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Total questions: 106

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Main and nose wheel bays are:

a)

pressurized

b)

unpressurized

c)

conditioned

d)

different, with the mains being unpressurized and the nose pressurized

2.

Normal maximum negative differential pressure is:

a)

when atmospheric pressure exceeds cabin pressure by the amount permitted by the system controls

b)

where the cabin pressure falls below aircraft altitude pressure at which time the inward relief valve opens

c)

when the cabin pressure exceeds the atmospheric pressure by 0.5 psi

d)

the pressure at which the duct relief valve is set to operate

3.

When would the negative differential limit be reached/exceeded?

a)

Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude

b)

During ground pressure testing

c)

Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs

d)

When changing to manual operation

4.

A/C in level flight: if cabin altitude increases, pressure diff:

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains the same

d)

nil

5.

In level pressurized flight what does the outflow valve do?

a)

Close

b)

Adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally partially open

c)

Open to increase air conditioning

d)

Adjust to provide maximum flow, and is normally almost closed

6.

In a turbo-compressor or bootstrap system the cooling air is:

a)

ram air

b)

engine by pass air

c)

cabin air

d)

compressor air

7.

The rate of change of cabin pressure should be kept to the minimum. This is more important:

a)

in descent

b)

in climb

c)

in periods when the dehumidifier is in use

d)

in cruise

8.

A cabin humidifier is used:

a)

on the ground in conditions of low relative humidity

b)

at high altitude

c)

at low altitude

d)

on the ground in high ambient temperatures

9.

Fatigue life of the fuselage is based on the:

a)

number of pressurization cycles

b)

number of explosive decompressions

c)

number of landings only

d)

number of cycles at maximum differential

10.

If the forward oil seal in an axial flow compressor fails, cabin air will be:

a)

contaminated

b)

unaffected

c)

'b' is only correct if synthetic oil is used

d)

'a' will be correct only if the aircraft is inverted

11.

Rate of change of cabin altitude is shown on a:

a)

special gauge

b)

aircraft VSI

c)

cabin pressure controller

d)

gauge reading a percentage of Max Diff Pressure

12.

Cabin discharge valve (pneumatic) is supplied with:

a)

air data computer output information

b)

cabin and static pressure

c)

cabin pressure, static and air speed information

d)

cabin pressure only

13.

What is the purpose of the duct relief valve?

a)

To protect the undercarriage bay

b)

To ensure the compressor pressure is regulated

c)

To prevent damage to the ducts

d)

To relieve excess pressure to compressor return line

14.

What system is installed to control the air conditioning?

a)

Emulsifier and water extractor

b)

Impingement type dehydrator and humidifier

c)

Dehydrator only

d)

Humidifier only

15.

How is the (charge) air cooled in a bootstrap (turbo-compressor) system?

a)

By expanding over turbine

b)

By expanding over turbine driving compressor

c)

Via an air cooled radiator

d)

By passing it through the fuel heater

16.

At the max differential phase, the discharge phase is:

a)

open

b)

closed

c)

under the control of the rate capsule

d)

partly open

17.

What is the purpose of inward relief valves?

a)

To prevent negative differential

b)

To back up the duct relief valve

c)

To allow positive pressure to be bled off in an emergency

d)

To back up the outflow valve

18.

On a ground pressurization test, if the cabin suffers a rapid de-pressurization:

a)

the temperature will rise suddenly

b)

water precipitation will occur

c)

damage to hull may occur

d)

duct relief valve may jam open

19.

A heat exchanger functions by:

a)

combining ram and charge air

b)

mixing the various vapours inside the heat exchanger

c)

passing charge air through ducts and cool air around ducts

d)

removing the static charge

20.

Maximum differential pressure:

a)

is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure

b)

is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum pump

c)

is the pressure loss over a given time limit

d)

is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to carry

21.

A humidifier is fitted to:

a)

extract the moisture content in the air

b)

filter the air

c)

increase the moisture content in the air when operating at high altitude

d)

to ensure the cabin air is saturated at high altitude

22.

If the discharge or outflow valve closes:

a)

the duct relief valve will take control

b)

the inward relief valve would assume control

c)

the safety valve would limit the positive pressure difference

d)

the safety relief valve would limit the negative pressure difference

23.

Air for conditioning and pressurization is taken from:

a)

the engine compressor or cabin compressor

b)

the engine by pass duct or thrust reverse by pass duct

c)

the engine compressor or ram turbine

d)

the engine turbine or cabin compressor

24.

Safety valves are biased:

a)

inwards

b)

outwards

c)

in the direction sensed by the SVC

d)

neither a nor b

25.

Cabin compressors:

a)

increase their flow in cruise conditions

b)

decrease their flow in cruise conditions

c)

increase their flow in proportion to increases of altitude differential pressure and reduction in engine rpm in order to maintain the mass flow

d)

deliver minimum air at sea level via the cold air unit

26.

In a pressurization circuit the sequence of operation is for the:

a)

inward relief valve to open before the safety valve

b)

outflow valve to operate before the safety valve

c)

outflow valve to operate after the safety valve

d)

outflow valve to operate the same time as the safety valve

27.

In the cruise at 30 000 ft the cabin altitude is adjusted from 4000 ft to 6000 ft:

a)

cabin differential will increase

b)

cabin differential will not be affected

c)

cabin differential will decrease

d)

nil.

28.

An aircraft climbs from sea level to 16 000 ft at 1000 ft per min, the cabin pressurization is set to climb at 500 ft per min to a cabin altitude of 8000 ft. The time taken for the cabin to reach 8000 ft is:

a)

the same time as it takes the aircraft to reach 16 000 ft

b)

half the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16 000 ft

c)

twice the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16 000 ft

d)

three times the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16 000 ft

29.

The aircraft inhibiting switch connected to the A/C landing gear:

a)

allows the aircraft to be pressurized on the ground

b)

stops pressurizing on the ground and ensures that there is no significant pressure differential

c)

ensures that the discharge valve is closed

d)

cancels out the safety valve on the ground

30.

Negative differential is limited by:

a)

dump valve

b)

inward relief valve

c)

outflow valve

d)

safety valve

31.

To maintain a steady and constant airflow regardless of altitude or cabin pressure:

a)

a duct relief valve is fitted

b)

a venturi device is fitted

c)

a mass flow controller is fitted

d)

a thermostatic relief valve is fitted

32.

The term 'pressurization cycle' means:

a)

air introduced into a fuselage under pressure only

b)

air introduced into a fuselage under pressure until the time the air is released

c)

air discharged from the fuselage, above 15 psi

d)

the frequency in Hz the pressure cycles from the rootes blowers enter the fuselage

33.

Inward Relief Valves operate:

a)

in conjunction with the cabin pressure controller when there is a negative diff

b)

in conjunction with the cabin altitude selector when there is negative diff

c)

when manually selected during the emergency descent procedure

d)

automatically when there is a negative diff

34.

Safety valves operate:

a)

at higher than maximum differential

b)

as soon as initiation takes place

c)

at a lower diff than a discharge valve

d)

at a set value, which is selected

35.

Ditching Cocks are operated:

a)

automatically when the soluble plugs dissolve

b)

to shut all outflow valves

c)

to direct pressure into flotation bags

d)

for rapid depressurization

36.

Duct Relief Valves operate when:

a)

excessive pressure builds up in the air conditioning system supply ducts

b)

to keep cabin pressure close to ambient pressure

c)

to prevent the floor from collapsing should baggage door open

d)

the cooling modulator shutters reach the optimized position

37.

During a normal pressurized cruise, the discharge valve position is:

a)

at a position pre-set before take-off

b)

partially open

c)

open until selected altitude is reached

d)

closed until selected altitude is reached

38.

A dump valve:

a)

automatically opens when fuel is dumped

b)

is controlled manually

c)

is opened automatically when the safety valve opens

d)

is controlled by the safety valve integrating line

39.

When air is pressurized the % of oxygen:

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains the same

d)

nil

40.

If pressure is manually controlled:

a)

an extra member is required to monitor system operation

b)

the climb rate would be maintained automatically

c)

climb rate could not be maintained

d)

care should be taken to ensure climb/descent rates are safe

41.

An aircraft is prevented from pressurizing on the ground by:

a)

the auto deflating valve on the main oleos

b)

inhibiting microswitches on the landing gear

c)

inhibiting microswitches on the throttles

d)

the pressure control master switch

42.

If the pressurization air is passed over the cold air unit compressor it:

a)

increases the charge air temperature

b)

decreases the charge air temperature

c)

decreases the charge air pressure

d)

makes no change to the charge air condition

43.

If the cabin pressure increases in level flight does the cabin VSI shows:

a)

rate of climb

b)

no change unless the aircraft climbs

c)

rate of descent

d)

nil

44.

The term pressure cabin is used to describe:

a)

pressurization of the flight deck only

b)

the ability to pressurise the aircraft to a higher than ambient pressure

c)

the passenger cabin on an airliner

d)

the ability to maintain a constant pressure differential at all altitudes

45.

A pressurization system works by:

a)

essentially constant input mass flow and variable output

b)

essentially constant output mass flow and variable input

c)

does not start until an altitude of 8000 ft has been reached

d)

supplying hot gases from the engine exhaust unit to the mass flow control system

46.

When air is pressurized by an engine driven compressor, it is also:

a)

moisturized

b)

heated

c)

cooled

d)

the temperature is not affected

47.

Without added oxygen the time of useful consciousness at 30 000 ft is approximately:

a)

twenty seconds

b)

eighty seconds

c)

one to two minutes

d)

six minutes

48.

Without added oxygen the time of useful consciousness at 40 000 ft is approximately:

a)

twenty seconds

b)

three minutes

c)

eighty seconds

d)

six minutes

49.

The maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not seriously impaired is:

a)

10 000 ft

b)

17 500 ft

c)

25 000 ft

d)

30 000 ft

50.

In a pressure demand oxygen system:

a)

each member of the crew has a regulator

b)

each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply

c)

oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow

d)

oxygen demand will cause the pressure to rise

51.

In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied:

a)

only when the mask is plugged into the socket connection

b)

only on passenger inhalation through the mask

c)

only when the cabin altitude is above 18 000 ft

d)

only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot

52.

In a diluter demand system, selection of emergency on this regulator will result in:

a)

air mix supplied at emergency pressure

b)

100% oxygen supply as called for by the user

c)

100% oxygen at positive pressure

d)

100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure

53.

If the aircraft suffers a decompression passenger oxygen masks:

a)

are released by the passengers

b)

automatically drop to a half-hung (ready position)

c)

are handed out by the cabin staff

d)

must be removed from the life jacket storage

54.

Oxygen cylinders are normally charged to:

a)

1000 psi

b)

1200 psi

c)

1800 psi

d)

2000 psi

55.

Rate of flow of oxygen is given in:

a)

litres/minute

b)

pounds/minute

c)

litres/second

d)

kilos/hour

56.

The colour of American and European oxygen cylinders is:

a)

red

b)

blue

c)

green

d)

brown

57.

Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders:

a)

is relieved by a thermostat

b)

is relieved by under pressurizing the bottle

c)

is relieved by a bursting disc

d)

is controlled by a thermal relief valve

58.

To leak test an oxygen system use:

a)

fairy liquid and de-ionized water

b)

thin oil

c)

acid free soap and distilled water

d)

acid free soap and water

59.

Lubrication of an oxygen component thread is by:

a)

soap water

b)

grease

c)

oil

d)

graphite

60.

Satisfactory operation of the oxygen system is indicated by:

a)

flow indicators

b)

lack of anoxia

c)

aural reassurance

d)

pressure indicators

61.

If the pressurization system fails and the cabin starts to climb, then at 14 000 ft oxygen will be available to the passengers by:

a)

the stewardess who will hand out masks

b)

the passengers grabbing a mask from the overhead lockers

c)

portable oxygen bottles located in the seat backs

d)

masks automatically ejected to a half-hung position

62.

When air is pressurized the % of oxygen:

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains the same

d)

nil

63.

In an emergency chemically produced oxygen is supplied for a given period by:

a)

sodium chlorate, iron power, an electrical firing system and a filter

b)

potassium chlorate, iron powder, an electrical firing system and a filter

c)

sodium chlorate, iron powder which is chemically activated by air and then filtered

d)

sodium chlorate and an electrical firing system

64.

Passenger oxygen masks will present:

a)

only when the cabin altitude reaches 14 000

b)

only if selected by the crew

c)

only if selected by the cabin staff

d)

if selected manually / electrically / barometrically

65.

The charged pressure of a portable oxygen cylinder is normally:

a)

500 psi

b)

1200 psi

c)

1800 psi

d)

3000 psi

66.

With the control knob set to high, a 120 litreportable bottle will provide oxygen for a period of:

a)

60 mins

b)

30 mins

c)

12 mins

d)

3 mins

67.

At what altitude will the diluter-demand oxygen regulator provide 100% pure oxygen:

a)

10 000 ft

b)

14 000 ft

c)

24 000 ft

d)

34 000 ft

68.

A flow indicator fitted to an oxygen regulator indicates:

a)

that exactly the correct amount of oxygen is being used by the crew member

b)

that oxygen is flowing through the regulator

c)

that the crew member is correctly connected to the regulator

d)

that the system pressure reducing valve is supplying the correct pressure to the regulator

69.

What is the approximate time of useful consciousness when hypoxia develops at the specified altitudes? 20 000 ft, 30 000 ft

a)

2-3 min, 10-15 sec

b)

10 min, 2 min

c)

30 min, 90-60 secs

d)

40 min, 5 min

70.

What is the effect on cabin temperature of a rapid de-compression at 30 000 ft?

a)

Sudden and extreme drop

b)

Insignificant change over the first 2 minutes

c)

A gradual decrease to ambient over a period of about 10 minutes if the cabin heating ceases

d)

A gradual decrease to ambient temperature over a period of about 30 minutes if cabin heating continues

71.

Susceptibility to hypoxia is increased by:

a)

heat

b)

noise

c)

smoking

d)

under-breathing

72.

What is the approximate cabin altitude above which you must breath 100% oxygen if you are to maintain an alveolar partial pressure equal to that at sea level?

a)

26 000 ft

b)

30 000 ft

c)

34 000 ft

d)

38 000 ft

73.

Baffles are fitted in aircraft fuel tanks:

a)

to assist in correct fuel distribution

b)

to prevent fuel surging during aircraft manoeuvres

c)

to prevent the static build-up in the tank during refuelling

d)

to channel fuel to the vent valve

74.

A power failure to a capacitive fuel contents system would cause the gauge to:

a)

show full scale deflection high

b)

fluctuate between high and low readings

c)

remain fixed on the last contents noted before failure

d)

show full scale deflection low

75.

A fuel booster pump, besides pumping fuel to the engine, can also be utilized to:

a)

jettison and transfer fuel

b)

jettison and heat the fuel

c)

transfer and heat the fuel

d)

transfer and recycle the fuel

76.

During fuel jettison, the aircraft is protected against running out of fuel by:

a)

high level float switches

b)

preset jettison quantity switches

c)

the crew remaining alert

d)

low level float switches

77.

To indicate that a refuelling bowser carries JET A1 aviation kerosene:

a)

yellow and black stripes are marked on the refuelling hose

b)

JET A1 would be painted in 30 cm high symbols on the side of the container

c)

JET A1 is printed in white on a black background label positioned prominently on the vehicle

d)

the driver wears a straw yellow water and fuel proof jacket

78.

Adjustments may have to made to an aircraft's engine fuel system if it has been refuelled with JET B instead of its normal JET A1 fuel, these adjustments are to cater for:

a)

the change in the specific gravity of the fuel

b)

the change in the calorific value of the fuel

c)

the change in the viscosity of the fuel

d)

the lack of HITEC lubricant in the fuel

79.

The differences between AVGAS 100 and AVGAS 100LL are: Colour Anti-knock value

a)

Same Same

b)

Same Different

c)

Different Same

d)

Different Different

80.

The aircraft cannot be refuelled while:

a)

a ground power unit is operating on the ramp

b)

passengers are walking through the refuelling zones

c)

passengers are boarding

d)

the APU is running

81.

The disadvantage of refuelling the aircraft to 'tanks full' the night before a departure in the heat of the day is that:

a)

the change in the specific gravity may cause the aircraft to be overweight

b)

the change in the volume of the fuel may cause it to spill through the vent system

c)

the change in calorific value may reduce engine power to below sufficient

d)

the rpm governor will be rendered inoperative

82.

An aircraft using MOGAS:

a)

is likely to be affected by detonation at cruise power

b)

must have booster pumps fitted in the fuel tanks

c)

is more likely to be affected by vapour locking and carburettor icing

d)

will suffer from a loss of power during take-off

83.

If a fuel sample appears cloudy or hazy, the most probable cause is:

a)

water contamination

b)

anti-microbiological additives

c)

mixing different fuel grades

d)

oil in the fuel

84.

On an aircraft equipped with a compensated capacitance type fuel quantity indication system graduated to read in kg, the temperature increases just after the tanks are half filled with fuel. If the fuel expands by 10%, the gauges will show:

a)

an increase of 10%

b)

a decrease of 10% of the volume factored by the new specific gravity

c)

a decrease

d)

the same amount

85.

The exhaust gases from the APU go into the refuelling zone. The APU:

a)

must be switched OFF throughout the refuelling operation

b)

can be started while refuelling is carried out.

c)

must be started before fuelling is carried out, and can be run throughout the refuelling operation

d)

can be started only after the refuelling operation has been terminated

86.

De-fuelled fuel:

a)

can only be used in domestic heating systems

b)

can only be used by aircraft from the same operators fleet

c)

must be put back into storage

d)

cannot be re-used until its quality has been verified

87.

The background colour scheme for fuelling system pipelines carrying the following fuels is: JET A1 AVGAS

a)

Red Black

b)

Black Red

c)

Red Yellow

d)

Yellow Red

88.

AVGAS:

a)

is coloured red for identification purposes

b)

is coloured green if it is a leaded fuel and blue if it is a low lead fuel

c)

has no artificial colouring and appears either clear or a straw yellow colour

d)

can only be used in piston engines if oil is added to improve its anti-knock properties

89.

Information relating to the use of MOGAS can be found in:

a)

CAA General Aviation Safety Sense Leaflets

b)

Advisory Information Circulars

c)

NOTAM

d)

CAA Airworthiness Publications

90.

The fuel cross-feed valves are fitted in order to facilitate:

a)

the use of fuel from any tank to any engine

b)

refuelling when only one bowser is in use

c)

isolation of the engine from the fuel system in the case of an engine fire

d)

transfer of fuel between the main fuel tanks

91.

Refuelling with passengers on board is not permissible:

a)

on a fixed wing aircraft

b)

if AVGAS is being used

c)

if the aircraft has more than twenty seats and the ratio of cabin attendants to passengers is greater than 1:50 and it is a wide bodied jet

d)

in any of the above cases

92.

While refuelling with passengers on board, when a loading bridge is in use:

a)

two sets of extra steps must be provided, one of which must be at the rear of the aircraft

b)

the rear left or right door must be manned constantly by a cabin attendant ready for use as an emergency exit using the inflatable escape slide

c)

ground servicing must not be carried out

d)

catering and cleaning must not be carried out

93.

Modern jet aircraft fuel tanks are pressurized:

a)

by air from the engine compressor to prevent cavitation

b)

by air from the air conditioning system to prevent cavitation

c)

by ram air to prevent cavitation

d)

by ram air to stabilize the boiling point

94.

A 'wide-cut' fuel is:

a)

more flammable than a kerosene type fuel

b)

less volatile than a kerosene type fuel

c)

coloured red for identification purposes

d)

commonly used in civilian transport aircraft

95.

The purpose of fitting baffles in fuel tanks is to:

a)

prevent longitudinal movement of the fuel during acceleration

b)

allow the booster pump to remain covered by fuel irrespective of the aircraft attitude

c)

dampen lateral movement of the fuel in the wing tanks during a sideslip

d)

maintain a pre-determined quantity of fuel in the outboard section of the wing tanks

96.

Fuel is heated:

a)

to stop cavitation in the High Pressure fuel pump

b)

to maintain a constant viscosity

c)

to prevent water contamination

d)

to stop ice blocking the Low Pressure fuel filter

97.

What is the function of a collector tank (feeder box)?

a)

Prevent detonation during take-off

b)

Prevent cavitation of the booster pumps

c)

Prevent fuel surge due to extreme aircraft attitude

d)

Allow suction feeding of the engine pump

98.

Fuel tank booster pumps are:

a)

centrifugal, low pressure

b)

centrifugal, high pressure

c)

gear type, low pressure

d)

gear type, high pressure

99.

The advantage of a capacitor type fuel contents gauging system is that the circuit:

a)

responds to changes in specific gravity

b)

compensates for high altitude flight

c)

responds automatically to extremely low temperatures

d)

compensates for aircraft attitude changes

100.

The Low Pressure engine driven pump:

a)

backs up in case the engine High Pressure pump fails

b)

backs up in case of a double booster pump failure

c)

assists in the refuelling operation if only low pressure refuelling systems are available

d)

pressurizes the fuel tanks to assist flow to the booster pumps

101.

The purpose of the fuel cooled oil cooler is to:

a)

heat the oil and cool the fuel

b)

heat the fuel and cool the oil

c)

cool the oil

d)

heat the fuel

102.

If a fuel tank with a capacitive quantity system was filled with water instead of fuel, the gauge would indicate:

a)

full scale low (zero)

b)

it would indicate the same as if it were filled with fuel

c)

full scale high (max)

d)

it would freeze at the last known indication

103.

AVTUR or JET A1:

a)

varies in colour between clear and straw yellow

b)

is a wide-cut fuel which is not normally used in civilian transport aircraft

c)

is a gasoline type fuel with a high flash point

d)

is a 97 octane fuel which prevents detonation in gas turbine engines

104.

When using which of the following fuels can refuelling be carried out with passengers on board?

a)

Avtag

b)

Jet B

c)

Wide-cut

d)

Jet A1

105.

With an increase in altitude the boiling point of fuel will:

a)

stay the same

b)

increase

c)

decrease

d)

increase up to FL80 then remain the same

106.

When refuelling an aircraft:

a)

the refuelling nozzle must be bonded to the fuel tank

b)

the bonding plug must be connected to the earth terminal

c)

the continuity between nozzle and hose must be infinity

d)

only use plastic nozzles