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Materiales y Procesos

Total questions: 109

Worksheet time: 3hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The most generally used metal for aircraft firewalls is _______.

a)

Iron

b)

Stainless Steel

c)

Aluminium

2.

Most welded steel aircraft structure is made of SAE steel ____.

a)

1101

b)

2024

c)

4130

3.

Clad aluminium alloy has a coating of _____ rolled onto its surfaces to improve its corrosion resistance.

a)

Aluminium alloy

b)

Pure aluminium

c)

Stainless Steel

4.

SAE 1020 steel has a carbon content of ____.

a)

0,20%

b)

0,30%

c)

0,50%

d)

0,25%

5.

Commercially pure aluminum is identified by the code number ____.


a)

2024

b)

5057

c)

1100

6.

Identify the series numbers for aluminum alloys that have the following major alloys:            a. Copper b. Magnesium c. Zinc


a)

2XXXX - 5XXXX - 7XXXX


b)

1XXXX - 2XXXX - 3XXXX


c)

7XXXX - 5XXXX - 2XXXX


7.

Titanium can be welded by using ____ electric arc welding.


a)

Ammonia

b)

Inert-gas

c)

heat

8.

The reference wood used for aircraft construction is ____.


a)

Ash

b)

Douglas fir

c)

Birch

d)

Sitka Spruce

9.

Grade-A cotton fabric has a tensile strength of ____ pounds per inch.


a)

70

b)

60

c)

80

d)

90

10.

Polyester fabric is shrunk on an aircraft structure with ____.


a)

Oil

b)

Gas

c)

Water

d)

Heat

11.

Resins that are reinforced with glass filaments to make aircraft structural components are ____ resins.

a)

thermoplastic

b)

thermosetting

c)

polyester

d)

epoxy

12.

Catalysts are used with ____ resins to cause them to cure.


a)

epoxy

b)

polyester

c)

thermoplastic

d)

thermosetting

13.

Curing agents are used rather than catalysts when mixing ____  resins.

a)

thermoplastic

b)

polyester

c)

epoxy

d)

thermosetting

14.

Glass cloth that is woven with both warp and fill threads is called ____ cloth.

a)

bidirectional

b)

unidirectional

c)

epoxy

d)

stright

15.

Kevlar is ____ than fiberglass fabric of equal strength.

a)

heavier

b)

tinner

c)

lighter

16.

A pure metal, as distinguished from an alloy, ____ normally hardened by heat treatment.

a)

is

b)

is not

c)

can

d)

can not

17.

The form of heat treatment that hardens the surface of a metal while leaving the core relatively soft and tough is called ____.

a)

Normalizing

b)

Tempering

c)

Annealing

d)

Case harding

18.

The form of heat treatment that softens a metal is called ____.

a)

Tempering

b)

Annealing

c)

Case hardering

d)

Normalizing

19.

The form of heat treatment that relieves strains in a metal is called ____.

a)

Normalizing

b)

Annealing

c)

Case hardering

d)

Tempering

20.

The form of heat treatment that removes some of the hardness from hardened steel is called ____.

a)

Case hardering

b)

Normalizing

c)

Tempering

d)

Annealing

21.

Two methods of case hardening steel are:

a)

a. Carburizing

b. Nitriding

b)

a. Annealing

b. Normalizing

c)

a. Tempering

b. Ammonia

d)

a. Aging

b. Solution Heat Treatment

22.

A steel part is nitrided by heating it in an atmosphere containing ____ gas.

a)

nitrogen

b)

helio

c)

amonia

23.

Aluminum alloy is softened by heating it in an oven and cooling it ____.

a)

hardly

b)

rapidly

c)

slowly

24.

When an aluminum alloy part is heated in an oven and then quenched, it is said to be ____ heat treated.

a)

precipitation

b)

solution

c)

aging

25.

Artificial aging is done by holding a heat-treated aluminum alloy part at an elevated temperature for a specified length of time. This process is called ____ heat treating.

a)

precipitation

b)

solution

c)

aging

26.

When an aluminum alloy part is removed from the heat treatment oven and quenched, it is relatively soft. Over a period of a day or so, it increases its hardness and strength. This process is called ____.

a)

precipitation

b)

solution

c)

aging

27.

Steel is hardened by heating it to a specified temperature and then quenching it in oil, water, or brine. The hardest and most brittle steel is obtained by quenching it in ____.

a)

brine

b)

oil

c)

water

d)

wine

28.

A steel part may be made less brittle by heating it to a temperature quite a way below its critical temperature and allowing it to cool in still air. This procedure is called ____.

a)

annealing

b)

tempering

c)

case hardering

d)

aging

29.

Fill in the code letter that is used to identify each of the following treatments for aluminum alloy: -

a. As fabricated with no control over its temper __

b. Annealed __

c. Solution heat treated __

d. Strain hardened __

a)

a. F

b. H

c. T

d. O

b)

a. F

b. T

c. O

d. H

c)

a. F

b. H

c. O

d. T

d)

a. F

b. O

c. T

d. H

30.

Icebox rivets are aluminum alloy rivets that must be heat treated and stored in a subfreezing refrigerator until they are driven. Two alloys of which icebox rivets are made are ____ and ____.

a)
  • - 2027

  • - 2021

b)
  • - 2017

  • - 2024

c)
  • - 1100

  • - 5057

31.

An aluminum alloy sheet that has a coating of commercially pure aluminum rolled onto its surface is called ____ aluminum.

a)

alloy

b)

pure

c)

clad

32.

The aluminum alloy rivet that may be driven as it is received from the manufacturer without having to be heat treated is made of alloy ____.

a)

2117

b)

2021

c)

1100

d)

2024

33.

When a steel tubular fuselage is first welded, there are strains trapped in the structure. To relieve these strains, the structure is heated to a temperature above its critical temperature and allowed to cool in still air.

This procedure is called ____.

a)

tempering

b)

normalizing

c)

annealing

d)

case hardering

34.

If too much time elapses between the removal of a piece of aluminum alloy from the heat treatment oven and the time it is quenched, there is danger of ____ corrosion forming inside the part.

a)

surface

b)

intergranular

c)

granular

35.

The method of nondestructive inspection that allows the inside of a structure to be inspected without requiring extensive disassembly is ____ inspection.

a)

radiographic

b)

x-rays

c)

gamma

36.

Two types of radiographic inspection are:

a. ____

b. ____

a)

a. gamma rays

b. radiographic

b)

a. radiographic

b. x-rays

c)

a. x-rays

b. gamma rays

37.

X-rays produced by low power are called ____ X-rays.

a)

soft

b)

low

c)

tin

d)

little

38.

Anyone working with X-ray equipment should wear a ____ film badge.

a)

glasses, gloves and a helmet

b)

radiation - monitor

c)

protection

39.

A fault that does not extend to the surface ____ be detected by magnetic particle inspection.

a)

can not

b)

can

c)

may

d)

may not

40.

Magnetic particle inspection can only be used to detect flaws in metals containing ____.

a)

steel

b)

aluminium

c)

iron

d)

fiberglass

41.

When the strongest possible magnetic field is required to inspect for a fault, the ____ method of inspection is used.

a)

aging

b)

residual

c)

continuous

d)

tempering

42.

Small parts made of heat-treated steel are usually inspected by the ____ method of magnetic particle inspection.

a)

residual

b)

continuous

c)

tempering

d)

aging

43.

A part that is magnetized by holding it in a coil, or solenoid, is magnetized ____.

a)

vertically

b)

circularly

c)

longitudinally

d)

horizontally

44.

A part that is magnetized by passing magnetizing current through it is magnetized ____.

a)

vertically

b)

circularly

c)

longitudinally

d)

horizontally

45.

When inspecting for faults that extend parallel to the length of the part, the part should be magnetized ____.

a)

longitudinally

b)

circularly

c)

vertically

d)

horizontally

46.

When inspecting for faults that extend across a part, the part should be magnetized ____.

a)

horizantally

b)

longitudinally

c)

vertically

d)

circularly

47.

Two types of magnetic medium that may be used to detect faults by the magnetic particle inspection method are:

a. ____

b. ____

a)

a. dry powered

b. wet materials

b)

a. dry particule

b. wet suspension

c)

a. longitudinal magnetization.

b. eddy current inspection.

48.

A part is magnetized by holding it in a strong electromagnetic field produced by ____.

a)

AC

b)

DC

49.

A part is demagnetized by holding it in a decreasing magnetic field produced by ____.

a)

AC

b)

DC

50.

An indication of a fault detected by the magnetic particle inspection method that shows up as a rather fuzzy series of parallel lines is probably a/an ____.

a)

longitudinal

b)

circular

c)

inclusion

51.

The type of crack that gives the strongest indication in a magnetic particle inspection is a/an ____ crack.

a)

hard

b)

fatigue

c)

inclusion

d)

heavy

52.

For a fault to be detected by the penetrant inspection method, it ____ extend to the surface.

a)

does

b)

does not

53.

After the penetrant has been applied to the surface of a part and allowed to soak in, the surface of the part is washed and dried, and a/an ____ is applied.

a)

cure

b)

developer

c)

solvent

54.

Dye-penetrant inspection ____ be used to detect faults in nonmetallic materials.

a)

cannot

b)

can

c)

does

d)

does not

55.

Faults are detected when using the fluorescent-penetrant inspection method by examining the part under a/an ____ light.

a)

ultraviolet

b)

solar

c)

infrared

56.

A porous material ____ suited for inspection by the dye-penetrant method.

a)

is

b)

does

c)

is not

d)

does not

57.

Abrasive blasting ____ a good way to clean a part that is to be inspected by the dye-penetrant method.

a)

is not

b)

is

c)

may

d)

may not

58.

One of the most effective methods for inspecting a part for intergranular corrosion is the ____.

a)

solution heat treatment

b)

aging

c)

eddy current inspection method

59.

The metallic ring test is used when inspecting bonded structure for indications of ____.

a)

annealing

b)

delamination

c)

corrosion

60.

After a structure is welded, it may be heated above its critical temperature and allowed to cool in still air. This procedure is used to ____.

a)

relieves stress

b)

hard the part

c)

soft

61.

If a welded joint is to be rewelded, all of the old weld bead must be ____.

a)

painted

b)

removed

c)

rewelded

d)

welded

62.

Too rapid cooling of a weld can cause it to contract unevenly and stresses will remain in the metal. These stresses cause the metal to ____.

a)

shears

b)

temples

c)

cracks

63.

Heat should be concentrated in the area being welded, and oxides that form on the base metal give an indication of the amount of heat put into the weld. When too much heat is used, the oxide will form out to a distance of more than ____ inch from the weld.

a)

1/2

b)

3/4

c)

1

64.

A properly made fillet weld has a penetration of ____ to ____% of the thickness of the base metal.

a)

50 to 50

b)

25 to 75

c)

25 to 50

65.

Refer to the figure below. Identify the illustration for each of these types of welds: -

a. Cold weld with no penetration ____

b. Bad weld with variations in penetration ____

c. Weld that was made too rapidly ____

d. Weld made with an excess of acetylene ____

a)

a. B

b. D

c. A

d. C

b)

a. D

b. B

c. C

d. A

c)

a. B

b. D

c. C

d. A

d)

a. C

b. D

c. B

d. A

66.

The threads for most aircraft structural bolts have a class - ____ fit.

a)

4

b)

2

c)

1

d)

3

67.

Torque values listed for aircraft bolts normally consider the threads to be clean and ____.

a)

lubricated

b)

dry

c)

wet

68.

The accepted rule of thumb for installing bolts in an aircraft structure is to have the bolt head ____, ____, and ____.

a)

up, forward and outboard

b)

down, reward and inboard

c)

forward, ourboard and up

69.

A fiber-type self-locking nut should never be used on a bolt if the fastener is subject to ____.

a)

static

b)

rotation

c)

shear

d)

tension

70.

Identify the material of which the bolt is made when its head is marked with a/an: -

a. cross or asterisk ____

b. single dash ____

c. two dashes ____

a)

a. Steel Nickel

b. Aluminum alloy

c. Corrosion resistance steel

b)

a. Aluminum alloy

b. Corrosion resistance steel

c. Steel Nickel

c)

a. Steel Nickel

b. Corrosion resistance steel

c. Aluminum alloy

71.

A bolt whose head is identified with an asterisk enclosed in a triangle is a ____ bolt.

a)

NAS close tolerance

b)

SAE corrotion resistance

c)

standard steel

72.

A steel bolt with no marking on its head is made of ____ steel and ____ approved for use in aircraft structure.

a)

high-strength and is

b)

low-strength and is not

c)

stailess and can be

73.

The length of the unthreaded portion of a bolt shank is called the ____ of the bolt.

a)

grip leght

b)

flat leght

c)

tin leght

74.

Clevis bolts are designed to be used for ____ loads only.

a)

heavy

b)

shear

c)

low

75.

Extraflexible control cable is made up of ____ individual strands of wire.

a)

10

b)

15

c)

7

d)

9

76.

A swaged control cable terminal grips the cable with a strength equal to ____% of the strength of the cable.

a)

50

b)

100

c)

25

77.

To be sure that the terminal ends are screwed into a turnbuckle barrel enough to produce the maximum strength, there must be no more than ____ threads showing on either end of the barrel.

a)

5

b)

3

c)

7

d)

15

78.

When safetying a turnbuckle, the ends of the safety wire must be wrapped around the terminal end for at least ____ turns.

a)

4

b)

7

c)

3

d)

2

79.

Identify the material of which solid rivets are made which have the following head markings:

a. raised dot ____

b. recessed dot ____

c. raised double dash ____

d. raised cross ____

a)

a. 5056T-B

b. 2024T-DD

c. 2117T-AD

d. 2017T-D

b)

a. 2117T-AD

b. 2017T-D

c. 5056T-B

d. 2024T-DD

c)

a. 2017T-D

b. 2117T-AD

c. 2024T-DD

d. 5056T-B

80.

Give the diameter and length of these solid rivets:

a. MS20470AD4-4 Diameter ____ in. Length ____ in.

b. MS20426DD4-6 Diameter ____ in. Length ____ in.

c. MS20470D6-8 Diameter ____ in. Length ____ in.

d. MS20426AD6-10 Diameter ____in. Length ____ in.

a)

a. 1/8 - 1/4

b. 1/8 - 3/8

c. 3/16 - 1/2

d. 3/16 - 5/8

b)

a. 3/16 - 5/8

b. 1/8 - 3/8

c. 3/16 - 1/2

d. 1/8 - 1/4

c)

a. 1/8 - 1/4

b.3/16 - 5/8

c. 3/16 - 1/2

d. 1/8 - 3/8

81.

Friction-lock self-plugging rivets ____ approved for replacement of solid rivets on a size-for-size basis.

a)

are

b)

are not

82.

When it is necessary to provide a threaded hole in a piece of thin sheet metal, a ____ may be used.

a)

rivet

b)

rivnut

c)

bolt

83.

Hi-Shear pin rivets ____ be used to replace steel aircraft bolts on a size-for-size basis.

a)

does

b)

may not

c)

may

d)

can

84.

Axle end-play can be measured with a/an ____.

a)

dial indicator

b)

thickness gage

c)

micrometer caliper

85.

Refer to the figure below. This vernier micrometer caliper reads ____ inch.

a)

0,2890

b)

0,2800

c)

0,2792

86.

Refer to the figure below. This vernier caliper reads ____ inches.

a)

1,436

b)

1,580

c)

1,425

87.

A part may be checked for flatness by using a surface plate and a ____.

a)

micrometer caliper

b)

thickness gage

c)

dial indicator

88.

The vernier scale on a vernier micrometer caliper is used to give an indication of ____ inch of spindle movement.

a)

0,01

b)

0,001

c)

0,0001

d)

0,00001

89.

A tool used to find the center of a shaft or other circle is the ____ head of a combination set.

a)

center

b)

lateral

c)

circular

90.

The diameter of a small hole is measured with a ____.

a)

small-hole gage

b)

dial indicator

c)

thickness gage

d)

block gage

91.

Refer to the figure below. This vernier micrometer caliper reads ____ inch.

a)

0,308

b)

0,304

c)

0,3004

92.

The distance between the points of a pair of dividers is measured with a/an ____.

a)

micrometer or a thickness gauge

b)

Steel scale or a vernier caliper

c)

block gage or a machinist scale

93.

The accuracy of a micrometer caliper may be checked and calibrated by using ____.

a)

combination set

b)

thickness gage

c)

gage blocks

94.

An engine crankpin may be measured for out-of-round by using a/an ____.

a)

micrometer caliper

b)

thickness gage

c)

block gage

d)

telescopi gage

95.

The side clearance and end-gap clearance of a piston ring in a piston are measured using a/an ____.

a)

thickness gage

b)

micrometer caliper

c)

dial indicator

96.

Crankshaft runout of a reciprocating engine may be measured with a/an ____.

a)

micrometer caliper

b)

thickness gage

c)

dial indicator

97.

A dimensional inspection of the bushing in a rocker arm can be measured with a/an ____ and a/an ____.

a)

thickness gage and dial indicator

b)

telescopic gage and micrometer caliper

c)

dial indicator and block gage

98.

A reciprocating engine poppet valve can be measured for stretch by using a/an ____.

a)

value-stretch gage

b)

thickness gage

c)

dial indicator

d)

micrometer caliper

99.

Refer to Figure 42. Which of the bolthead code markings shown identifies an AN corrosion resistant steel bolt?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

100.

Refer to figure 43. Identify the clevis bolt illustrated.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

101.

Refer to Figure 44. Identify the weld caused by an excessive amount of cetylene.

a)

4

b)

1

c)

3

102.

Refer to Figure 44. Select the illustration which depicts a cold weld.

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

103.

Refer to Figure 45. What type weld is shown at A?

a)

Fillet

b)

Butt

c)

Lap

104.

Refer to Figure 45. What type weld is shown at B?

a)

Butt

b)

Double butt

c)

Fillet

105.

Refer to Figure 45. What type weld is shown at G?

a)

Lap

b)

Butt

c)

Joint

106.

Refer to Figure 46. The measurement reading on the illustrated micrometer is ____.

a)

0,2851

b)

0,2911

c)

0,2901

107.

Refer to Figure 47. What is the measurement reading on the vernier caliper scale?

a)

1,411

b)

1,436

c)

1,700

108.

Refer to Figure 48. What does the micrometer read?

a)

.2974

b)

.3004

c)

.3208

109.

Refer to Figure 49. The measurement reading on the micrometer is ____.

a)

.2758

b)

.2702

c)

.2792