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Capital Budgeting and Depreciation Concepts

Total questions: 1

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1-100.
1.

What is the study of a business's money-related decisions called?

a)

Corporate Finance

b)

Business Management

c)

Financial Accounting

d)

Economic Analysis

2.

What is the goal of corporate finance?

a)

To maximize a business's value

b)

To minimize business expenses

c)

To increase employee satisfaction

d)

To reduce product prices

3.

What does cash flow represent in a company?

a)

The representation of a company’s operating, investing, and financial activities over a period of time

b)

The total profit made by a company

c)

The number of employees in a company

d)

The amount of products sold by a company

4.

What is the purpose of a cash flow statement report?

a)

To show how cash is spent and obtained in a company

b)

To list all company assets

c)

To calculate employee salaries

d)

To determine product pricing

5.

What does depreciation refer to in accounting?

a)

Annual charge of a fixed asset against its book value

b)

Increase in asset value over time

c)

Total revenue generated by a company

d)

Number of products sold annually

6.

What is the primary use of Discounted Cash Flow (DCF)?

a)

To determine the profitability of an investment opportunity

b)

To calculate the total revenue of a company

c)

To assess the market share of a business

d)

To evaluate employee performance

7.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Discounted Cash Flow (DCF)?

a)

It uses future free cash flow projections

b)

It is a static number

c)

It changes over time

d)

It discounts cash flows to arrive at a present value

8.

What does the 'r' represent in the DCF formula?

a)

Revenue

b)

Rate of return

c)

Discount rate

d)

Risk factor

9.

Operating Cash Flow (OCF) helps companies in which of the following ways?

a)

Expand and develop new products

b)

Increase employee salaries

c)

Reduce production costs

d)

Enhance marketing strategies

10.

How is Operating Cash Flow (OCF) calculated?

a)

Net Income + Non-Cash Expense (Depreciation) + Changes in Working Capital

b)

Total Revenue - Total Expenses

c)

Net Profit + Depreciation - Taxes

d)

Gross Income - Operating Expenses

11.

What is the formula for calculating Operating Cash Flow (OCF)?

a)

Net Income + Non-Cash Expense + Changes in Working Capital

b)

Net Income - Depreciation + Working Capital

c)

Net Income + Cash Expense - Changes in Working Capital

d)

Net Income - Non-Cash Expense - Changes in Working Capital

12.

What does Terminal Cash Flow represent?

a)

Initial cash flow at the start of a project

b)

Final cash flow at the end of a project’s life

c)

Cash flow during the middle of a project

d)

Cash flow excluding tax proceeds

13.

How is Terminal Cash Flow calculated?

a)

Salvage Value - Working Capital

b)

Salvage Value + Working Capital

c)

Salvage Value x Working Capital

d)

Salvage Value / Working Capital

14.

What does depreciation indicate in accounting?

a)

Increase in an asset’s value over time

b)

How much of an asset’s value has been expensed

c)

Total value of an asset at the end of its life

d)

Initial cost of an asset

15.

What is required to calculate depreciation?

a)

Cost of the asset

b)

Market demand

c)

Employee salaries

d)

Company revenue

16.

Which of the following items can depreciate?

a)

Buildings

b)

Software

c)

Land

d)

Patents

17.

What is the most common method used to calculate depreciation?

a)

Straight-line

b)

Double-declining balance

c)

Sum-of-the-years-digits

d)

Reducing balance

18.

How is straight-line depreciation calculated?

a)

(Purchase Price – Salvage Value) / Useful Life

b)

(Purchase Price + Salvage Value) / Useful Life

c)

(Purchase Price × Salvage Value) / Useful Life

d)

(Purchase Price / Salvage Value) × Useful Life

19.

What is the annual depreciation amount for Pete's Pizza's delivery van using the straight-line depreciation method?

a)

$3,750

b)

$5,000

c)

$4,000

d)

$2,500

20.

What is the unit-of-production depreciation based on?

a)

Amount of usage or output of an asset

b)

Time

c)

Initial cost of the asset

d)

Market value

21.

How is the depreciation per unit calculated in the unit-of-production method?

a)

(Cost - Salvage Value) / Total Units of Production

b)

(Cost + Salvage Value) / Total Units of Production

c)

(Cost - Salvage Value) x Total Units of Production

d)

(Cost + Salvage Value) x Total Units of Production

22.

What is the depreciation expense for Gizmo’s & Gadgets' machine if they produced 5,000 units this year?

a)

$45,000

b)

$9,000

c)

$20,000

d)

$5,000

23.

What is one advantage of accelerated depreciation?

a)

Allows greater deductions earlier in the life of the asset

b)

Increases taxable income

c)

Depreciates assets slower in earlier years

d)

Reduces initial cost of the asset

24.

What is one advantage of accelerated depreciation for startups?

a)

Increased tax debt

b)

Reduced initial deductions

c)

Benefit from decreased tax debt

d)

Increased equipment costs

25.

Which method is a type of accelerated depreciation?

a)

Straight-line method

b)

Sum-of-years' digits method

c)

Units of production method

d)

Historical cost method

26.

What does the sum-of-years' digits method assume about assets?

a)

Assets are less productive when new

b)

Assets are more productive when old

c)

Assets are more productive when new

d)

Assets have constant productivity

27.

What is the formula for the sum of years' digits in the sum-of-years' digits method?

a)

n(n+1) / 2

b)

n(n-1) / 2

c)

n2/2n^2 / 2

d)

n(n+2) / 2

28.

What is the formula for calculating SYD Depreciation?

a)

Depreciable Base x (Remaining Useful Life / Sum of Years' Digits)

b)

(Cost of Asset - Salvage Value) / Years of Useful Life

c)

(Cost of Asset - Salvage Value) x 2

d)

Depreciable Base / Remaining Useful Life

29.

How many years is the remaining useful life in the Sum-of-Years' Digits Method Example?

a)

5 years

b)

10 years

c)

15 years

d)

20 years

30.

What is the purpose of the Double-Declining-Balance Method?

a)

To increase the asset's useful life

b)

To accelerate depreciation within the first few years

c)

To calculate the salvage value

d)

To decrease the asset's cost

31.

In the Double-Declining-Balance Method Example, what is the cost of the machine purchased by Gizmo’s & Gadgets?

a)

$100,000

b)

$250,000

c)

$500,000

d)

$750,000

32.

Who introduced the concept of Capital Market Efficiency?

a)

John Maynard Keynes

b)

Eugene Fama

c)

Milton Friedman

d)

Adam Smith

33.

In what year was the concept of Capital Market Efficiency introduced?

a)

1965

b)

1970

c)

1980

d)

1990

34.

What is the theory called that suggests it is impossible to outperform the market?

a)

Market Equilibrium Theory

b)

Efficient Market Hypothesis

c)

Random Walk Theory

d)

Supply and Demand Theory

35.

According to the Efficient Market Hypothesis, what is assumed about investors?

a)

All investors have different information

b)

All investors analyze all available information in the same manner

c)

Investors can always outperform the market

d)

Investors never analyze information

36.

What is the primary goal for businesses in terms of shareholder value?

a)

To decrease earnings

b)

To grow earnings

c)

To maintain current earnings

d)

To reduce shareholder value

37.

What is capital budgeting primarily used for?

a)

To determine the color of company logos

b)

To decide on employee salaries

c)

To assess if a new project is worth pursuing

d)

To calculate taxes

38.

Which of the following is NOT a method used in capital budgeting?

a)

Net present value (NPV)

b)

Internal rate of return (IRR)

c)

Discounted cash flow (DCF)

d)

Gross profit margin

39.

What does NPV stand for in capital budgeting?

a)

Net Profit Value

b)

New Project Value

c)

Net Present Value

d)

Non-Profit Value

40.

In the NPV formula, what does 'C0' represent?

a)

Cash flow

b)

Initial investment

c)

Discount rate

d)

Time

41.

What is the Net Present Value (NPV) for the piece of equipment bought by Sam's Metal Works?

a)

$45,631.07

b)

$50,000.00

c)

$38,834.95

d)

$58,252.43

42.

What is the interest rate at which the net present value of cash flows equals zero called?

a)

Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

b)

Net Present Value (NPV)

c)

Discount Rate

d)

Cash Flow Rate

43.

Which of the following is true about the Internal Rate of Return (IRR)?

a)

The higher the IRR, the more desirable the project

b)

The lower the IRR, the more desirable the project

c)

IRR is always equal to the discount rate

d)

IRR can be solved analytically without any calculations

44.

Which formula is used to calculate the Internal Rate of Return (IRR)?

a)

0 = { [CF₁ / (1 + r)¹] + [CF₂ / (1 + r)²] + CF₃ / (1 + r)³ + ….} – Initial Investment

b)

NPV = Cash Inflows - Cash Outflows

c)

IRR = Total Revenue / Total Investment

d)

IRR = (Net Profit / Total Assets) x 100

45.

What is the first step in the alternative procedure for solving for "r"?

a)

Guess the value of r and calculate the NPV of the project at that value

b)

If NPV is greater than zero then increase r

c)

If NPV is smaller than zero then decrease r

d)

Recalculate NPV using the new value of r

46.

In the IRR calculation example, what is the approximate IRR when the NPV is close to zero?

a)

14%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

18%

47.

What does the payback period measure?

a)

The length of time required to recover the cost of an investment

b)

The total profit from an investment

c)

The interest rate of an investment

d)

The initial cost of an investment

48.

How is the payback period calculated?

a)

Cost of Project / Annual Cash Inflows

b)

Annual Cash Inflows / Cost of Project

c)

Cost of Project x Annual Cash Inflows

d)

Annual Cash Inflows x Cost of Project

49.

In the payback period example (even), how many years does it take to recover the initial investment?

a)

4 years

b)

6 years

c)

5 years

d)

3 years

50.

What is the purpose of capital expenditures?

a)

To reduce company debts

b)

To acquire or upgrade physical assets

c)

To increase employee salaries

d)

To invest in stocks

51.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a capital expenditure?

a)

Repairing a roof on a building

b)

Purchasing a piece of equipment

c)

Building a new building

d)

Paying utility bills

52.

What is the first step in the Corporate Financial Planning Process?

a)

Implement the financial planning recommendations

b)

Develop and present the financial planning recommendations

c)

Establish and define the client-planner relationship

d)

Monitor the financial planning recommendations

53.

What does the step "Establish & Define the Client-Planner Relationship" involve?

a)

Analyzing the client's financial status

b)

Implementing financial recommendations

c)

Explaining or documenting the services to be provided

d)

Monitoring financial planning recommendations

54.

What is involved in Step 2 of gathering client data and determining goals?

a)

Identifying the client's financial situation

b)

Implementing the financial plan

c)

Monitoring the financial plan

d)

Offering financial planning recommendations

55.

Which of the following is analyzed in Step 3 when evaluating the client's financial status?

a)

Marketing strategies

b)

Client's hobbies

c)

Assets and liabilities

d)

Personal relationships

56.

What is the role of the financial planner in Step 5?

a)

To determine the client's hobbies

b)

To agree on a course of action with the client

c)

To analyze the client's personal relationships

d)

To monitor the client's daily activities

57.

What does Step 6 involve in monitoring the financial planning recommendations?

a)

Determining a marketing plan

b)

Holding periodic meetings

c)

Analyzing the client's hobbies

d)

Offering new financial products

58.

What is the primary purpose of short-term financial plans?

a)

To meet budget and investment goals within one fiscal year

b)

To plan for long-term investments

c)

To increase company profits

d)

To reduce employee turnover

59.

What is one of the objectives of cash planning?

a)

To increase employee satisfaction

b)

To ensure expenditures are smoothly financed during the year

c)

To expand the business internationally

d)

To reduce the number of employees

60.

When forecasting for cash flow, what should be used?

a)

Best-case scenarios

b)

Worst-case scenarios or historical monthly averages

c)

Random guesses

d)

Daily sales figures

61.

What does consolidating predictable expenses involve?

a)

Combining expenses like rent, payroll, and utilities into one figure

b)

Reducing all expenses by 50%

c)

Eliminating unnecessary expenses

d)

Increasing investment in new projects

62.

What is one of the purposes of cash planning steps in business?

a)

To reduce employee salaries

b)

To adjust for growth

c)

To increase product prices

d)

To decrease marketing efforts

63.

What should a cash budget include to forecast cash requirements?

a)

Weekly sales reports

b)

Monthly profit margins

c)

Daily cash outflow

d)

Annual tax returns

64.

What is the starting point in cash budget components?

a)

Deciding on the time period

b)

Calculating annual revenue

c)

Estimating employee bonuses

d)

Determining product costs

65.

What does a cash budget help to forecast?

a)

Employee satisfaction

b)

Product quality

c)

Cash sources and uses

d)

Market trends

66.

What is the beginning cash amount in Week 1 according to the cash budget example?

a)

$25,000

b)

$55,000

c)

$17,000

d)

$28,000

67.

Which of the following is a source of cash in the cash budget example?

a)

Direct labor

b)

Asset sales

c)

Dividend payments

d)

Direct materials

68.

What is the total cash available in Week 2?

a)

$245,000

b)

$282,000

c)

$237,000

d)

$263,000

69.

What is one of the uses of cash listed in the cash budget example?

a)

Cash sales

b)

Accounts receivable collected

c)

Direct materials

d)

Asset sales

70.

What does profit planning outline according to the document?

a)

Cash flow

b)

Sales revenue, expenses, and net income of loss

c)

Asset purchases

d)

Dividend payments

71.

Which step is included in profit planning?

a)

Establishing profit goals

b)

Calculating tax returns

c)

Determining asset depreciation

d)

Analyzing market trends

72.

What is one of the steps in profit planning according to the document?

a)

Estimate the exact profit

b)

Determine the estimated profit

c)

Ignore past sales data

d)

Use only current sales data

73.

What does the term "Pro Forma" mean?

a)

As a matter of fact

b)

As a matter of form

c)

As a matter of finance

d)

As a matter of function

74.

Why does the SEC require a pro forma statement?

a)

To provide a comparable statement

b)

To provide an exact statement

c)

To provide a flexible statement

d)

To provide a random statement

75.

Which organizations require companies to use a standard format for pro forma statements?

a)

American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) and Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)

b)

American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) and Federal Reserve

c)

Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and Internal Revenue Service (IRS)

d)

Federal Reserve and Internal Revenue Service (IRS)

76.

What is included in a pro forma statement format?

a)

Condensed historical amounts

b)

Future projections

c)

Market analysis

d)

Competitor data

77.

What is the purpose of valuation in accounting?

a)

To determine the potential merits of an investment

b)

To calculate tax liabilities

c)

To assess employee performance

d)

To forecast market trends

78.

What does the terminal year cash flow include?

a)

Both inflow and outflow

b)

Only inflow

c)

Only outflow

d)

Future projections

79.

What are capital markets used for?

a)

Buying and selling equity and debt instruments

b)

Trading commodities

c)

Real estate transactions

d)

Currency exchange

80.

Which of the following is a primary market activity?

a)

Selling new stock and bond issues to investors

b)

Trading existing securities

c)

Currency exchange

d)

Real estate transactions

81.

What is a characteristic of primary markets?

a)

Investors can refrain from making long-term investments.

b)

Price manipulation is smaller, making investing safer.

c)

Allow supply and demand to determine the price.

d)

Are considered riskier than government bonds.

82.

What is a feature of secondary markets?

a)

Set a beginning price range for a security.

b)

The company receives the money and issues new certificates.

c)

Allow funds to go to the investor rather than the underlying company.

d)

Are debt securities issued by a corporation.

83.

What are corporate bonds considered to be?

a)

Safer than government bonds.

b)

Riskier than government bonds.

c)

Less volatile than primary markets.

d)

Easier to issue at higher interest rates.

84.

What does a higher company's credit quality affect?

a)

Makes it harder to issue debt at lower rates.

b)

Makes it easier to issue debt at lower rates.

c)

Increases the risk of corporate bonds.

d)

Decreases the coupon payment structure.

85.

What does long-term debt include?

a)

Short-term loans.

b)

Government bonds.

c)

Company bond issues and long-term leases.

d)

Primary market securities.

86.

What does a Debt-to-Equity Ratio under one indicate about a business?

a)

The business has greater financial stability.

b)

The business has accrued too much long-term debt.

c)

The business is going public.

d)

The business needs to raise money.

87.

Why might a company issue stock?

a)

To increase its debt-to-equity ratio.

b)

To go public or raise money.

c)

To decrease shareholder ownership.

d)

To lower the par value of shares.

88.

What are the two types of shares mentioned?

a)

Common and convertible stock.

b)

Preferred and convertible stock.

c)

Common and preferred stock.

d)

Ordinary and debiting stock.

89.

What is the par value of a stock typically set at?

a)

A dollar.

b)

A penny.

c)

A quarter.

d)

A dime.

90.

What does the conversion ratio determine in convertible preferred stock?

a)

The par value of the stock.

b)

The amount of debiting cash.

c)

The conversion price.

d)

The total liabilities.

91.

What is the conversion premium percentage?

a)

The difference between the preferred share’s market value and its conversion value, divided by the market value

b)

The difference between the preferred share’s parity value and its conversion value, divided by the parity value

c)

The sum of the preferred share’s parity value and its conversion value, divided by the parity value

d)

The product of the preferred share’s parity value and its conversion value, divided by the parity value

92.

What happens when common stock prices influence the prices of convertible preferred shares with a low conversion premium percentage?

a)

The preferred shares become less attractive

b)

The preferred shares trade like a bond

c)

The preferred shares become more attractive

d)

The preferred shares are unaffected

93.

In the example provided, what is the conversion price if Corporation HGO issues preferred shares for $100 each with a conversion ratio of 5.0?

a)

$10

b)

$15

c)

$20

d)

$25

94.

If Corporation HGO common stock has a market price of $15, what is the conversion value of a preferred share with a conversion ratio of 5.0?

a)

$50

b)

$60

c)

$75

d)

$90

95.

What is the conversion premium percentage if the conversion values are divided by 100, resulting in 25%?

a)

10%

b)

15%

c)

20%

d)

25%

96.

What is the formula for calculating the conversion ratio when converting bonds to common stock?

a)

Par Value of Convertible Bond / Conversion Price of Stock

b)

Conversion Price of Stock / Par Value of Convertible Bond

c)

Par Value of Convertible Bond + Conversion Price of Stock

d)

Conversion Price of Stock - Par Value of Convertible Bond

97.

How many shares of common stock can be obtained from a bond with a par value of $1,000 and a conversion price of $40?

a)

25 shares

b)

20 shares

c)

30 shares

d)

15 shares

98.

What is a dividend?

a)

A distribution of a portion of a company’s earnings to shareholders

b)

A loan taken by a company from shareholders

c)

A penalty paid by shareholders to the company

d)

A tax imposed on a company’s earnings

99.

Which of the following is NOT a type of dividend?

a)

Cash dividends

b)

Stock dividends

c)

Interest dividends

d)

Scrip dividends

100.

What does a Dividend Reinvestment Plan allow an investor to do?

a)

Reinvest their cash dividend by purchasing additional shares

b)

Withdraw their cash dividend as cash

c)

Convert their cash dividend into bonds

d)

Sell their shares at a premium rate