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Farm Business Management CDE

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which financial statement shows the financial position of a business at a specific point in time?

a)

Income Statement

b)

Balance Sheet

c)

Statement of Cash Flows

d)

Enterprise Budget

2.

On a Balance Sheet, Total Assets must always equal:

a)

Total Liabilities

b)

Net Worth

c)

Total Liabilities + Net Worth

d)

Current Assets - Current Liabilities

3.

Which of the following is considered a Current Asset?

a)

Tractor

b)

Breeding Livestock

c)

100 Acres of Land

d)

Stored Grain to be sold this year

4.

Which of the following is a Non-Current (or Long-Term) Liability?

a)

A feed bill due in 30 days

b)

A mortgage on farmland

c)

An operating loan due in 6 months

d)

Accrued interest

5.

Another name for Net Worth or Owner's Equity is:

a)

Net Farm Income

b)

Gross Revenue

c)

Total Assets

d)

Total Assets - Total Liabilities

6.

The primary purpose of an Income Statement is to:

a)

Show the current value of all assets.

b)

List all debts owed by the business.

c)

Summarize revenues and expenses over a period of time.

d)

Project cash needs for the next year.

7.

The accounting method that records revenue when it is earned and expenses when they are incurred (regardless of when cash changes hands) is called:

a)

Cash Accounting

b)

Accrual Accounting

c)

Double-Entry Accounting

d)

Tax Accounting

8.

The systematic allocation of the cost of a capital asset (like machinery) over its useful life is known as:

a)

Depreciation

b)

Amortization

c)

Appreciation

d)

An operating expense

9.

Which statement tracks the actual movement of cash in and out of the business from operating, investing, and financing activities?

a)

Balance Sheet

b)

Income Statement

c)

Statement of Cash Flows

d)

Enterprise Budget

10.

The "Current Ratio" (Current Assets / Current Liabilities) is a measure of:

a)

Solvency

b)

Liquidity

c)

Profitability

d)

Efficiency

11.

"Solvency" refers to the ability of a business to:

a)

Meet its short-term cash obligations.

b)

Generate a profit.

c)

Pay all its debts if it were to sell all its assets.

d)

Efficiently use its assets to generate revenue.

12.

On an accrual-based income statement, an increase in the value of feed inventory from the beginning to the end of the year would be:

a)

Ignored

b)

Subtracted as an expense

c)

Added as revenue (or subtracted from feed expense)

d)

Treated as a liability

13.

Net Farm Income From Operations (NFIFO) is calculated before or after interest expense?

a)

Before interest expense

b)

After interest expense

c)

It does not include interest

d)

Only includes interest on operating loans

14.

The "Debt-to-Asset Ratio" (Total Liabilities / Total Assets) is a measure of:

a)

Liquidity

b)

Profitability

c)

Solvency

d)

Cash Flow

15.

A farm's Balance Sheet shows $500,000 in Current Assets, $1,500,000 in Non-Current Assets, $300,000 in Current Liabilities, and $700,000 in Non-Current Liabilities. What is the Net Worth?

a)

$2,000,000

b)

$1,000,000

c)

$1,200,000

d)

$800,000

16.

Which of the following is a non-cash expense that would appear on an Income Statement?

a)

Fuel

b)

Rent

c)

Wages

d)

Depreciation

17.

The Statement of Owner Equity links which two financial statements?

a)

Balance Sheet and Statement of Cash Flows

b)

Income Statement and Statement of Cash Flows

c)

Balance Sheet (beginning and ending) and Income Statement

d)

Enterprise Budget and Partial Budget

18.

A "pro forma" financial statement is:

a)

A historical record of past performance.

b)

A projected or "what-if" statement.

19.

Working Capital is calculated as:

a)

Total Assets - Total Liabilities

b)

Total Revenue - Total Expenses

c)

Current Assets - Current Liabilities

d)

Total Assets / Total Liabilities

20.

A negative Net Farm Income for the year will cause what change on the end-of-year Balance Sheet, assuming no other changes?

a)

Total Assets will decrease.

b)

Total Liabilities will decrease.

c)

Net Worth will decrease.

d)

Net Worth will increase.

21.

A budget that details the expected costs and returns for a single production activity (e.g., one acre of cotton or one sow) is called a(n):

a)

Whole-Farm Budget

b)

Cash Flow Budget

c)

Enterprise Budget

d)

Partial Budget

22.

In an enterprise budget, costs like seed, fertilizer, and feed, which change with the level of production, are called:

a)

Fixed Costs

b)

Variable Costs

c)

Depreciation

d)

Opportunity Costs

23.

Property taxes and insurance on a machinery shed are examples of:

a)

Variable Costs

b)

Fixed Costs

c)

Non-cash Expenses

d)

Both B and C

24.

What type of budget is best used to analyze the profitability of a potential change in the farm business, such as buying a new harvester vs. custom hiring?

a)

Partial Budget

b)

Enterprise Budget

c)

Cash Flow Budget

d)

Balance Sheet

25.

The four main components of a partial budget are:

a)

Added Revenue, Reduced Cost, Added Cost, Reduced Revenue

b)

Assets, Liabilities, Revenue, Expenses

c)

Inflows, Outflows, Beginning Balance, Ending Balance

d)

Variable Costs, Fixed Costs, Gross Margin, Net Income

26.

The primary purpose of a Cash Flow Budget is to:

a)

Determine the annual profit of the farm.

b)

Project the timing of cash inflows and outflows for a future period.

c)

Calculate the farm's Net Worth.

d)

Analyze a single enterprise.

27.

In an enterprise budget, 'Gross Margin' is calculated as:

a)

Total Revenue - Total Fixed Costs

b)

Total Revenue - Total Variable Costs

c)

Total Assets - Total Liabilities

d)

Total Revenue - Total Expenses

28.

Which of the following would NOT be included in a Cash Flow Budget?

a)

Sale of grain

b)

Family living expenses

c)

A principal payment on a loan

d)

Depreciation on a tractor

29.

A "Whole-Farm Budget" is designed to:

a)

Estimate the total profit for the entire farm business.

b)

Analyze one specific change.

c)

Show the farm's liquidity position.

d)

Track only cash expenses.

30.

If a partial budget analysis shows a "Net Change in Profit" of -$500, what does this imply?

a)

The proposed change will increase profit by $500.

b)

The proposed change will decrease profit by $500.

c)

The farm's cash flow will decrease by $500.

d)

The farm's total assets will decrease by $500.

31.

In an enterprise budget, the "break-even yield" is calculated as:

a)

Total Cost / Selling Price

b)

Total Cost / Expected Yield

c)

Total Revenue / Total Cost

d)

Selling Price / Total Cost

32.

In an enterprise budget, the "break-even price" is calculated as:

a)

Total Cost / Expected Yield

b)

Total Cost / Selling Price

c)

Total Revenue / Total Cost

d)

Expected Yield / Total Cost

33.

A cash flow budget is most useful for planning:

a)

Borrowing and debt repayment.

b)

The farm's long-term solvency.

c)

The correct depreciation schedule.

d)

The farm's tax liability.

34.

A farmer is considering replacing 100 acres of soybeans with 100 acres of corn. What is the "Reduced Revenue" in a partial budget for this change?

a)

The expected revenue from 100 acres of corn.

b)

The expected revenue from 100 acres of soybeans.

c)

The cost of growing 100 acres of corn.

d)

The cost of growing 100 acres of soybeans.

35.

A farmer is considering buying a combine instead of custom hiring. What is the "Added Cost" in a partial budget for this change?

a)

The annual custom hire bill.

b)

The revenue from the crop.

c)

The ownership and operating costs of the new combine.

d)

The value of the grain harvested.

36.

A "sensitivity analysis" performed on a budget is:

a)

Checking the math for errors.

b)

Asking a neighbor if the numbers look right.

c)

Evaluating the effect of changing key assumptions (like price or yield).

d)

Comparing the budget to historical performance.

37.

A plan for the sources and uses of capital for the business (e.g., land, machinery) is a:

a)

Capital Budget

b)

Operating Budget

c)

Labor Budget

d)

Cash Flow Budget

38.

Which of the following is a 'fixed' cost (also known as an 'ownership' cost)?

a)

Fuel

b)

Seed

c)

Hired Labor

d)

Depreciation

39.

A cash flow budget typically includes all of the following except:

a)

Beginning cash balance

b)

Cash from crop sales

c)

Cash paid for fertilizer

d)

Change in inventory value

40.

An enterprise budget showing a positive 'Return Over Variable Costs' (Gross Margin) but a negative 'Return Over Total Costs' means:

a)

The enterprise should be shut down immediately.

b)

The enterprise is profitable in the long run.

c)

The enterprise is covering all its variable costs and contributing some money to fixed costs.

d)

The enterprise is not covering its variable costs.

41.

The economic principle that a dollar received today is worth more than a dollar received in the future is known as:

a)

The Law of Diminishing Returns

b)

The Time Value of Money

c)

Opportunity Cost

d)

The Law of Supply

42.

The process of finding the future value of a present sum of money is called:

a)

Discounting

b)

Compounding

c)

Amortizing

d)

Budgeting

43.

The process of finding the present value of a future sum of money is called:

a)

Discounting

b)

Compounding

c)

Inflating

d)

Appreciating

44.

Which capital budgeting method calculates the number of years required for an investment's net returns to cover its initial cost?

a)

Net Present Value (NPV)

b)

Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

c)

Payback Period

d)

Simple Rate of Return

45.

The 'Simple Rate of Return' is calculated as:

a)

(Average Annual Net Return / Initial Investment) x 100

b)

Initial Investment / Average Annual Net Return

c)

Average Annual Net Return / Total Investment

d)

Total Investment / Average Annual Net Return

46.

Which capital budgeting method subtracts the initial cost of an investment from the sum of the present values of its future net returns?

a)

Net Present Value (NPV)

b)

Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

c)

Payback Period

d)

Benefit-Cost Ratio

47.

If an investment has a Net Present Value (NPV) of $5,000, the project should be:

a)

Rejected, because the NPV is not zero.

b)

Accepted, because the NPV is positive.

c)

Rejected, because the NPV is positive.

d)

Further analyzed, as this value is inconclusive.

48.

The "Internal Rate of Return" (IRR) is defined as:

a)

The average interest rate paid on farm loans.

b)

The rate of return on the farm's total assets.

c)

The discount rate that makes the NPV of an investment equal to zero.

d)

The initial cost divided by the annual return.

49.

If the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) on an investment is 12% and the farmer's required rate of return (discount rate) is 8%, the farmer should:

a)

Accept the investment.

b)

Reject the investment.

c)

Be indifferent about the investment.

d)

Wait for the IRR to equal the discount rate.

50.

A major weakness of the "Payback Period" method is that it:

a)

Is too complicated to calculate.

b)

Ignores the time value of money.

c)

Ignores cash flows that occur after the payback period.

d)

Both B and C.

51.

An "annuity" is:

a)

A lump sum payment.

b)

A series of equal, periodic payments.

c)

The interest rate on a loan.

d)

The total value of an investment.

52.

As the discount rate (interest rate) increases, the Present Value (PV) of a future payment:

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays the same

d)

Becomes zero

53.

An analysis of an investment in a new grain bin is an example of:

a)

Capital Budgeting

b)

An Enterprise Budget

c)

A Whole-Farm Plan

d)

Risk Management

54.

The "Initial Cost" of a new machine in an investment analysis should include:

a)

Only the purchase price.

b)

The purchase price plus any additional setup or delivery costs.

c)

The purchase price minus the salvage value.

d)

The value of the first year's crop.

55.

The 'salvage value' of an investment is:

a)

The cost to repair it.

b)

The value of the asset at the end of its useful life.

c)

The initial purchase price.

d)

The amount of depreciation.

56.

A widespread drought that reduces crop yields is an example of what type of risk?

a)

Production Risk

b)

Market (Price) Risk

c)

Financial Risk

d)

Legal Risk

57.

A sudden drop in cattle prices due to a change in consumer preferences is an example of what type of risk?

a)

Production Risk

b)

Market (Price) Risk

c)

Financial Risk

d)

Human Risk

58.

The risk of rising interest rates on a variable-rate loan is an example of:

a)

Production Risk

b)

Market (Price) Risk

c)

Financial Risk

d)

Legal Risk

59.

Purchasing multi-peril crop insurance is a strategy to manage:

a)

Production Risk

b)

Market (Price) Risk

c)

Financial Risk

d)

Legal Risk

60.

Using the futures market to lock in a selling price for a commodity you will sell in the future is called:

a)

Hedging

b)

Speculating

c)

Forward Contracting

d)

Diversifying

61.

A legal agreement with a local elevator to deliver 10,000 bushels of corn at a specified price on a future date is a:

a)

Futures Contract

b)

Put Option

c)

Forward Contract

d)

Basis Contract

62.

'Diversification,' such as growing both corn and soybeans and raising cattle, is a strategy to manage:

a)

Production risk only

b)

Price risk only

c)

Both production and price risk

d)

Legal risk

63.

Which type of risk relates to the farm's ability to maintain sufficient cash flow to meet its financial obligations?

a)

Production Risk

b)

Financial Risk

c)

Market (Price) Risk

d)

Legal Risk

64.

A contract that gives the holder the right, but not the obligation, to sell a futures contract at a specific price is a(n):

a)

Put Option

b)

Call Option

c)

Forward Contract

d)

Hedged-to-Arrive Contract

65.

A contract that gives the holder the right, but not the obligation, to buy a futures contract at a specific price is a(n):

a)

Put Option

b)

Call Option

c)

Forward Contract

d)

Basis Contract

66.

The "premium" is the cost of:

a)

A futures contract

b)

An options contract (Put or Call)

c)

A forward contract

d)

A bank loan

67.

Maintaining a good relationship with a lender to ensure access to credit is a strategy for managing:

a)

Production Risk

b)

Price Risk

c)

Financial Risk

d)

Human Risk

68.

The risk of a key employee quitting or the owner becoming disabled is:

a)

Legal Risk

b)

Financial Risk

c)

Human Risk

d)

Production Risk

69.

Creating an LLC (Limited Liability Company) for the farm business is a strategy to manage:

a)

Production Risk

b)

Price Risk

c)

Legal and Financial Risk

d)

Human Risk

70.

Spreading sales of a commodity (e.g., selling 25% of the crop at four different times) is a tool to manage:

a)

Production Risk

b)

Price Risk

c)

Financial Risk

d)

Legal Risk

71.

The value of the next best alternative that is given up when a decision is made is called:

a)

Marginal Cost

b)

Fixed Cost

c)

Opportunity Cost

d)

Sunk Cost

72.

The economic principle that states, "all else being equal, as the price of a good increases, the quantity demanded by consumers will decrease" is:

a)

The Law of Supply

b)

The Law of Demand

c)

The Law of Diminishing Returns

d)

The Law of Comparative Advantage

73.

The economic principle that states, "all else being equal, as the price of a good increases, the quantity supplied by producers will increase" is:

a)

The Law of Supply

b)

The Law of Demand

c)

The Law of Diminishing Returns

d)

The Law of Comparative Advantage

74.

The point where the quantity supplied and the quantity demanded for a good are equal is called:

a)

The inelastic point

b)

The elastic point

c)

The equilibrium price

d)

The break-even price

75.

The "Law of Diminishing Marginal Returns" states that as more units of a variable input (like fertilizer) are added to fixed inputs (like land), eventually:

a)

The total output will decrease.

b)

The additional output (marginal product) from each new unit of input will decrease.

c)

The price of the output will decrease.

d)

The cost of the input will increase.

76.

If a 10% increase in the price of milk leads to only a 5% decrease in the quantity demanded, the demand for milk is:

a)

Elastic

b)

Inelastic

c)

Unitary Elastic

d)

Perfectly Elastic

77.

If a 5% increase in the price of steak leads to a 10% decrease in the quantity demanded, the demand for steak is:

a)

Elastic

b)

Inelastic

c)

Unitary Elastic

d)

Perfectly Inelastic

78.

Most raw agricultural commodities, like wheat and corn, typically have:

a)

Elastic demand

b)

Inelastic demand

c)

Elastic supply

d)

No demand

79.

A "substitute good" is one that:

a)

Is used in conjunction with another good (e.g., peanut butter and jelly).

b)

Can be used in place of another good (e.g., pork and chicken).

c)

Is a raw input for another good.

d)

Is an inferior good.

80.

A "complementary good" is one that:

a)

Is used in conjunction with another good (e.g., tractors and fuel).

b)

Can be used in place of another good.

c)

Is a luxury item.

d)

Is an inferior good.

81.

"Marginal Cost" is defined as:

a)

The total cost divided by the total output.

b)

The change in total cost from producing one more unit of output.

c)

The total fixed cost.

d)

The total variable cost.

82.

A producer should continue to add units of a variable input (like fertilizer) as long as:

a)

The marginal revenue (MVP) is greater than or equal to the marginal cost (MIC).

b)

The total revenue is positive.

c)

The price of the input is decreasing.

d)

The total output is increasing.

83.

"Economies of scale" refers to:

a)

The decrease in per-unit cost as the size of the operation increases.

b)

The increase in per-unit cost as the size of the operation increases.

c)

The point of maximum profit.

d)

The point of diminishing returns.

84.

A cost that has already been incurred and cannot be recovered is a:

a)

Fixed Cost

b)

Variable Cost

c)

Sunk Cost

d)

Opportunity Cost

85.

The ability of a farm to produce a good at a lower opportunity cost than another farm is called:

a)

Absolute Advantage

b)

Comparative Advantage

c)

Competitive Advantage

d)

Diminishing Returns

86.

The process of paying off a loan in a series of regular, equal payments (including both principal and interest) is called:

a)

Depreciation

b)

Amortization

c)

Compounding

d)

Hedging

87.

The difference between the local cash price for a commodity and the price of a specific futures contract is the:

a)

Premium

b)

Basis

c)

Strike Price

d)

Margin

88.

A business organization in which two or more individuals own and manage a business and are jointly liable for its debts is a:

a)

Sole Proprietorship

b)

Corporation

c)

Partnership

d)

Stocks

89.

A "bear" market is one characterized by:

a)

Rising prices

b)

Falling prices

c)

Volatile prices

d)

Stable prices

90.

A "bull" market is one characterized by:

a)

Rising prices

b)

Falling prices

c)

Volatile prices

d)

Stable prices

91.

The money deposited with a broker to ensure performance on a futures contract is called:

a)

A premium

b)

A commission

c)

A margin

d)

A basis

92.

The owner's claim on the assets of the business (Total Assets - Total Liabilities) is:

a)

Equity (or Net Worth)

b)

Revenue

c)

Net Income

d)

Working Capital

93.

A "patronage refund" is a payment from a(n) _______ to its members.

a)

Bank

b)

Cooperative

c)

Insurance Company

d)

LLC

94.

The legal document that transfers title of real estate from a seller to a buyer is a:

a)

Lease

b)

Mortgage

c)

Deed

d)

Note

95.

An asset that is pledged to a lender to secure a loan is called:

a)

Collateral

b)

Equity

c)

A liability

d)

Working Capital

96.

A market with many buyers and sellers, a homogeneous product, and free entry and exit is:

a)

A monopoly

b)

An oligopoly

c)

A monopsony

d)

Perfect competition

97.

A market with only one buyer is a:

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopsony

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Perfect competition

98.

Renting farmland for a fixed amount (e.g., $200 per acre) is what type of lease?

a)

Cash Lease

b)

Crop-Share Lease

c)

Livestock-Share Lease

d)

Flexible Lease

99.

A person who acts as an agent for a buyer or seller in a futures market transaction is a:

a)

Speculator

b)

Hedger

c)

Broker

d)

Arbitrageur

100.

The part of a loan payment that reduces the total amount of debt owed (and is not interest) is the:

a)

Principal

b)

Premium

c)

Collateral

d)

Basis