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Quiz on Short-Acting Bronchodilators

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is an example of a short-acting bronchodilator?

a)

Albuterol

b)

Salmeterol

c)

Ipratropium

d)

Montelukast

2.

What is the primary use of short-acting bronchodilators like Albuterol?

a)

To treat bacterial infections

b)

To dilate airways and facilitate respiration

c)

To reduce inflammation in the lungs

d)

To suppress the immune system

3.

Which of the following is a potential side effect of short-acting bronchodilators?

a)

Drowsiness

b)

Fear, anxiety, and restlessness

c)

Weight gain

d)

Skin rash

4.

What is the role of beta-adrenergic agents in short-acting bronchodilators?

a)

To suppress the immune system

b)

To dilate bronchi and increase the rate of respiration

c)

To reduce mucus production

d)

To treat bacterial infections

5.

What is the indication for using short-acting bronchodilators like Albuterol?

a)

To treat chronic bronchitis

b)

To quickly relieve acute manifestations of asthma

c)

To prevent lung cancer

d)

To reduce allergic reactions

6.

How are short-acting bronchodilators like Albuterol usually administered?

a)

Via oral tablets

b)

Via a metered-dose inhaler or dry powder inhaler

c)

Via intravenous injection

d)

Via nasal spray

7.

What is the primary use of long-acting bronchodilators like Salmeterol?

a)

To facilitate respiration by dilating airways

b)

To treat bacterial infections

c)

To suppress the immune system

d)

To reduce mucus production

8.

Which of the following is true about the onset of action of short-acting bronchodilators?

a)

They have a slow onset of action and long half-life

b)

They have a fast onset of action and short half-life

c)

They have a fast onset of action and long half-life

d)

They have a slow onset of action and short half-life

9.

What is the recommended use of Albuterol before exercising?

a)

Use 2 puffs before exercising

b)

Use 1 puff after exercising

c)

Use 3 puffs during exercising

d)

Use 4 puffs before sleeping

10.

What is the primary purpose of LABAs (Long-Acting Beta Agonists)?

a)

Immediate relief of asthma symptoms

b)

Long-term management of asthma and COPD

c)

Treating bronchospasm caused by coffee consumption

d)

Increasing calcium mobilization in the body

11.

Which of the following is a common side effect of LABAs?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Dizziness and tachycardia

c)

Decreased heart rate

d)

Improved calcium absorption

12.

What is the therapeutic action of Theophylline?

a)

Decreases vital capacity

b)

Directly relaxes bronchial smooth muscle

c)

Causes hypersensitivity reactions

d)

Reduces nighttime manifestations of asthma

13.

Which of the following is a contraindication for Theophylline use?

a)

Coffee consumption

b)

Use of rescue medications

c)

Peak flow readings

d)

Metered-dose inhalers

14.

What is the toxic level of Theophylline in the blood?

a)

Anything greater than 10 mcg/mL

b)

Anything greater than 20 mcg/mL

c)

Anything less than 10 mcg/mL

d)

Anything less than 20 mcg/mL

15.

What is the role of activated charcoal in Theophylline toxicity?

a)

It increases calcium mobilization

b)

It prevents Theophylline absorption in the intestine

c)

It enhances lung function

d)

It dilates airways

16.

What are the early signs of theophylline toxicity?

a)

GI distress, insomnia, restlessness, and tachycardia

b)

Headache, sedation, diarrhea, and constipation

c)

Nausea, vomiting, and dizziness

d)

Increased intraocular pressure and hypertension

17.

Which of the following decongestants should be avoided in patients with hypertension?

a)

Ondansetron

b)

Pseudoephedrine

c)

Guaifenesin

d)

Loratadine

18.

What is the therapeutic action of Guaifenesin?

a)

Treats nausea related to chemotherapy

b)

Enhances output of respiratory tract fluids by reducing their adhesiveness and surface tension

c)

Causes vasoconstriction to the nasal mucosa

d)

Decreases blood flow to the upper respiratory tract

19.

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of Guaifenesin?

a)

Persistent cough in pregnant and lactating patients

b)

Nausea related to chemotherapy

c)

Hypertension and diabetes

d)

Common cold and sinusitis

20.

What is a rare but potentially fatal side effect of Zofran?

a)

Torsades des pointes

b)

GI distress

c)

Increased intraocular pressure

d)

Dizziness

21.

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Zofran?

a)

Headache

b)

Sedation

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Hypertension

22.

What is the primary function of aluminum hydrochloride and water in antacids?

a)

To reduce gastric acid production

b)

To neutralize acid in the stomach and prevent the activity of pepsin

c)

To increase bile salt production

d)

To promote the growth of H. pylori

23.

Which of the following is NOT a potential risk associated with antacids containing calcium?

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Autodigestion

c)

Increased bile salt production

d)

Elevated calcium levels

24.

What are antacids commonly indicated for?

a)

Dyspepsia, heartburn, GERD, PUD

b)

Constipation and nausea

c)

Elevated phosphorus levels

d)

Kidney stones

25.

Which of the following patients should avoid antacids?

a)

Patients with mild heartburn

b)

Patients allergic to any component of antacids

c)

Patients with normal calcium levels

d)

Patients with no history of renal disease

26.

What is a common side effect of antacids?

a)

Increased bile salt production

b)

Constipation, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping, and flatulence

c)

Reduced frequency of heartburn

d)

Healing of irritated tissues

27.

What is the purpose of simethicone?

a)

To neutralize stomach acid

b)

To break up gas bubbles in the stomach, reducing stomach distention and heartburn

c)

To increase bile salt production

d)

To prevent kidney stones

28.

What is the recommended pH level for not needing antacid treatment?

a)

Below 1.5

b)

1.5 to 3.5

c)

Above 3.5

d)

4.0 to 5.0

29.

What adverse effect is associated with antacids?

a)

Prolonged QT intervals

b)

Elevated calcium level, phosphorus levels, and renal calculi

c)

Increased bile salt production

d)

Reduced frequency of heartburn

30.

What is a key patient education point for antacid use?

a)

Take antacids with a full glass of water and avoid taking them within 1 to 2 hours of other medications

b)

Take antacids immediately after eating

c)

Avoid hydration balance to prevent kidney stones

d)

Take antacids only when symptoms are severe

31.

What is the generic name for the drug Singular?

a)

Montelukast

b)

Cromolyn

c)

Omeprazole

d)

Lansoprazole

32.

What is the primary therapeutic action of Montelukast?

a)

Block or antagonize receptors for the production of leukotrienes

b)

Increase the production of leukotrienes

c)

Reduce the frequency of rhinorrhea and sneezing

d)

Decrease blood flow to the upper respiratory tract

33.

Which of the following is a side effect of Montelukast?

a)

Upper respiratory infection

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Weight gain

d)

Hair loss

34.

What is the usual course duration for Cromolyn?

a)

2-4 weeks

b)

1 week

c)

6-8 weeks

d)

3 months

35.

How is Cromolyn administered?

a)

Intranasally

b)

Orally

c)

Intravenously

d)

Subcutaneously

36.

Which of the following drugs is a Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI)?

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Montelukast

c)

Cromolyn

d)

Aspirin

37.

What is the therapeutic use of Omeprazole and Lansoprazole?

a)

Treating heartburn and acid reflux

b)

Managing asthma symptoms

c)

Reducing inflammation in the airways

d)

Treating upper respiratory infections

38.

Which of the following drugs can be used with antihistamines and decongestants?

a)

Cromolyn

b)

Montelukast

c)

Omeprazole

d)

Lansoprazole

39.

What should a nurse monitor for when administering Cromolyn?

a)

Frequency of rhinorrhea, itching, and sneezing

b)

Elevated liver enzyme concentrations

c)

Increased appetite and weight gain

d)

Decreased blood flow to the lower respiratory tract

40.

What happens when the ATPase enzyme is blocked by a proton pump inhibitor (PPI)?

a)

Increased acid production

b)

Decreased acid production

c)

Increased bile secretion

d)

Decreased bile secretion

41.

Which of the following is an indication for the use of PPIs?

a)

Treatment of hypertension

b)

Treatment of erosive esophagitis from GERD

c)

Management of diabetes

d)

Prevention of kidney stones

42.

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of PPIs?

a)

Patients with hypersensitivity to benzimidazoles

b)

Patients with a history of GERD

c)

Patients with peptic ulcers

d)

Patients with hypertension

43.

Which of the following is a common side effect of PPIs?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Dizziness and headaches

c)

Weight gain

d)

Improved digestion

44.

Which drugs interact with PPIs?

a)

Ibuprofen, acetaminophen, aspirin

b)

Phenytoin, warfarin, diazepam

c)

Metformin, insulin, statins

d)

Amoxicillin, penicillin, erythromycin

45.

What is the generic name for Tagamet?

a)

Famotidine

b)

Ranitidine

c)

Cimetidine

d)

Sucralfate

46.

Which of the following is a side effect of Tagamet?

a)

Drowsiness, constipation, diarrhea, headaches, abdominal pain, fatigue

b)

Increased appetite, weight gain, improved digestion

c)

Nausea, vomiting, and fever

d)

Hypertension and tachycardia

47.

Which of the following drugs are used to treat GERD and peptic ulcers in critically ill patients?

a)

Famotidine (Pepcid) and Ranitidine (Zantac)

b)

Ibuprofen and acetaminophen

c)

Metformin and insulin

d)

Amoxicillin and penicillin

48.

What is the function of Sucralfate (Carafate)?

a)

Proton pump inhibitor

b)

Mucosal protectant

c)

Antacid

d)

Antibiotic

49.

What is the primary function of medications like sucralfate in the treatment of duodenal ulcers?

a)

To block the action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)

b)

To coat the ulcer and create a barrier for treatment

c)

To prevent vasoconstriction of blood vessels

d)

To increase the absorption of sodium and water

50.

Which of the following drugs can decrease the effect of sucralfate?

a)

Antacids

b)

Lisinopril

c)

Fluoroquinolone antibiotics

d)

Valsartan

51.

What is the therapeutic range for Digoxin?

a)

0.5-2.0

b)

1.0-3.0

c)

0.2-1.0

d)

2.0-4.0

52.

Which of the following is a contraindication for ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril?

a)

History of arrhythmias

b)

History of angioedema

c)

GI upset and anorexia

d)

Vision changes

53.

What is a common side effect of Digoxin toxicity?

a)

Increased blood pressure

b)

Seeing halos around lights

c)

Severe renal dysfunction

d)

Vasoconstriction of blood vessels

54.

What is the mechanism of action of Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) like Valsartan?

a)

Blocking the action of ACE to prevent conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

b)

Blocking the effects of angiotensin II to prevent vasoconstriction and absorption of water and sodium

c)

Coating the ulcer to create a barrier

d)

Increasing the effect of antacids

55.

Which of the following is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors?

a)

Headache and weakness

b)

GI upset and anorexia

c)

Hypersensitivity and angioedema

d)

Visual disturbances

56.

What is the antidote for Digoxin toxicity?

a)

Antacids

b)

Dig immune fab

c)

Lisinopril

d)

Valsartan

57.

What class of medications can be used in pregnancy?

a)

Beta Blocker, ex: Labetalol

b)

Calcium Channel Blockers

c)

ACE Inhibitors

d)

NSAIDs

58.

What medication is used in diabetic gastroparesis?

a)

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

b)

Cetirizine (Zyrtec)

c)

Loratadine (Claritin)

d)

Codeine

59.

What are Zyrtec, Claritin, and Allegra used for?

a)

Relief of symptoms associated with seasonal and perennial allergic rhinitis, allergic conjunctivitis, uncomplicated urticaria, and angioedema

b)

Treatment of diabetic gastroparesis

c)

Depression of the cough reflex

d)

Treatment of hypertension

60.

Which of the following is a traditional antitussive?

a)

Codeine

b)

Benzonatate (Tessalon)

c)

Loratadine (Claritin)

d)

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

61.

What is the therapeutic action of Benzonatate (Tessalon)?

a)

Acts as a local anesthetic on respiratory passages, lungs, pleura, and blocks the effectiveness of stretch receptors

b)

Acts directly on the medullary cough center of the brain to depress the cough reflex

c)

Stimulates gastric emptying and intestinal transit

d)

Relieves symptoms of allergic rhinitis

62.

What is the indication for antitussives?

a)

Treat uncomfortable, unproductive cough

b)

Treat seasonal allergic rhinitis

c)

Treat diabetic gastroparesis

d)

Treat high blood pressure

63.

Which of the following is a contraindication for antitussives?

a)

Patients who need to cough to maintain the airway

b)

Patients with seasonal allergies

c)

Patients with high blood pressure

d)

Patients with diabetes

64.

Which opioid antitussive is associated with upper respiratory disorders?

a)

Codeine

b)

Benzonatate (Tessalon)

c)

Loratadine (Claritin)

d)

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

65.

What is the primary mechanism of action of codeine in the body?

a)

It binds to opioid mu receptors in the medulla, reducing the transmission of nerve signals that trigger the cough reflex.

b)

It inhibits the receptor of serotonin and catecholamines.

c)

It activates sigma-1 receptors in the medullary cough center.

d)

It suppresses the cough reflex by acting on the brainstem.

66.

Which of the following is a contraindication for codeine use?

a)

Patients with compromised respiratory function.

b)

Patients with mild nausea and vomiting.

c)

Patients experiencing drowsiness and dizziness.

d)

Patients with a history of substance misuse.

67.

What is a rare adverse effect of codeine?

a)

Drowsiness.

b)

Allergic reactions.

c)

Mild nausea.

d)

Headache.

68.

What is the mechanism of action of dextromethorphan?

a)

It binds to opioid mu receptors in the medulla.

b)

It acts as an NMDA receptor antagonist, non-selectively inhibiting the receptor of serotonin and catecholamines.

c)

It suppresses the cough reflex by acting on the brainstem.

d)

It reduces the transmission of nerve signals that trigger the cough reflex.

69.

Which of the following is a side effect of dextromethorphan?

a)

Drowsiness and dizziness.

b)

GI discomfort and nausea.

c)

Allergic reactions.

d)

Respiratory depression.

70.

What is a potential adverse effect of excessive dextromethorphan use?

a)

Serotonin syndrome and anaphylaxis.

b)

Mild nausea and vomiting.

c)

Drowsiness and dizziness.

d)

Constipation and headache.

71.

What should client education for medications like codeine and dextromethorphan include?

a)

Purpose of the medication, method of administration, side and adverse effects, prescription parameters, and any special instructions.

b)

Only the purpose of the medication and method of administration.

c)

Only the side effects and adverse effects.

d)

Only the prescription parameters and special instructions.

72.

What is the generic name for Metamucil, and what is its primary use?

a)

Psyllium; relief of constipation

b)

Bisacodyl; treatment of occasional constipation

c)

Dextromethorphan; cough relief

d)

Fluticasone; asthma treatment

73.

Which of the following statements is true about Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)?

a)

It is a bulk-forming laxative used for relief of constipation

b)

It is a stimulant laxative used for treatment of occasional constipation

c)

It is a mucolytic used for therapeutic actions

d)

It is a steroid hormone used to treat inflammation

74.

What are glucocorticoids primarily used for?

a)

Treating arrhythmias

b)

Treating inflammation and autoimmune diseases

c)

Relieving constipation

d)

Reducing drowsiness caused by antihistamines

75.

Which of the following medications is a glucocorticoid used for asthma and COPD?

a)

Beclomethasone

b)

Amiodarone Hydrochloride

c)

Psyllium

d)

Adenosine

76.

What should a nurse monitor for in a patient on glucocorticoids?

a)

Sedation and drowsiness

b)

Hyperglycemia, fluid retention, and Cushing Syndrome

c)

Relief of constipation

d)

Treatment of arrhythmias

77.

What is the difference between first-generation and second-generation antihistamines?

a)

First-generation antihistamines cause sedation, while second-generation antihistamines do not cause as much drowsiness

b)

First-generation antihistamines treat arrhythmias, while second-generation antihistamines treat asthma

c)

First-generation antihistamines are used for constipation, while second-generation antihistamines are used for inflammation

d)

First-generation antihistamines are glucocorticoids, while second-generation antihistamines are mucolytics

78.

Which of the following medications is used to treat arrhythmias?

a)

Beta Blockers (Metoprolol, Propranolol)

b)

Psyllium

c)

Dextromethorphan

d)

Fluticasone

79.

What is the primary action of Acetylcysteine?

a)

Mucolytic

b)

Stimulant laxative

c)

Antihistamine

d)

Glucocorticoid

80.

What is the primary function of splitting apart disulfide bonds in mucous material?

a)

To protect liver cells from acetaminophen effects

b)

To decrease the viscosity of secretions

c)

To treat atelectasis from thick mucus secretions

d)

To metabolize the material in the liver

81.

Which of the following is an indication for the use of a medication that decreases the viscosity of secretions?

a)

Treatment of heart failure

b)

Liquefaction and clearing of secretions

c)

Prevention of angina

d)

Treatment of erectile dysfunction

82.

What is a contraindication for the use of medications that decrease the viscosity of secretions?

a)

History of hypersensitivity reactions

b)

Patients with asthma

c)

Patients with cystic fibrosis

d)

Patients with acetaminophen toxicity

83.

Which of the following adverse effects is associated with medications that decrease the viscosity of secretions?

a)

Hypertension

b)

GI upset, stomatitis, rhinorrhea, bronchospasm, and rashes

c)

Increased heart rate

d)

Liver failure

84.

What is the first-line treatment and prevention of angina?

a)

Hydralazine

b)

Nitroglycerin

c)

Beta blockers

d)

Anticholinergic drugs

85.

Which medication is used to treat heart failure?

a)

Nitroglycerin

b)

Hydralazine

c)

Tizanidine

d)

Acetaminophen

86.

Which of the following should be avoided when taking nitroglycerin or hydralazine?

a)

Anticholinergic drugs, including some antidepressants and antihistamines

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Antiviral medications

d)

Antifungal medications