management decisions.

b)

To confirm specific information directly from third parties.

c)

To analyze financial statements internally.

d)

To assess the auditor's performance.

77.

Which of the following is an example of external confirmation?

a)

Reviewing internal financial reports.

b)

Confirming bank balances with the bank.

c)

Conducting internal audits.

d)

Analyzing cost of sales transactions.

78.

What does PSA 505 emphasize about external confirmations?

a)

They should be conducted by internal auditors only.

b)

They provide evidence that is highly reliable.

c)

They are optional in the auditing process.

d)

They focus solely on internal management reports.

79.

What should an auditor do if an unexpected drop in gross margin is not satisfactorily explained?

a)

Accept the explanation provided by management.

b)

Perform additional procedures to test more samples or verify inventory costing.

c)

Ignore the anomaly and proceed with the audit.

d)

Reassess the tolerable misstatement without further investigation.

80.

Why is it important for auditors to document the outcome of their procedures?

a)

To ensure the audit is completed quickly.

b)

To provide evidence of how the auditor dealt with the anomaly.

c)

To avoid performing additional procedures.

d)

To confirm the auditor's personal opinions.

81.

What should an auditor consider when evaluating materiality?

a)

Whether the difference is potentially material and cannot be explained.

b)

Whether the anomaly aligns with management's expectations.

c)

Whether the audit plan needs adjustment.

d)

Whether the auditor's personal judgment is sufficient.

82.

What is the significance of reassessing risk assessments during an audit?

a)

To ensure the audit is completed on time.

b)

To address unexplained differences that might indicate underestimated risks.

c)

To confirm the auditor's initial assumptions.

d)

To avoid performing additional procedures.

83.

What is the defining feature of external confirmations?

a)

They rely on internal management reports.

b)

They come directly from outside the client’s organization.

c)

They are based on the auditor’s assumptions.

d)

They are optional in the auditing process.

84.

Which of the following is NOT a reason why external confirmations are considered highly reliable?

a)

They come from an independent source.

b)

They are free from management influence.

c)

They are based on internal financial reports.

d)

They provide direct written responses from third parties.

85.

What is the role of external confirmations in verifying rights and obligations?

a)

To confirm ownership or responsibility for amounts.

b)

To analyze internal management decisions.

c)

To assess the auditor’s performance.

d)

To ignore valuation aspects.

86.

What is the primary purpose of verifying account balances during an audit?

a)

To confirm the terms of a loan agreement

b)

To detect unrecorded liabilities

c)

To obtain evidence that the recorded amount is accurate

d)

To uncover intentional misstatements

87.

Which type of external confirmation requires the third party to respond only if they disagree with the information stated in the request?

a)

Positive confirmation

b)

Blank confirmation

c)

Negative confirmation

d)

Fraud confirmation

88.

What is a key limitation of negative confirmations?

a)

They require more effort from the recipient

b)

Lack of response is assumed to mean agreement

c)

They are used for verifying existence and accuracy

d)

They are more reliable than positive confirmations

89.

When are positive confirmations considered more appropriate than negative confirmations?

a)

When balances are small and insignificant

b)

When inherent or control risks are high

c)

When the auditor wants to avoid follow-up procedures

d)

When the third party is unlikely to respond

90.

What is the main advantage of blank confirmations over other types of confirmations?

a)

They are less disruptive to the respondent

b)

They provide stronger evidence of accuracy

c)

They assume silence means agreement

d)

They are used for detecting fraud

91.

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of external confirmations in auditing?

a)

Fraud deterrence/detection

b)

Confirming terms and arrangements

c)

Detection of unrecorded items

d)

Valuation of assets

92.

What is the primary difference between positive and negative confirmations?

a)

Positive confirmations require a response in all cases, while negative confirmations require a response only if there is disagreement

b)

Positive confirmations are less reliable than negative confirmations

c)

Negative confirmations are used for large balances, while positive confirmations are used for small balances

d)

Negative confirmations require the third party to provide the amount owed, while positive confirmations do not

93.

Why are external confirmations considered a strong form of evidence in auditing?

a)

They are easy to obtain and require minimal effort

b)

They provide direct evidence from an independent third party

c)

They eliminate the need for other audit procedures

d)

They are only used for detecting fraud

94.

Which of the following is an example of detecting unrecorded liabilities using external confirmations?

a)

Confirming a client’s account balance with a bank

b)

Asking a law firm to list any pending lawsuits involving the client

c)

Sending confirmations to customers to verify sales

d)

Confirming contract terms with a lender

95.

What is the main purpose of fraud deterrence/detection in external confirmations?

a)

To confirm the terms of a loan agreement

b)

To uncover intentional misstatements

c)

To detect unrecorded liabilities

d)

To verify account balances

96.

What is the primary purpose of positive confirmations in auditing?

a)

To provide less persuasive evidence for account balances.

b)

To uncover issues like disputed balances or accounts the third party doesn’t recognize.

c)

To assume the balance is correct if no response is received.

d)

To disregard requests from recipients.

97.

Under what conditions can negative confirmations be used as the sole substantive procedure for an assertion?

a)

When the population of items is small and of high individual value.

b)

When the risk of material misstatement is high.

c)

When the population of items is large in number, small in individual value, and very homogeneous.

d)

When recipients are likely to disregard the requests.

98.

What is one of the auditor’s responsibilities in controlling the external confirmation process?

a)

Ignoring discrepancies in responses.

b)

Selecting confirming parties who can provide reliable information.

c)

Assuming the balance is correct if no response is received.

d)

Sending confirmations only to the client’s provided addresses.

99.

Why are negative confirmations typically not used for high importance accounts?

a)

Because they provide highly persuasive evidence.

b)

Because they rely on recipients’ attentiveness and may not ensure reliable evidence.

c)

Because they require explicit replies from recipients.

d)

Because they are used only for disputed balances.

100.

What does PSA 505 require the auditor to maintain control over during the confirmation process?

a)

The client’s manipulation of the confirmation process.

b)

The selection of confirming parties and determination of information to confirm.

c)

The assumption that all balances are correct.

d)

The disregard of requests from recipients.