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Australian First Aid Manual Introduction

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the DRSABCD action plan, what should you do first if there is a danger to yourself, others, or the patient?

a)

Immediately start CPR

b)

Remove the danger if safe to do so, or remove the patient from danger

c)

Check breathing for 10 seconds

d)

Apply an AED

2.

During the 'Breathing?' step, which action indicates you are correctly checking for normal breathing?

a)

Count pulse for 10 seconds

b)

Tilt the head forward and look for chest rise for 5 seconds

c)

Look, listen and feel for 10 seconds after tilting the patient's head back

d)

Begin defibrillation immediately without assessment

3.

A conscious adult has visible food in their mouth obstructing the airway. Based on the Airway guidance, what is the correct sequence of actions?

a)

Apply an AED, then roll into recovery position

b)

Start CPR, then remove all dentures

c)

Turn the patient into the recovery position, tilt the head back with the mouth slightly downwards, and remove visible objects with your fingers (only remove dentures if loose or broken)

d)

Blindly sweep fingers in the mouth while the patient lies face up

4.

Which step is correct when opening the airway for an adult or child over 1 year?

a)

Place your hand high on the patient’s forehead and tilt the head backwards while lifting the chin.

b)

Apply pressure on the soft tissues of the neck to open the airway.

c)

Keep the head in a neutral position and avoid opening the mouth.

d)

Turn the patient into the recovery position immediately without checking airway.

5.

For an infant (under 1 year), which action should NOT be performed when attempting to open the airway?

a)

Place the infant flat on their back.

b)

Support the lower jaw at the point of the chin with the mouth open.

c)

Apply pressure on the soft tissues of the neck.

d)

Keep the infant’s head in a neutral position.

6.

After ensuring the airway is open, how long should you take to check for normal breathing by looking, listening, and feeling?

a)

More than 30 seconds

b)

Exactly 15 seconds

c)

No more than 10 seconds (2–3 breaths)

d)

About 1 minute

7.

If the patient is not breathing, what is the correct immediate sequence according to the guidance?

a)

Start CPR, then call Triple Zero (000).

b)

Call Triple Zero (000). If alone, place the patient in the recovery position with their airway open and clear, then call for an ambulance and start CPR.

c)

Turn the patient onto their back and wait for medical aid.

d)

Continue checking breathing without calling for help.

8.

Which statement about CPR from the guidance is accurate?

a)

CPR is only given if the patient is conscious and breathing slowly.

b)

Compressions should be given at about 2 per second, aiming for 5 sets of 30 compressions and 2 breaths in about 2 minutes.

c)

Any attempt at resuscitation is discouraged unless trained.

d)

The method of chest compressions and rescue breaths is identical for infants and adults.

9.

In emergency first aid, an AED should be used if the patient is unresponsive and not breathing normally. Which action should you take before using the AED according to the notes?

a)

Wait for the patient to regain consciousness

b)

Ensure Triple Zero (000) has been called for an ambulance

c)

Give the patient water

d)

Remove the patient's shoes

10.

When preparing a patient for AED pad placement, which step is part of the “What to do” list?

a)

Apply the pads first, then expose the chest

b)

Expose the patient’s chest and wipe it dry if damp

c)

Begin CPR only after the AED is attached

d)

Remove all clothing regardless of pad placement

11.

According to the guidance for children and infants, which statement is correct?

a)

Children over 8 years are managed differently from adults

b)

Standard adult pads must never be used on children

c)

Prefer an AED with paediatric capability and pads for ages 1–8 years

d)

Infants under 1 year cannot be defibrillated

12.

For an adult or child over 8 years, where should the first AED pad be placed?

a)

Centre of the chest

b)

Patient’s right chest wall, below the collarbone

c)

Patient’s left chest wall, below the left nipple

d)

Between the shoulder blades

13.

On a child under 8 years or an infant, which pairing correctly describes pad placement?

a)

First pad on right chest; second pad on left chest

b)

First pad centre of chest; second pad centre of back between shoulder blades

c)

First pad below collarbone; second pad below left nipple

d)

Pads should touch each other on the chest

14.

During AED use, what must happen while the device analyses and delivers a shock?

a)

Everyone should continue touching the patient

b)

The rescuer should leave the room

c)

No-one should touch the patient; stop CPR and move slightly away

d)

Remove the pads to reduce contact

15.

Which sequence step is included in placing an adult or child over 1 year into the recovery position?

a)

Roll the patient toward you while keeping both legs straight

b)

Place the patient’s nearest arm across their chest and roll them away onto their side

c)

Lift both legs to the chest then roll onto their stomach

d)

Turn the patient’s head downwards and close the airway

16.

For an infant under 1 year, how is the recovery position performed?

a)

Lie the infant face up with head tilted back

b)

Lie the infant face down on your forearm and support the head with your hand

c)

Place the infant on their side with a bent knee

d)

Sit the infant upright and support the chin

17.

When preparing to place an unconscious adult or child (over 1 year) into the recovery position, which arm should be extended directly out from the body?

a)

The nearest arm

b)

The far arm

c)

Both arms

d)

Neither arm

18.

Which action helps keep an adult or child in the recovery position from rolling onto their face?

a)

Straighten both legs

b)

Flex the far leg at the knee

c)

Keep the bent knee touching the ground

d)

Place both hands under the chin

19.

For an infant (under 1 year), what is the correct recovery position?

a)

On their back with head tilted back

b)

Face down on your forearm, supporting the head with your hand

c)

On their side with knee bent

d)

Sitting upright with chin lifted

20.

During the roll into the recovery position for an adult/child, what must you carefully support the entire time?

a)

Hips

b)

Head and neck

c)

Feet

d)

Lower back

21.

Which step is part of opening the airway for an unconscious adult or child before placing in recovery position?

a)

Place their hand under their chin to prevent tilting and keep airway open

b)

Tie a blanket around the torso

c)

Raise both legs above heart level

d)

Deliver five back blows

22.

In a choking adult or child over 1 year, what is the first recommended action?

a)

Begin CPR immediately

b)

Give five chest thrusts

c)

Encourage the patient to relax and cough

d)

Call an ambulance before doing anything

23.

Where should back blows be delivered during choking management for an adult or child?

a)

Between the shoulder blades using the heel of one hand

b)

On the lower back using two hands

c)

On the neck with fingertips

d)

On the upper chest with knuckles

24.

After five back blows fail to clear the obstruction, what is the next step for a choking adult or child?

a)

Perform abdominal thrusts

b)

Give up to five chest thrusts on the lower half of the sternum

c)

Place the patient in recovery position

d)

Stop and wait for medical aid

25.

If the choking blockage has not cleared after five chest thrusts, what should you do until medical aid arrives?

a)

Alternate five back blows with five chest thrusts

b)

Switch to CPR compressions only

c)

Give continuous back blows without pausing

d)

Administer water to help swallow

26.

Which sign indicates severe shock and suggests the patient is very sick?

a)

Pale face and cool skin

b)

Nausea and anxiety

c)

Blue lips, face, earlobes, or fingernails

d)

Muscle weakness only

27.

When assessing a patient’s breathing during an asthma emergency, which sign indicates severe difficulty and the need for urgent help?

a)

Persistent cough with short sentences

b)

Increasingly soft to loud wheeze

c)

Unable to speak normally with severe shortness of breath

d)

Minor difficulty breathing

28.

During an asthma emergency, what is the recommended action if the patient still cannot breathe normally after the initial 4 puffs and 4 minutes?

a)

Give one more puff and wait 10 minutes

b)

Call Triple Zero (000) for an ambulance and state it is an asthma attack

c)

Allow the patient to walk around for fresh air

d)

Stop giving medication and wait for symptoms to settle

29.

What is the correct initial positioning for a patient experiencing an asthma attack who is conscious?

a)

Lay them flat on their back

b)

Help them to sit down in a comfortable position

c)

Place them in the recovery position

d)

Have them stand and lean forward

30.

Which sequence correctly describes giving reliever medication using a puffer for asthma?

a)

Take 2 puffs at once, wait 1 minute, repeat until 6 puffs

b)

Shake inhaler, take 1 puff, take four breaths; repeat until 4 puffs are given

c)

Take 1 puff every 10 minutes, no spacer needed

d)

Shake inhaler, give 4 puffs at once, then call emergency

31.

Which symptom differentiates an asthma emergency from a mild to moderate attack?

a)

Watery eyes

b)

Persistent cough

c)

Blue lips, face, earlobes, or fingernails

d)

Can walk and speak in short sentences

32.

In a patient with known asthma who suddenly has breathing difficulty due to a food allergy, what medication should be given first?

a)

Asthma reliever puffer

b)

Adrenaline via autoinjector

c)

Antihistamine tablets

d)

Oral steroids

33.

For a mild to moderate allergic reaction, which action is appropriate after reassuring the patient?

a)

Let the patient stand and walk to improve circulation

b)

Remove or move away from the allergen and give prescribed medications

c)

Apply heat to the sting or bite site

d)

Stop checking the patient’s breathing and pulse

34.

What is the recommended action sequence when an asthma patient with an adrenaline autoinjector has sudden breathing difficulty?

a)

Give asthma reliever first, then adrenaline, and allow the patient to walk

b)

Help the patient to sit, use adrenaline autoinjector first, call Triple Zero (000), follow the anaphylaxis action plan

c)

Lay the patient flat, avoid medication, wait for ambulance

d)

Give antihistamines, then encourage deep breaths

35.

When performing adult CPR, what is the recommended compression depth?

a)

About 2 cm

b)

About 5–6 cm

c)

More than 7 cm

d)

Exactly 3 cm

36.

For adult and child CPR, what compression rate should you maintain?

a)

60 compressions per minute

b)

80–100 compressions per minute

c)

100–120 compressions per minute

d)

140 compressions per minute

37.

Where should you place your hands for adult chest compressions?

a)

On the lower half of the sternum, center of the chest

b)

Over the left nipple

c)

On the upper sternum near the clavicles

d)

Two fingers below the ribcage

38.

During adult CPR, what is the proper compression-to-ventilation ratio when providing rescue breaths with no advanced airway?

a)

15:2

b)

30:2

c)

10:1

d)

5:1

39.

How should chest recoil be handled during compressions for adult CPR?

a)

Keep slight pressure on the chest to maintain contact

b)

Allow full recoil after each compression

c)

Lift hands fully off the chest between compressions

d)

Press faster to minimize recoil

40.

For infant chest compressions when a single rescuer is present, which technique is recommended?

a)

Two-hand sternum technique

b)

One-hand compressions over the sternum

c)

Two-thumb encircling hands technique

d)

Heel-of-hand over lower ribs

41.

What is the correct compression depth for infants during CPR?

a)

About one-third the chest depth (approximately 4 cm)

b)

Exactly 6 cm

c)

Two inches

d)

Half the chest depth

42.

For infants, where should you deliver chest compressions?

a)

Over the left side of the chest

b)

Just below the nipple line on the sternum

c)

Midway between sternum and ribs

d)

Over the upper sternum

43.

When giving rescue breaths to an adult, how long should each breath be delivered?

a)

1 second, enough to make the chest rise

b)

3 seconds, slow inflation

c)

Half a second, quick puff

d)

Continuous breathing for 5 seconds

44.

How should you position the airway for adult rescue breaths?

a)

Neutral head position with no tilt

b)

Head tilt–chin lift to open the airway

c)

Jaw thrust only for all cases

d)

Place patient in recovery position

45.

For infant rescue breaths, how should you seal the airway with your mouth?

a)

Seal over the mouth only

b)

Seal over the nose only

c)

Seal over the mouth and nose together

d)

Use a pocket mask only

46.

What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio when performing CPR on infants and children with a single rescuer and no advanced airway?

a)

15:2

b)

30:2

c)

20:2

d)

5:1

47.

When performing CPR on an adult, what is the recommended rate of chest compressions per minute?

a)

60–80 compressions per minute

b)

80–100 compressions per minute

c)

100–120 compressions per minute

d)

120–140 compressions per minute

48.

A bystander finds a patient who is breathing but unconscious. What is the first action they should take?

a)

Begin CPR immediately

b)

Turn the patient into the recovery position

c)

Apply an AED

d)

Give two rescue breaths

49.

During adult CPR, how many compressions and breaths make up one full cycle that should be repeated to reach about 5 sets in 2 minutes?

a)

15 compressions and 2 breaths

b)

30 compressions and 2 breaths

c)

50 compressions and 1 breath

d)

30 compressions and 5 breaths

50.

What should a first aider do if the patient stops breathing while in the recovery position?

a)

Leave the patient as they are and call for help

b)

Roll the patient onto their back and start CPR

c)

Apply a pressure–immobilisation bandage

d)

Wait for medical personnel to arrive

51.

Which statement best describes the difference in CPR methods across age groups according to the material?

a)

The method is the same for all ages

b)

Children (1–8 years) and adults use one method; infants (less than 1 year) use a different method

c)

Adults and infants use one method; children use a different method

d)

Only infants require rescue breaths

52.

Which action helps avoid interruptions to chest compressions during CPR?

a)

Checking the pulse every 15 seconds

b)

Ensuring airway assessments take at least 30 seconds

c)

Planning to achieve 5 sets of 30 compressions and 2 breaths in about 2 minutes

d)

Pausing compressions while calling emergency services

53.

In the context of emergency first aid for snake bite, which type of bandage is preferred for pressure–immobilisation?

a)

Soft crepe bandage

b)

Elasticised roller bandage

c)

Gauze wrap

d)

Self-adhesive tape

54.

When applying the second elasticised roller bandage for a snake bite, where should you start?

a)

At the bite site

b)

Just above the fingers or toes of the bitten limb

c)

At the knee or elbow

d)

Below the ankle or wrist

55.

After bandaging a limb for snake bite, what additional step should be taken to immobilise the limb?

a)

Apply ice packs

b)

Use splints with figure-of-eight bandaging at the feet and ankles

c)

Massage the limb to improve circulation

d)

Loosen the bandage to allow movement

56.

A patient who has suffered a blow to the head becomes unconscious but is breathing. Which immediate steps should be taken?

a)

Begin CPR and then call an ambulance

b)

Place the patient in the recovery position, support the head/neck, and call Triple Zero (000)

c)

Apply an AED and deliver a shock

d)

Give them water and keep them walking

57.

Which statement best defines shock in first aid context?

a)

A condition where the body’s organs and tissues do not receive adequate blood flow and oxygen

b)

A temporary fainting episode caused by low blood sugar

c)

A minor allergic reaction limited to skin redness

d)

A state of elevated blood pressure due to stress

58.

Which is considered a life-threatening condition requiring immediate management for shock?

a)

Normal breathing with mild dizziness

b)

Persistent chest pain and signs of poor perfusion

c)

Slight headache after exercise

d)

Minor cut with controlled bleeding

59.

Which of the following is an initial symptom of shock?

a)

Warm, flushed skin

b)

Slow, bounding pulse

c)

Pale, cool, clammy skin

d)

High temperature and sweating from exercise

60.

Which severe symptom indicates shock is worsening and requires urgent intervention?

a)

Mild thirst

b)

Sudden improvement in energy

c)

Confusion or decreased responsiveness

d)

Slight increase in appetite

61.

What is the FIRST step a first aider should take when managing a patient suspected of shock?

a)

Provide water immediately

b)

Lay the patient down and elevate the legs if no trauma is suspected

c)

Check for danger, send for help, and assess airway, breathing, and circulation

d)

Apply an ice pack to the chest

62.

For a conscious patient showing early signs of shock, which action is most appropriate?

a)

Encourage rapid standing to improve circulation

b)

Keep the patient warm and reassure them while monitoring breathing and pulse

c)

Give strong coffee to raise blood pressure

d)

Begin chest compressions immediately

63.

Which statement about breathing in shock management is correct?

a)

If breathing is absent, provide oxygen only

b)

If breathing is absent or inadequate, begin CPR and be prepared to use oxygen delivery equipment if trained

c)

Avoid touching the airway to prevent distress

d)

Only deliver breaths if the patient requests oxygen

64.

During shock management, what should be done regarding external bleeding?

a)

Ignore bleeding until the patient becomes unconscious

b)

Apply direct pressure to control bleeding promptly

c)

Use cold water to rinse the wound before pressure

d)

Wait for medical personnel before any action

65.

Which observation best differentiates early shock from severe shock?

a)

Early shock presents with pale, cool skin; severe shock may include confusion and weak or rapid pulse

b)

Early shock includes confusion; severe shock shows normal mental status

c)

Severe shock shows improved skin color and temperature

d)

Early shock includes strong, slow pulse; severe shock includes strong, regular pulse

66.

Why is keeping a patient warm important in shock management?

a)

Warmth prevents infection at wound sites

b)

It reduces metabolic rate to conserve energy

c)

It helps prevent further heat loss, supporting circulation and oxygen delivery to tissues

d)

It encourages sweating to eliminate toxins

67.

Which initial action is recommended when an adult or child shows signs of severe choking but can still cough or speak?

a)

Begin CPR immediately

b)

Encourage them to continue coughing and monitor closely

c)

Deliver back blows right away

d)

Give water to help clear the airway

68.

For a responsive adult with a complete airway obstruction, which sequence most accurately describes the first-aid procedure?

a)

Call emergency services, start CPR, then deliver back blows

b)

Deliver up to 5 back blows between the shoulder blades, then up to 5 chest thrusts if needed

c)

Place the person in recovery position and wait

d)

Administer an inhaler and reassess

69.

When assisting a choking infant who is responsive, what is the correct body positioning before giving back blows?

a)

Supine on a firm surface with head higher than chest

b)

Sitting upright in caregiver’s lap

c)

Face-down along forearm with head lower than chest, supporting the jaw

d)

Standing while being gently shaken

70.

Where should back blows be targeted during choking first aid?

a)

Lower back, near the hips

b)

Between the shoulder blades

c)

Directly on the throat

d)

On the abdomen

71.

Which statement best distinguishes chest thrusts for infants from abdominal thrusts in adults/children?

a)

Both use the same hand placement on the upper abdomen

b)

Infant chest thrusts are delivered on the sternum; adults/children use abdominal thrusts above the navel

c)

Infants receive abdominal thrusts while adults receive chest thrusts

d)

Neither technique involves compressions

72.

During choking first aid, when should you call for emergency medical help?

a)

Only after the object is expelled

b)

Immediately if the person cannot breathe, cough, or speak, or if they become unresponsive

c)

Only if the first set of back blows fails

d)

Never if the person is an infant

73.

A choking adult becomes unresponsive while you are performing back blows and chest thrusts. What is the next best action?

a)

Place in recovery position and wait

b)

Start CPR with chest compressions, and look for an object in the mouth before giving breaths

c)

Attempt more forceful back blows

d)

Give abdominal thrusts while the person is lying down

74.

Which principle explains why the infant’s head should be lower than the chest during back blows?

a)

It keeps the airway closed to prevent aspiration

b)

Gravity helps dislodge the object from the airway

c)

It protects the spine from movement

d)

It reduces the need for chest thrusts

75.

After delivering 5 back blows to a choking adult with complete obstruction and no improvement, what is the appropriate follow-up?

a)

Switch to up to 5 chest thrusts and repeat the cycle as needed

b)

Give water and encourage deep breaths

c)

Stop and wait for EMS

d)

Perform abdominal thrusts only while seated

76.

What indicator suggests it is time to transition from choking first aid to CPR?

a)

The person expels the object

b)

The person reports mild discomfort

c)

The person becomes unresponsive and is not breathing normally

d)

EMS arrives

77.

Which symptom is most characteristic of an asthma attack and signals the need to consider a reliever inhaler if available?

a)

Chest pain with no breathing changes

b)

Wheeze with obvious difficulty in breathing

c)

High fever and chills

d)

Severe nosebleed

78.

What is the primary purpose of an asthma reliever medication (puffer) during an attack?

a)

Reduce body temperature

b)

Open the airways to ease breathing

c)

Increase blood sugar

d)

Sedate the patient

79.

During a mild to moderate allergic reaction from an insect sting, which action is most appropriate if the person has their usual medication?

a)

Avoid all medication and wait for symptoms to pass

b)

Administer their prescribed reliever or antihistamine as directed

c)

Give them any available painkiller

d)

Apply an ice pack only and do nothing else

80.

Which sequence best reflects first aid priorities for a person with severe breathing difficulty from asthma or an allergic reaction?

a)

Provide food, keep them walking, and monitor later

b)

Follow DRSABCD, call emergency services, help them into a comfortable position, loosen tight clothing, and consider reliever medication if available

c)

Give water, wait 30 minutes, then reassess

d)

Drive them to a clinic yourself before calling for help

81.

In the context of asthma management, when should emergency services be called?

a)

Only if the patient asks

b)

If breathing difficulty is obvious or worsening despite initial management

c)

After 24 hours if symptoms persist

d)

Never; asthma is not an emergency

82.

A student with a known insect allergy is stung and develops itching and local swelling but can breathe normally. What is the best immediate management?

a)

Treat as cardiac arrest immediately

b)

Encourage rest, monitor, and assist with their usual allergy medication as directed

c)

Force the student to run to increase circulation

d)

Give them someone else’s prescription medication

83.

Which sign differentiates a mild allergic reaction from a potentially life-threatening situation requiring urgent escalation?

a)

Localized itching only

b)

Development of breathing difficulties or wheeze

c)

Mild redness at the sting site

d)

Brief sneezing

84.

Why is it important to have rapid access to reliever medication for asthma during physical activity sessions?

a)

To prevent dehydration

b)

Because prompt bronchodilation can quickly improve airflow and reduce distress

c)

To increase heart rate for performance

d)

To treat muscle cramps

85.

Which immediate first aid action is recommended at the first signs of anaphylaxis?

a)

Give water and monitor for 30 minutes

b)

Administer an adrenaline auto-injector (e.g., EpiPen/Anapen) immediately

c)

Apply cold compresses to the affected area

d)

Have the person lie flat and avoid medication

86.

Which of the following is a common warning sign or symptom of anaphylaxis?

a)

Gradual onset of mild headache only

b)

Localised redness without swelling

c)

Difficulty breathing and swelling of the face or throat

d)

Increased energy and alertness

87.

Adrenaline auto-injectors like EpiPen or Anapen are primarily used to:

a)

Reduce fever during allergic reactions

b)

Reverse life-threatening airway and circulation problems in anaphylaxis

c)

Treat mild skin rashes

d)

Prevent future allergies

88.

After administering an adrenaline auto-injector for anaphylaxis, what is the next best step?

a)

Do nothing further and wait for recovery

b)

Give food and drink immediately

c)

Call emergency services and continue to monitor breathing and circulation

d)

Start chest compressions regardless of breathing

89.

Where should an adrenaline auto-injector generally be administered?

a)

Into the buttock muscle

b)

Into the outer mid-thigh, through clothing if necessary

c)

Into the upper arm deltoid only, after removing clothing

d)

Under the tongue

90.

Which scenario best indicates the need to use a second adrenaline auto-injector?

a)

Symptoms resolve completely within 5 minutes

b)

No improvement or deterioration after the first dose and emergency help is delayed

c)

Mild local itch without breathing issues

d)

Patient requests another dose for reassurance

91.

Which statement best explains why adrenaline is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis?

a)

It lowers blood sugar, preventing shock

b)

It constricts blood vessels and relaxes airway muscles, improving breathing and blood pressure

c)

It sedates the patient to reduce anxiety

d)

It increases digestive activity to counter allergens

92.

During monitoring after an auto-injector is used, which action is most appropriate if the person becomes unresponsive and is not breathing normally?

a)

Place them in a chair and keep talking

b)

Begin CPR and follow DRSABCD while awaiting emergency services

c)

Give another food item to raise blood sugar

d)

Leave them alone to rest