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Worksheets

KO 14 Business

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary purpose of business operations?

a)

To produce goods

b)

To provide a service

c)

Both of the above

d)

None of the above

2.

Which of the following is a type of production process?

a)

Batch

b)

Creation

c)

Standard

3.

Which of the following best describes job production?

a)

Large scale production of standardised products

b)

Producing goods in batches

c)

Customised production of unique products based on specific customer requirements

4.

Which of the following industries is most likely to use job production?

a)

Fast food

b)

Car manufacturer

c)

Bespoke jewellery maker

d)

Clothing retailer

5.

Which of these best describes flow production?

a)

A customised product produced in small quantities

b)

A standardised product produced on a large scale

c)

An expensive product manufactured overseas

d)

A product produced with a limited number available

6.

What is a key advantage of flow production?

a)

High economies of scale

b)

Highly skilled workforce

c)

Unique and individualised products

d)

Limited number of products

7.

How does technology impact the cost of production?

a)

Increases costs

b)

Decreases costs

c)

Costs stay the same

8.

How will using technology to automate parts of the production process impact productivity?

a)

Increase productivity

b)

Decrease productivity

c)

Productivity stays the same

9.

What role does technology play in improving quality in production?

a)

It increases the product range

b)

It makes products cheaper

c)

It helps reduce human error

d)

It has no impact

10.

True or False: There are no negatives of introducing technology into a business’s operations.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

What is procurement?

a)

The manufacturing of goods

b)

Obtaining the goods a company needs to support its daily operations

c)

A positive management method

d)

Obtaining new equipment

12.

What type of stock is a completed luxury watch?

a)

Raw materials

b)

Work in progress

c)

Finished stock

13.

What type of graph can a business use to monitor its stock levels?

a)

Bar gate stock graph

b)

Simple stock graph

c)

Line graph

d)

Production graph

14.

What can the minimum stock level also be known as?

a)

Lead stock

b)

Key stock

c)

Spare stock

d)

Buffer stock

15.

True or False: Lead time is how long a product takes to sell.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

JIT is an abbreviation for what?

a)

Just in teams

b)

Just in time

c)

Just is taken

d)

Just is timed

17.

Which of these is an advantage of JIT stock control?

a)

Less capital tied up in stock

b)

More stock available in the warehouse

c)

Not good for perishable goods

d)

Increases capital expenditure

18.

Why would a fresh fruit and veg shop use JIT stock control?

a)

To increase the number of customers

b)

To increase stock levels

c)

To reduce waste

d)

To decrease their range

19.

The organisation and transportation of goods is known as what?

a)

Procurement

b)

Logistics

c)

Stock

d)

Lead time

20.

Which of the following would a fresh fruit and veg business expect from their suppliers?

a)

No trade credit

b)

Fresh quality produce

c)

Long lead times

d)

Limited availability

21.

Which of these is a sign of good quality?

a)

Produced from high quality materials

b)

Lasts a long time

c)

Assembled well

d)

All the above

22.

True or False: Quality control and quality assurance are the same thing.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Which of these describes quality control?

a)

The process of inspecting a product’s quality against the required standard

b)

Establishing standards, guidelines and procedures to prevent quality issues and maintain the integrity of the product

c)

The process of ensuring no product can ever be possibly faulty

24.

What does quality assurance mean?

a)

The process of inspecting a product’s quality against the required standard

b)

Establishing standards, guidelines and procedures to prevent quality issues and maintain the integrity of the product

c)

The process of ensuring no product can ever be possibly faulty

25.

True or False: The main difference between QA and QC is that quality assurance focuses on planning to prevent risks that could affect quality during production, while quality control focuses on testing the quality of the output once the product or service has been made.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Which of these is a method of quality control?

a)

Increased costs

b)

More employees

c)

Feedback

d)

Larger output

27.

What would be a measure of good quality from a window cleaner?

a)

Good prices

b)

Clean windows

c)

Multiple employees

d)

Excellent equipment

28.

Which of these is NOT an accredited quality mark?

a)

Investors in people mark

b)

CE mark

c)

Kitemark

d)

Recycle mark

29.

Why is quality important to a business?

a)

It can reduce their market share

b)

It can give them a competitive advantage

c)

It can improve their marketing mix

30.

A high quality product can help build a strong what?

a)

Employee

b)

Brand image

c)

Building

d)

Customer

31.

Which of the following is NOT a factor in the sales process?

a)

Consumer sales

b)

Customer interest

c)

Speed and efficiency of service

d)

All the above

32.

What is the importance of customer engagement in the sales process?

a)

It helps build a personal connection with customers

b)

It increases employee satisfaction

c)

Managers like employees that do this

d)

None of the above

33.

Which factor in the sales process involves responding to customer feedback?

a)

Post sales service

b)

Customer loyalty

c)

Customer interest

d)

Product knowledge

34.

How many stages are there in the sales process?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

35.

Cameron works in a golf shop and knows everything there is to know about golf clubs. What is Cameron demonstrating?

a)

Product knowledge

b)

The sales process

c)

Post sales service

d)

Clear communication skills

36.

True or False: A sales approach can be either hard or soft?

a)

True

b)

False

37.

What is post sales service?

a)

Service that is given before the product has been purchased

b)

Sales that are completed online

c)

Sales that are done in person

d)

Service that is given after the product has been purchased

38.

True or False: Cold calling customer is an example of a hard sales approach.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Customers that like a business’s post on social media is an example of what?

a)

Speed and efficiency

b)

Customer engagement

c)

Customer retention

d)

Product excellence

40.

Which of these is NOT a possible outcome of providing good customer service?

a)

Customer loyalty

b)

Good reputation

c)

Decreased production costs

d)

Positive brand image

41.

How is gross profit calculated?

a)

Sales revenue – cost of sales

b)

Sales revenue – fixed costs

c)

Gross profit / sales revenue x 100

d)

Net profit x 100

42.

If a car dealer sells £120,000 worth of cars in a month and has cost of sales of £20,000. How much gross profit did they make?

a)

£140,000

b)

£100,000

c)

£120,000

d)

£80,000

43.

Which of these would increase a business’s net profit?

a)

Increasing cost of sales

b)

Decreasing operating costs

c)

Decreasing revenue

d)

Increasing tax

44.

If a business is making a loss, then what will their net profit figure be?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neither

45.

True or False: Gross profit margin and gross profit are the same thing.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

What does it mean if a business has a gross profit margin of 65%?

a)

For every £1 of sales revenue 65p is gross profit

b)

For every 65p of sales revenue £1 is gross profit

c)

That 65% of its customers make a purchase from their online advertising

d)

That the owner keeps 65% of all profits

47.

How do you calculate net profit margin?

a)

Net profit / gross profit x 100

b)

Net profit / sales revenue x 100

c)

Gross profit / net profit x 100

d)

Sales / gross profit x 100

48.

A sports drink company has sales revenue of £500,000, gross profit of £300,000 and a net profit of £125,000. What is the business’s net profit margin?

a)

12%

b)

25%

c)

£125,000

d)

60%

49.

Why is the average rate of return useful to a business owner?

a)

It tells the owner how quickly they will make a profit

b)

It tells them the number of days it will take to make a profit

c)

It helps them improve staff turnover

d)

It allows them to compare the potential profitability of different investments

50.

How is average annual profit calculated?

a)

Average annual profit / cost of investment x 100

b)

Total profit / number of years

c)

Net profit / sales revenue x 100

d)

Gross profit / sales revenue x 100

51.

Which type of financial data would enable a business to compare its profitability over a number of years?

a)

Net profit margin

b)

Break-even

c)

Cash flow

d)

Primary research

52.

Which of the following is not a graph?

a)

Line graph

b)

Bar chart

c)

Scatter diagram

53.

Financial data can be used to assess:

a)

Employee satisfaction

b)

Marketing campaign understanding

c)

Profitability and financial health

d)

Customer demographics

54.

Marketing data can be collected to measure what?

a)

Customer satisfaction

b)

Financial performance

c)

Supply chain efficiency

d)

Productivity

55.

Which financial indicator represents the percentage of revenue that remains after deducting the cost of goods sold?

a)

Changes in cost

b)

Changes in revenue

c)

Gross profit

d)

Net profit

56.

Why is it important to keep information up to date for decision making purposes?

a)

Market changes can make outdated data less useful

b)

Old information is often more useful than up to date information

c)

So you never make any mistakes

d)

So the owners can see who is performing best

57.

Why is the data gained from performing a break-even analysis useful?

a)

It will show profitable and unprofitable products

b)

It will increase the number of customers using the business

c)

It will indicate whether the business has sufficient cash coming into the business

d)

It will increase a business’s net profit margin

58.

Which of these is a limitation of using financial data?

a)

It doesn’t consider costs

b)

It is expensive to create

c)

It is all numbers

d)

It is based on past data

59.

Market data includes demographics. What does demographics mean?

a)

Testing out a product for the first time

b)

Demonstrating how to use a product or service

c)

Statistical data relating to the population and particular groups within it.

d)

Data that includes how a business manufactures a product

60.

Does an increase in sales revenue also mean that there must be an increase in net profit?

a)

Yes

b)

No

61.

Which of these is a characteristic of a hierarchical structure?

a)

More sales revenue

b)

Short chain of command

c)

Few layers of management

d)

Many layers of management

62.

Which of these best describes span of control?

a)

How far a manager can increase their sales team

b)

The number of employees a manager has responsibility for

c)

The number of customers using a product

d)

The control a manager has over their marketing budget

63.

True or False: One way a business can structure its company is through a bulk organisational structure.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

If a manager finds that they have too many tasks, what could they do to lighten their workload?

a)

Delegate

b)

Subordinate

c)

Flatten

d)

Instigate

65.

Which of these is an advantage of using a centralised management structure?

a)

Helps keep a consistent approach across the business

b)

Increases autonomy

c)

Increases sales

d)

Lowers costs

66.

What is a disadvantage of adopting a decentralised management structure?

a)

More responsibility for employees

b)

Decreases motivation

c)

No consistent approach across the business

d)

Increases costs

67.

What type of organisational structure is a small business most likely to have?

a)

Tall

b)

Flat

c)

Fast

d)

Hierarchical

68.

Which of these can be a barrier to effective communication?

a)

A customer that has a poor attitude

b)

Working in a technical industry

c)

Use of jargon

d)

Having a consistent message

69.

True or False: Employees that are part time must be on a zero hours contract.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Which of these is a benefit of remote working for an employee?

a)

Spend less time travelling

b)

Spend more time in the office

c)

Meet more people

d)

Easier to get help from a manager

71.

Which of these is the most senior position in an organisation?

a)

Operational staff

b)

Director

c)

Senior manager

d)

Supervisor

72.

What is the role of a supervisor?

a)

To supervise customers

b)

To set the direction and strategy for the business

c)

To assist with the daily operations of the business

d)

To manage a group of employees and ensure that tasks are completed

73.

True or False: Directors and senior managers have the same responsibilities just under different names.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

A person specification, job description and application form are examples of what?

a)

Recruitment documentation

b)

CV

c)

Job forms

d)

Career insights

75.

Which of these best describes a job description?

a)

A description of the type of person needed

b)

A series of question that help filter out applicants

c)

Information about the type of person needed to fill a role

d)

A document listing the main duties of a job role

76.

If a job is listed on the website indeed, would this be an example of internal or external recruitment?

a)

Internal

b)

External

77.

Which of the following is an advantage of internal recruitment?

a)

Brings new ideas to the business

b)

Fresh enthusiasm

c)

Applicants are already known to the business

d)

Larger pool of candidates

78.

Which of these is a disadvantage of internal recruitment?

a)

Smaller pool of applicants

b)

More expensive

c)

Can take more time

d)

Employees are unknown

79.

Which of the following is an advantage of external recruitment?

a)

Smaller pool of applicants

b)

May bring new skills into the business

c)

Quicker process

d)

Cheaper process

80.

True or False: Interviewing applicants is an appropriate method in the recruitment process for both internal and external candidates.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Which of these describes formal training?

a)

Continuous training

b)

Teaching yourself a specific skill

c)

Structured training that is job specific and often related to a qualification

d)

Less structured training that often takes place in the workplace

82.

What are performance reviews also known as?

a)

Referrals

b)

Appraisals

c)

Objectives

d)

Time management

83.

Which of these is an example of formal training?

a)

Doing a degree online

b)

Leaning to use a till

c)

Target setting

d)

On the job training

84.

What type of training and development is an apprenticeship?

a)

Formal

b)

Informal

c)

Self-learning

d)

Performance review

85.

Which of these is a benefit for a business of training and developing employees?

a)

Appraisals

b)

New customers

c)

Larger workforce

d)

Motivated employees

86.

What does ‘retention’ mean in relation to employees?

a)

Keeping employees working for the company

b)

Ensuring employees leave the company

c)

Retraining an employee

d)

Setting new targets for an employee

87.

True or False: An employee that is younger will be more motivated than an older employee.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Why would a company want to train employees to use new technology?

a)

So that employees become managers

b)

So that employees can use Instagram at work

c)

So that employees remain productive

d)

So that employees make more money

89.

Last year 12 out of 240 employees left Theo’s company. What was Theo’s retention rate?

a)

5%

b)

12%

c)

240%

d)

95%

90.

Which of the following can help a business recruit new employees?

a)

Low retention rate

b)

A good reputation

c)

No opportunity for progression

91.

True or False: A business can motivate its employees using both financial and non-financial methods.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Which of the following best describes motivation?

a)

Being willing to do any task for your boss

b)

A drive and willingness to put effort into a role

c)

A desire to stay in your role for life

d)

A well organised employee

93.

Motivated employees are often more productive employees, what does ‘productive’ mean?

a)

The amount of work or output produced by an employee

b)

An individual that has professional attributes

c)

A product produced by a business

d)

An employee that seems to be unmotivated

94.

The money that employees are paid in exchange for their time and work.

a)

Bonus

b)

Remuneration

c)

Commission

d)

Benefits

95.

Which of these is NOT a financial benefit?

a)

Remuneration

b)

Bonuses

c)

Job enrichment

d)

Commission

96.

Which of these would most likely motivate an employee that is motivated by money?

a)

Commission

b)

Formal training

c)

Job rotation

d)

Appraisal

97.

True or False: Fringe benefits such as a company car, free gym membership and health insurance are classed as a non-financial motivator.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Why might an employee be motivated by job rotation?

a)

It avoids them getting bored

b)

It means they make more money

c)

It gives them more time off

d)

It helps them with childcare

99.

What level of autonomy often makes employees more motivated in their roles?

a)

Low level of autonomy

b)

High level of autonomy

c)

No autonomy

100.

What does it mean if an employee has job satisfaction?

a)

They don’t hate their job

b)

They have been promoted

c)

They are satisfied with doing the bare minimum at work

d)

They get a sense of fulfilment or enjoyment from their job