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WorksheetsMISIT
Total questions: 185
Worksheet time: 9hrs 15mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Producing a bill of materials is a business process in which of the following functional areas?
a)
Finance and accounting
b)
Human resources
c)
Manufacturing and production
d)
Research and development
2.
Which of the following is an example of a cross-functional business process?
a)
Identifying customers
b)
Shipping a product
c)
Fulfilling a customer order
d)
Hiring employees
3.
Order fulfillment involves all of the following business processes except:
a)
checking the customer's credit
b)
assembling the product
c)
submitting the order
d)
making customers aware of the product
4.
The ________ function is responsible for making sure customers are aware of the company's products.
a)
finance and accounting
b)
human resources
c)
manufacturing and production
d)
sales and marketing
5.
According to the chapter case, Sanofi Pasteur is using Microsoft Yammer for all of the following reasons except:
a)
give employees more opportunities to innovate
b)
increase product innovations from lower down in the organization
c)
simplify business processes
d)
strengthen management controls over employees
6.
Identifying customers is a business process handled by the marketing function.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
7.
One example of a business process is shipping a product to a customer.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
8.
If sales of your products declined in a specific region of the country, which of the following types of system would best help you understand why?
a)
ESS
b)
TPS
c)
MIS
d)
DSS
9.
You have been hired by a non-profit organization to implement a system to handle donations. The system must be able to handle and record telephone, text, and Internet donations, provide up-to-the-minute reports, and create highly customizable mailing lists. In addition, event fundraisers need to be able to quickly access a donor's information and history. Which of the following systems will best meet these needs?
a)
TPS
b)
TPS with DSS capabilities
c)
TPS with MIS capabilities
d)
TPS with ESS capabilities
10.
To monitor the status of internal operations and the firm's relations with the external environment, managers need which of the following types of system?
a)
DSS
b)
KWS
c)
TPS
d)
MIS
11.
A(n) ________ is typically a major source of data for other systems.
a)
TPS
b)
MIS
c)
ESS
d)
DSS
12.
Which of the following would you use in order to determine which of your suppliers has the best and worst records for meeting your production schedules?
a)
MIS
b)
TPS
c)
UPS
d)
DSS
13.
A relocation control system that reports summaries on the total moving, house hunting, and home financing costs for employees in all company divisions falls into which of the following categories?
a)
KMS
b)
TPS
c)
ESS
d)
MIS
14.
Non-typical business problems with causes and effects that are rapidly changing are typically handled by which of the following types of information system?
a)
MIS
b)
TPS
c)
ESS
d)
DSS
15.
Which of the following types of information systems are especially suited to situations in which the procedure for arriving at a solution may not be fully defined in advance?
a)
MIS
b)
TPS
c)
DSS
d)
KMS
16.
Which type of information system would you use to forecast the return on investment if your firm planned to switch to a new supplier that offered products at a lower cost?
a)
ESS
b)
TPS
c)
MIS
d)
DSS
17.
Which level of the organization is an ESS specifically designed to serve?
a)
Operational
b)
End-user
c)
Middle management
d)
Senior management
18.
An ESS supports which of the following?
a)
Long-range planning activities of senior management
b)
Knowledge and data workers in an organization
c)
Decision making and administrative activities of middle managers
d)
Day-to-day processes of production
19.
Which of the following systems would you expect to deliver data from external events, and summarized information from internal MIS systems?
a)
TPS
b)
ESS
c)
MIS
d)
DSS
20.
Which of the following would you use to forecast trends in your supplier's industry that could affect your firm over the next five years?
a)
ESS
b)
TPS
c)
MIS
d)
DSS
21.
Which of the following is a routine question that might be answered by an MIS system?
a)
Creating a new product
b)
Estimating the effect of changing costs of supplies
c)
Calculating the best trucking routes for product delivery
d)
Compare planned to actual sales for each quarter
22.
Using the Internet to buy or sell goods is called:
a)
e-commerce
b)
e-business
c)
an intranet
d)
an extranet
23.
All of the following are examples of business intelligence systems except a system that:
a)
summarizes and reports on a company's basic operations
b)
tracks the flows of materials in a factory
c)
focuses on problems that are unique and rapidly changing
d)
compares total annual sales figures for specific products to planned targets
24.
Which of the following types of systems typically use a digital dashboard to display an array of charts and graphs of a business's key performance indicators?
a)
MIS
b)
TPS
c)
ESS
d)
CRM
25.
What is the most important function of an enterprise application?
a)
Increasing speed of communicating
b)
Enabling business functions and departments to share information
c)
Enabling a company to work collaboratively with customers and suppliers
d)
Enabling cost-effective e-business processes
26.
Which of the following systems is designed to span functional areas, focus on executing business processes across the firm, and include all levels of management?
a)
DSS
b)
MIS
c)
CRM
d)
Enterprise applications
27.
A(n) ________ system collects data from various key business processes and stores the data in a single, comprehensive data repository, usable by other parts of the business.
a)
transaction processing
b)
enterprise
c)
automatic reporting
d)
management information
28.
The four major types of enterprise applications are:
a)
SCM CRM DSS and KMS
b)
SCM, CRM, ESS, and KMSs
c)
ERP, SCM, DSS, and CRM
d)
ERP, SCM, CRM, and KMS
29.
________ systems are also known as enterprise systems.
a)
Resource planning
b)
Enterprise resource planning
c)
Enterprise support
d)
Management information
30.
Which of the following types of system enables management to make better decisions regarding their suppliers?
a)
SCM
b)
TPS
c)
KMS
d)
ERP
31.
Which type of system integrates supplier, manufacturer, distributor, and customer logistics processes?
a)
Collaborative distribution system
b)
Supply chain management system
c)
Reverse logistics system
d)
Enterprise planning system
32.
Which of the following types of system would you use to manage relationships with your customers?
a)
CRM
b)
MIS
c)
CLE
d)
CLU
33.
Which of the following would you use to consolidate the relevant knowledge and experience in the firm and make it available to improve business processes and management decision making?
a)
TPS
b)
An extranet
c)
KMS
d)
CRM
34.
Which of the following types of system helps coordinate the flow of information between the firm and its suppliers and customers?
a)
Intranet
b)
Extranet
c)
KMS
d)
TPS
35.
In ________, digital technology and the Internet are used to execute the major business processes in the enterprise.
a)
e-commerce
b)
e-business
c)
enterprise applications
d)
MIS
36.
Transaction-level information is essential for operational management to plan future production levels.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
37.
Cross-functional systems are being phased out in favor of systems that support business processes within a single functional group, such as human resources.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
38.
A DSS is most commonly used by the executive management level of an organization.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
39.
You would use an MIS to help determine if your business should introduce a new product line.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
40.
For nonroutine decision making, managers rely on decision support systems.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
41.
Most transaction processing systems use sophisticated mathematical models or statistical techniques.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
42.
Managers can use DSS to make decisions about problems that are unusual and not easily specified in advance.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
43.
A DSS uses internal information as well as information from external sources.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
44.
An organization's MIS and DSS supply an ESS with summarized information.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
45.
Operational managers use ESS primarily to solve specific problems.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
46.
A web interface used to present integrated personalized business content to users is called a portal.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
47.
Enterprise applications integrate information from multiple functions and business processes to enhance the performance of the organization as a whole.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
48.
An SCM is considered to be an intraorganizational system because it manages information that flows between different companies.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
49.
Supply chain management systems are one type of interorganizational system.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
50.
A TPS is an information system that keeps track of all of the daily routine transactions of a business.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
51.
Customer relationship management systems coordinate all of the business processes that deal with customers in sales, marketing, and service.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
52.
Telepresence technology is primarily designed to:
a)
allow managers to observe how employees behave
b)
allow employees to share ideas and plans in real time
c)
provide managers with a tool to visualize corporate performance
d)
store the firm's visual content like videos
53.
Which of the following is the greatest obstacle in enabling collaboration between employees at different, distant corporate locations?
a)
Privacy
b)
Permissions
c)
Time zones
d)
Language
54.
All of the following are capabilities of enterprise social networking tools except:
a)
the ability to set up member profiles
b)
the ability to share store and manage content
c)
the ability to establish groups and team workspaces
d)
supply chain management.
55.
Which of the following statements about collaboration is not true?
a)
In business, a collaboration can last as little as a few minutes
b)
Business collaboration relies on the formation of teams that are assigned a specific task or goal
c)
Successful collaboration can be achieved through technology regardless of the organization's culture or structure
d)
One business benefit of collaboration is improved innovation
56.
Which of the following tools would you use to evaluate and choose a collaboration tool for your organization?
a)
Virtual meeting system
b)
Cloud collaboration
c)
IBM Notes
d)
The time/space collaboration and social tool matrix
57.
Which of the following decisions requires knowledge based on collaboration and interaction?
a)
How long will it take to manufacture this product?
b)
Should we work with outside vendors on new products and services?
c)
In which geographical locations are our products garnering the most sales?
d)
Which product design is the most efficient for the user in terms of energy use?
58.
Which of the following is not a business benefit of collaboration?
a)
Improved quality
b)
Improved financial performance
c)
Improved customer service
d)
Improved compliance with government regulations
59.
________ allows you to communicate with avatars using text messaging.
a)
A virtual world
b)
Screen sharing
c)
Collaborative writing
d)
A large audience Webinar
60.
All of the following are reasons for the increased business focus on collaboration and teamwork, except for:
a)
the need for creating innovative products and services
b)
growth of interaction jobs
c)
greater global presence
d)
the need for more efficient work hierarchies
61.
Which of the following statements regarding IBM Notes is not true?
a)
It began as an e-mail and messaging client
b)
It is a widely used collaboration tool at larger firms
c)
It provides capabilities for wikis and microblogging
d)
It provides tools for full version control of all company documentation
62.
Which of the following is not one of the four main classifications for collaboration tools identified by the space/time matrix?
a)
Synchronous/colocated
b)
Same time/remote
c)
Different time/remote
d)
Remote/colocated
63.
________ is a collaboration tool that supports remote (different place), synchronous (same time) collaboration.
a)
Video conferencing
b)
E-mail
c)
A MUD
d)
A wall display
64.
Crowdsourcing is one application of social business.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
65.
A key word in social business is conversations.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
66.
An example of a remote, synchronous collaboration tool is a Skype conference call using VOIP and webcams.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
67.
Global firms can collaborate from different locations at the same time using synchronous collaboration tools.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
68.
The principal liaison between the information systems groups and the rest of the organization is a(n):
a)
programmer
b)
information systems manager
c)
systems analyst
d)
CTO
69.
A ________ is a senior manager who oversees the use of IT in the firm.
a)
CEO
b)
CFO
c)
CIO
d)
CTO
70.
An information systems manager:
a)
writes software instructions for computers
b)
acts as liaison between the information systems group and the rest of the organization
c)
translates business problems into information requirements
d)
manages data entry staff
71.
The ________ helps design programs and systems to find new sources of knowledge or to make better use of existing knowledge in organizational and management processes.
a)
CTO
b)
CSO
c)
CKO
d)
CPO
72.
Which of the following is a firm's CPO responsible for?
a)
Ensuring that the company complies with existing data privacy laws
b)
Making better use of existing knowledge in organizational and management processes
c)
Enforcing the firm's information security policy
d)
Overseeing the use of information technology in the firm
73.
All of the following job categories are expected to grow over the next eight years except:
a)
computer support specialists
b)
software developers
c)
systems analysts
d)
computer programmers
74.
Which of the following job categories is expected to experience the most growth over the next eight years?
a)
Computer support specialists
b)
Software engineers
c)
Security analysts
d)
Computer programmers
75.
Which of the following statements is not true?
a)
The number of information system employees is expected to grow by 13 percent through 2026
b)
Between 2019 and 2026, IS/MIS will add about 550,000 jobs
c)
The number of computer programmers is expected to decline by 7 percent through 2026
d)
In general, the technical occupations in IT are showing faster expansion than occupations involved with the management of IT
76.
The information security analyst job category is among the slower growing IS/MIS occupations.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
77.
The network and system administrator job category is among the fastest growing IS/MIS occupations.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
78.
IT governance refers to the overall decision-making that guides the IT strategy of a firm.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
79.
The interaction between information technology and organizations is influenced:
a)
solely by the decision making of middle and senior managers
b)
by the development of new information technologies
c)
by many factors, including structure, politics, culture, and environment
d)
by two main macroeconomic forces: capital and labor
80.
Which of the following statements about organizations is not true?
a)
An organization is a stable, formal social structure that takes resources from the environment and processes them to produce outputs
b)
An organization is a formal, legal entity with internal rules and procedures that must abide by laws
c)
An organization is a collection of people and other social elements
d)
An informal group can be considered to be an organization
81.
According to the ________ definition of organizations, an organization is seen as a means by which capital and labor are transformed by the organization into outputs to the environment.
a)
microeconomic
b)
macroeconomic
c)
sociotechnical
d)
behavioral
82.
Which of the following statements about the technical view of organizations is not true?
a)
It focuses on how inputs are combined to create outputs when technology changes are introduced into a company
b)
It sees capital and labor as being easily substituted for one another
c)
It emphasizes group relationships, values and structures
d)
It sees the organization as a social structure similar to a machine
83.
Which of the following is not a major feature of organizations that impacts the use of information systems?
a)
Business processes
b)
Environments
c)
Structure of the organization
d)
Agency costs
84.
Which of the following statements about business processes is not true?
a)
Business processes influence the relationship between an organization and information technology
b)
Business processes are a collection of standard operating procedures
c)
A business firm is a collection of business processes
d)
Business processes are usually ensconced in an organization's culture
85.
Which of the following technologies disrupted the traditional publishing industry?
a)
Instant messaging
b)
e-mail
c)
Digital photography
d)
World Wide Web
86.
Under Mintzberg's classification of organizational structure, knowledge-based organizations fall under the category of:
a)
entrepreneurial structures
b)
divisionalized bureaucracies
c)
professional bureaucracies
d)
adhocracies
87.
Mintzberg classifies a large bureaucracy existing in a slowly changing environment that produces standard products and is dominated by centralized management as a(n) ________ bureaucracy.
a)
machine
b)
professional
c)
divisionalized
d)
multidivisional
88.
Which of the following is an example of a divisionalized bureaucracy?
a)
Startup firm
b)
University
c)
Fortune 500 firm
d)
Midsize manufacturer
89.
Along with capital, ________ is the primary production input that the organization uses to create products and services.
a)
structure
b)
culture
c)
politics
d)
labor
90.
The divergent viewpoints about how resources, rewards, and punishments should be distributed, and the struggles resulting from these differences are known as organizational:
a)
culture
b)
politics
c)
structure
d)
environments
91.
Which of the following statements about disruptive technologies is not true?
a)
Disruptive technologies radically change the business landscape and environment
b)
Disruptive technologies may be substitute products that perform better than other products currently being produced
c)
Firms that invent disruptive technologies as first movers always become market leaders.
d)
Disruptive technologies may put entire industries out of busines
92.
All organizations have bedrock, unquestioned assumptions that define their goals and products.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
93.
A machine bureaucracy is a knowledge-based organization where goods and services depend on the expertise and knowledge of professionals.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
94.
Routines are also called standard operating procedures.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
95.
All of the following statements are true about information technology's impact on business firms except:
a)
it helps firms expand in size
b)
it helps firms lower the cost of market participation
c)
it helps reduce internal management costs
d)
it helps reduce transaction costs
96.
According to agency theory, the firm is viewed as a(n):
a)
unified, profit-maximizing entity
b)
task force organization that must respond to rapidly changing environments
c)
entrepreneurial endeavor
d)
nexus of contracts among self-interested individuals
97.
According to research on organizational resistance, the four components that must be changed in an organization in order to successfully implement a new information system are:
a)
environment, organization, structure, and tasks
b)
technology, people, culture, and structure
c)
organization, culture, management, and environment
d)
tasks, technology, people, and structure
98.
Which model is used to describe the interaction of external forces that affect an organization's strategy and ability to compete?
a)
Network economics model
b)
Competitive forces model
c)
Competitive advantage model
d)
Demand control model
99.
All of the following are competitive forces in Porter's model except:
a)
suppliers
b)
new market entrants
c)
disruptive technologies
d)
customers
100.
Which of the following marketplace forces would be of least concern to a manufacturer of deep-sea oil rigs?
a)
Product differentiation
b)
Traditional competitors
c)
Low number of suppliers
d)
New market entrants
101.
Which of the following substitute products would be of most concern for a cable TV distributor?
a)
Streaming music services
b)
Broadcast TV
c)
Satellite radio
d)
On-demand Internet television
102.
Walmart's continuous replenishment system is an example of a firm using information systems to:
a)
strengthen ties to its customers
b)
simplify the industry value chain
c)
achieve low-cost leadership.
d)
focus on market niche
103.
A firm can exercise greater control over its suppliers by having:
a)
more suppliers
b)
fewer suppliers
c)
global suppliers
d)
local suppliers
104.
Amazon's use of the Internet as a platform to sell books more efficiently than traditional bookstores illustrates which of the following strategies?
a)
Low-cost leadership
b)
Marketing effectiveness
c)
Focusing on market niche
d)
Strengthening supplier intimacy
105.
The four major competitive strategies are:
a)
low-cost leadership, substitute products and services, customers; and suppliers
b)
low-cost leadership, product differentiation, focus on market niche, and customer and supplier intimacy
c)
new market entrants, substitute products and services, customers, and suppliers
d)
low-cost leadership, new market entrants, product differentiation, and focus on market niche
106.
Walmart's continuous replenishment system allows it to do all of the following except:
a)
provide mass customization
b)
transmit orders to restock directly to its suppliers
c)
keep costs low
d)
better meet customer demands
107.
Firms use a ________ strategy to provide a specialized product or service for a narrow target market better than competitors.
a)
product differentiation
b)
market niche
c)
mass customization
d)
process efficiency
108.
The ability to offer individually tailored products or services using the same production resources as bulk production is known as:
a)
mass marketing
b)
micromarketing
c)
mass customization
d)
niche customization
109.
In environmental scanning, a firm may use information systems to:
a)
transform inputs into products and services
b)
analyze the performance of its intranet
c)
identify external events that may affect it
d)
keep track of the temperature within its data centers
110.
Which of the following is not a true statement about value webs?
a)
Value webs involve a collection of independent firms that use information technology to coordinate their value chains
b)
Value webs are more customer-driven than traditional value chains
c)
Value webs operate in a less linear fashion than traditional value chains
d)
Value webs are inflexible and cannot adapt quickly to changes in supply and demand
111.
Which of the following best illustrates the use of information systems to focus on market niche?
a)
A car manufacturer's website that lets you customize the features on the car you are purchasing
b)
A restaurant chain analyzing local sales figures to determine which menu items to serve
c)
A bookseller selling an e-book reader that reads only the bookseller's books
d)
A department store creating specialized products for preferred customers
112.
The Internet increases the bargaining power of customers by:
a)
creating new opportunities for building loyal customer bases
b)
making more products available
c)
making information available to everyone
d)
lowering transaction costs
113.
Hilton Hotels uses its OnQ system for which of the following purposes?
a)
To estimate each guest's profitability and give additional privileges to profitable customers
b)
To benchmark its progress against competitors
c)
To create synergies with its suppliers
d)
To take advantage of network economics
114.
Which of the following is a competitive force challenging the publishing industry?
a)
Positioning and rivalry among competitors
b)
Low cost of entry
c)
Substitute products or services
d)
Customers' bargaining power
115.
The value chain model:
a)
categorizes five related advantages for adding value to a firm's products or services
b)
sees the supply chain as the primary activity for adding value
c)
categorizes four basic strategies a firm can use to enhance its value chain
d)
highlights specific activities in the business where competitive strategies can best be applied
116.
Which of the following represent the primary activities of a firm?
a)
Inbound logistics, operations, outbound logistics, sales and marketing, and service
b)
Inbound logistics, operations, outbound logistics, technology, and service
c)
Procurement, inbound logistics, operations, technology, and outbound logistics
d)
Procurement, operations, technology, sales and marketing, and services
117.
Which of the following is a support activity in a firm's value chain?
a)
Inbound logistics
b)
Operations
c)
Sales and marketing
d)
Techonology
118.
Which of the following would a company employ to measure and compare its business processes to similar processes of other companies within their industry?
a)
Benchmarking
b)
Best practices
c)
Value chain analysis
d)
Strategic systems analysis
119.
The most successful solutions or methods for achieving a business objective are called:
a)
value activities
b)
best processes
c)
core competencies
d)
best practices
120.
Information systems can be used at the industry level to achieve strategic advantage by:
a)
building industrywide IT-supported consortia and symposia
b)
raising the bargaining power of suppliers
c)
encouraging the entry of new competitors
d)
enforcing standards that reduce the differences between competitors
121.
In network economics, the value of a commercial software vendor's software products:
a)
increases as more people use them
b)
decreases as more people use them
c)
increases due to higher marginal gain in output
d)
decreases according to the law of diminishing returns
122.
Which of the following is an example of synergy in business?
a)
Amazon's use of the Internet to sell books
b)
Bank of America acquiring Countrywide Financial Corporation to reach a large pool of new customers
c)
Blockbuster combining traditional video rental with online video rental
d)
Walmart's order entry and inventory management system to coordinate with suppliers
123.
Information systems enhance core competencies by:
a)
providing better reporting facilities
b)
creating educational opportunities for management
c)
allowing operational employees to interact with management
d)
encouraging the sharing of knowledge across business units
124.
The idea that the more any given resource is applied to production, the lower the marginal gain in output, until a point is reached where the additional inputs produce no additional value, is referred to as:
a)
the point of no return
b)
the law of diminishing returns
c)
supply and demand
d)
network inelasticity
125.
A virtual company:
a)
uses networks to link people, assets, and ideas
b)
uses Internet technology to maintain a virtual storefront
c)
uses Internet technology to maintain a networked community of users
d)
provides entirely Internet-driven services or virtual products
126.
Which of the following is an example of a keystone firm within a business ecosystem?
a)
Apple and the mobile platform ecosystem
b)
GUESS and the fashion ecosystem
c)
Citibank and the ATM ecosystem
d)
American Airlines and the computerized reservation ecosystem
127.
________ is a competitive strategy for creating brand loyalty by developing new and unique products and services that are not easily duplicated by competitors.
a)
Product differentiation
b)
Low-cost leadership
c)
Focusing on market niche
d)
Strengthening customer intimacy
128.
The expenses incurred by a customer or company in lost time and resources when changing from one supplier or system to a competing supplier or system are known as:
a)
retention costs
b)
preservation costs
c)
differentiation costs
d)
switching costs
129.
The ________ model highlights the primary or support activities that add a margin of value to a firm's products or services where information systems can best be applied to achieve a competitive advantage.
a)
competitive forces
b)
value chain
c)
bargaining power
d)
new entrant
130.
A(n) ________ is a collection of independent firms that use information technology to coordinate their value chains to collectively produce a product or service for a market.
a)
value chain
b)
support web
c)
value web
d)
consortium
131.
Why does Amazon need to worry about competitors in online shopping?
a)
E-commerce is affected by the law of diminishing returns
b)
Internet technologies are universal, and therefore usable by all companies
c)
Internet shopping produces cost transparency
d)
The Internet enables the production or sales of substitute products or services
132.
Smart products are an example of the Internet of Things.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
133.
A company's competitive advantages ultimately translate into higher stock market valuations than its competitors.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
134.
The competitive forces model cannot be used to analyze modern digital firms which face new competitive forces that are not true of traditional firms.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
135.
Customers are one of the competitive forces that affect an organization's ability to compete.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
136.
High product differentiation is a sign of a transparent marketplace.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
137.
The effect of the Internet has been to increase the bargaining power of customers.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
138.
An efficient customer response system directly links consumer behavior to distribution, production, and supply chains.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
139.
Information systems are used to enable new products and services via product differentiation.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
140.
Mass customization offers individually tailored products or services using the same resources as mass production.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
141.
Switching costs increase when customers are strongly linked to products and platforms.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
142.
The value chain model classifies all company activities as either primary or support activities.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
143.
In the value chain model, support activities are most directly related to the production and distribution of the firm's products and services, which create value for the customer.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
144.
When the output of some units in a firm can be used as inputs to other units, synergies develop, which can lower costs and generate profits.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
145.
According to the network economics perspective, the more people offering products on eBay's site, the greater the value of the site to all who use it.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
146.
The term business ecosystem describes the loosely coupled but interdependent networks of suppliers, distributors, outsourcing firms, transportation service firms, and technology manufacturers.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
147.
A firm can be said to have competitive advantage when it has access to resources that others do not.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
148.
The law of diminishing returns only applies to digital products.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
149.
The inventors of a disruptive technology typically benefit the most from the technology; it is rare that fast followers catch up quickly.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
150.
Smart products generally lower switching costs.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
151.
Mintzberg's classification identifies five forces in an industry's environment that affect the strategic position of a firm.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
152.
You are consulting for a natural food products distributor who is interested in determining the benefits it could achieve from implementing new information systems. What will you advise as the first step?
a)
Identify the business ecosystem the distributor is in
b)
Implement a strategic transition to the new system
c)
Perform a strategic systems analysis
d)
Benchmark existing systems
153.
Sociotechnical changes affecting a firm adopting new information systems requiring organizational change can be considered:
a)
organizational adjustments
b)
strategic transitions
c)
systems alterations
d)
business goal transitions
154.
Research has shown that a majority of firms are able to align their information technology with their business goals.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
155.
The use of Internet technologies allows companies to more easily sustain competitive advantage.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
156.
Specifications that establish the compatibility of products and the ability to communicate in a network are called:
a)
network standards
b)
telecommunications standards
c)
technology standards
d)
Internet standards
157.
Place the following eras of IT infrastructure evolution in order, from earliest to most recent: 1. Cloud Computing Era; 2. Client/Server; 3. Enterprise Era; 4. Personal Computer; and 5. Mainframe and Minicomputer.
a)
5-2-3-4-1
b)
5-4-2-3-1
c)
4-5-2-3-1
d)
5-4-2-1-3
158.
A client computer networked to a server computer, with processing split between the two types of machines, is called a(n):
a)
service-oriented architecture
b)
on-demand architecture
c)
multi-tiered client/server architecture
d)
two-tiered client/server architecture
159.
Which of the following became the standard PC in the Personal Computer Era?
a)
Wintel PC
b)
DOS PC
c)
MITS PC
d)
Altair
160.
________ states that the value or power of a network grows exponentially as a function of the number of network members.
a)
Metcalfe's Law
b)
Moore's Law
c)
Law of scalability
d)
Law of outsourcing
161.
Client/server computing is a primary example of decentralized processing.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
162.
A web server is responsible for locating and managing stored webpages.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
163.
An application server may reside on the same computer as a web server or on its own dedicated computer.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
164.
It is much harder to eliminate a cloud service than to remove functionality from a company's core internal systems.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
165.
Microsoft is no longer the market leader in client/server networking.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
166.
Which of the following is the network standard for connecting desktop computers into local area networks that enabled the widespread adoption of client/server computing and local area networks and further stimulated the adoption of personal computers?
a)
TCP/IP
b)
COBOL
c)
Ethernet
d)
ASCII
167.
Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS):
a)
is one type of cloud computing service where users pay only for the computing capacity they actually use
b)
is a cloud-based service which provides software applications to users on demand
c)
is a cloud-based service that provides a platform for software development
d)
provides users with a service-oriented architecture for their systems
168.
The marketplace for computer hardware:
a)
has become increasingly concentrated in top firms
b)
has expanded to include a wide variety of start-up and mobile-computing firms
c)
has moved significantly to Asian firms
d)
has been decimated by mobile and cloud computing
169.
The operating system is used to manage the software applications used in business activities.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
170.
Which of the following is not an example of a wearable computing device?
a)
Smartwatch
b)
Smart glasses
c)
Smartphones
d)
Activity trackers
171.
All of the following are current hardware platform trends except:
a)
green computing
b)
virtualization
c)
cloud computing
d)
Unix
172.
Which of the following is a recent addition to the mobile digital platform?
a)
Quantum computing devices
b)
Wearable computing devices
c)
Cloud computing devices
d)
Grid computing devices
173.
Which of the following enables a single physical resource (such as a server or a storage device) to appear to the user as multiple logical resources?
a)
Cloud computing
b)
Autonomic computing
c)
Virtualization
d)
Multicore processing
174.
A(n) ________ is an integrated circuit which contains two or more processors to enhance performance and reduce power consumption.
a)
multicore processor
b)
legacy processor
c)
scalable processor
d)
aggregate circuit
175.
Which of the following involves practices and technologies to minimize the environmental effects of manufacturing and managing computing devices?
a)
Capacity planning
b)
Cloud computing
c)
Green computing
d)
Utility computing
176.
Quantum computing is implemented primarily with enterprise or ISP servers.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
177.
ZipRealty, which combines Google Maps with real estate data, is an example of:
a)
cloud computing
b)
SOA
c)
a widget
d)
a mashup
178.
Which of the following statements about Linux is not true?
a)
It plays a major role in the back office running local area networks
b)
It is available in free versions downloadable from the Internet
c)
It has garnered 20 percent of the server operating system market
d)
Linux applications are embedded in cell phones smartphones netbooks and other handheld devices
179.
A software program with a graphical user interface for displaying web pages and for accessing the web and other Internet resources is called a web:
a)
service
b)
client
c)
browser
d)
app
180.
Which of the following is the foundation technology for web services?
a)
XML
b)
HTML
c)
SOAP
d)
UDDI
181.
Prewritten, commercially available sets of software programs that eliminate the need for a firm to write its own software programs for certain functions, are referred to as:
a)
software packages
b)
mashups
c)
outsourced software
d)
open-source software
182.
A formal contract between customers and their service providers that outlines the specific responsibilities of the service provider and to the customer is called a(n):
a)
SOA
b)
SLA
c)
TCO
d)
RFQ
183.
Web services can exchange information between two different systems only if the operating systems and programming languages upon which the systems are based are identical.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
184.
Hypertext markup language specifies how text, graphics, video, and sound are placed on a webpage.
a)
True
b)
FALSE
185.
Which of the following refers to the ability of a computer, product, or system to expand to serve a larger number of users without breaking down?
a)
Modality
b)
Scalability
c)
Expandability
d)
Disintermediation
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