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Ch 7 Reading Guide Review

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term refers to the study of heat involved in chemical reactions and physical processes?

a)

Thermochemistry

b)

Thermal physics

c)

Electrochemistry

d)

Stoichiometry

2.

Chemical hand warmers primarily provide which useful product of the reaction?

a)

Electrical current

b)

Light

c)

Heat

d)

Sound

3.

When a hand warmer releases heat to its surroundings, the reaction is best classified as:

a)

Endothermic

b)

Exothermic

c)

Isothermal

d)

Athermal

4.

Which statement best defines energy in the context of chemistry?

a)

Energy is matter that occupies space.

b)

Energy is the capacity to do work or transfer heat.

c)

Energy is any substance dissolved in water.

d)

Energy is the number of particles in a system.

5.

Work in thermodynamics is most accurately described as:

a)

Random motion of particles due to temperature.

b)

Force acting through a distance.

c)

Heat transferred at constant pressure.

d)

Potential energy stored in bonds.

6.

Heat is:

a)

Energy stored due to position.

b)

Energy associated with the temperature-dependent transfer between system and surroundings.

c)

Energy due to motion of an object as a whole.

d)

Energy released only during nuclear reactions.

7.

Kinetic energy is primarily associated with:

a)

Position in a field

b)

Chemical bonds

c)

Motion

d)

Temperature difference alone

8.

Thermal energy is best described as:

a)

Energy due to the random motion of particles related to temperature.

b)

Energy stored in chemical bonds.

c)

Work done by expanding gases.

d)

Energy that cannot be transferred.

9.

Potential energy in chemistry most often refers to:

a)

Energy due to motion of particles.

b)

Energy stored due to position or arrangement, such as in chemical bonds.

c)

Energy transferred as heat.

d)

Energy created from nothing.

10.

Chemical energy specifically refers to:

a)

Energy stored in chemical bonds and released or absorbed during reactions.

b)

Energy due to gravitational position.

c)

Energy associated with electrical circuits only.

d)

Energy that cannot change form.

11.

Which statement aligns with the Law of Conservation of Energy?

a)

Energy can be created in a closed system.

b)

Energy is destroyed during exothermic reactions.

c)

Energy can neither be created nor destroyed; it only changes form.

d)

Energy only exists as heat or work, not both.

12.

A hand warmer reaction that produces heat without light most likely involves which energy transformation?

a)

Chemical energy to thermal energy

b)

Thermal energy to chemical energy

c)

Kinetic energy to potential energy

d)

Electrical energy to chemical energy

13.

In thermodynamics, which term refers to the portion of the universe being studied, distinct from everything else?

a)

System

b)

Surroundings

c)

Environment

d)

Reservoir

14.

Which SI unit is used to measure energy?

a)

Calorie

b)

Joule

c)

Kilowatt-hour

d)

Electronvolt

15.

Which energy unit is commonly used in nutrition and is larger than a calorie?

a)

Joule

b)

Calorie (dietary)

c)

Kilowatt-hour

d)

BTU

16.

Which unit represents electrical energy consumption over time and is often used on utility bills?

a)

Joule

b)

Calorie

c)

Kilowatt-hour

d)

Newton-meter

17.

Approximately how many joules are in 1 kilowatt-hour?

a)

3.6×10^3 J

b)

3.6×10^6 J

c)

1.0×10^5 J

d)

9.8×10^3 J

18.

Which statement best reflects the First Law of Thermodynamics?

a)

Energy can be created from nothing.

b)

Energy of the universe is constant; it can be transferred or transformed.

c)

Heat flows spontaneously from cold to hot.

d)

Entropy of a perfect crystal at 0 K is zero.

19.

Which device is ruled impossible by the First Law of Thermodynamics?

a)

Heat pump

b)

Perpetual motion machine (of the first kind)

c)

Refrigerator

d)

Steam turbine

20.

Which term refers to the total energy contained within a system, including kinetic and potential energies at the microscopic level?

a)

State function

b)

Internal energy

c)

Work

d)

Heat

21.

Which property depends only on the current state of the system and not on the path taken to reach that state?

a)

Work

b)

Heat

c)

State function

d)

Power

22.

Which option best describes an energy diagram?

a)

A table listing conversion factors

b)

A graph showing the relative energies of reactants, products, and transition states

c)

A schematic of lab equipment

d)

A bar chart of caloric intake

23.

In the energy conversion table, which abbreviation corresponds to calorie?

a)

J

b)

kWh

c)

cal

d)

Cal

24.

In the energy conversion table, which abbreviation corresponds to the dietary Calorie?

a)

J

b)

kWh

c)

cal

d)

Cal

25.

Which statement best describes the basic principle of energy flow between a system and its surroundings?

a)

Energy can be created within the system and destroyed in the surroundings.

b)

Energy is conserved; any energy lost by the system is gained by the surroundings.

c)

Energy only flows from the surroundings to the system.

d)

Energy flow is independent of the system–surroundings boundary.

26.

In thermodynamics, which sign convention correctly represents heat q when the system absorbs heat from the surroundings?

a)

q is positive

b)

q is negative

c)

q is zero

d)

q alternates sign depending on temperature

27.

In thermodynamics, which sign convention correctly represents work w when the system does work on the surroundings (e.g., expansion work)?

a)

w is positive

b)

w is negative

c)

w is zero

d)

w has no defined sign

28.

Which relationship correctly expresses the connection between the change in energy of the system (ΔE_system) and the change in energy of the surroundings (ΔE_surroundings)?

a)

ΔE_system = ΔE_surroundings

b)

ΔE_system = −ΔE_surroundings

c)

ΔE_system > ΔE_surroundings

d)

ΔE_system < ΔE_surroundings

29.

A process releases heat to the surroundings and the system contracts due to external pressure. Which combination of signs for q and w is most appropriate?

a)

q > 0, w > 0

b)

q < 0, w > 0

c)

q > 0, w < 0

d)

q < 0, w < 0

30.

Which statement aligns with the concept of energy conservation in a closed system boundary?

a)

Total energy change of system plus surroundings equals zero.

b)

Total energy of the system increases without affecting the surroundings.

c)

Total energy of the surroundings decreases regardless of system processes.

d)

Energy conservation applies only to heat, not work.

31.

If the surroundings perform work on the system (compression), what is the sign of w for the system, and how does this affect ΔE_system?

a)

w is negative; ΔE_system decreases

b)

w is positive; ΔE_system increases

c)

w is zero; ΔE_system unchanged

d)

w alternates sign; ΔE_system unpredictable

32.

Which option correctly pairs the sign conventions with the corresponding physical interpretation?

a)

q > 0: heat released; w < 0: work done on system

b)

q < 0: heat absorbed; w > 0: work done by surroundings

c)

q > 0: heat absorbed; w < 0: work done by system

d)

q < 0: heat released; w < 0: work done on system

33.

Considering energy flow principles, which scenario would increase the internal energy of the system?

a)

System releases heat and does expansion work.

b)

System absorbs heat and surroundings do compression work.

c)

System releases heat while surroundings do compression work.

d)

System absorbs heat and does expansion work.

34.

Which statement best captures the relationship between system–surroundings energy changes during any physical or chemical process?

a)

The system and surroundings can both gain energy simultaneously without loss elsewhere.

b)

Energy lost by one is exactly gained by the other, maintaining conservation.

c)

Energy changes are random and cannot be related.

d)

Only heat transfer contributes to energy changes; work does not.

35.

Which statement best defines heat in the context of thermodynamics?

a)

The average kinetic energy of particles in a substance

b)

Energy transferred between systems due to a temperature difference

c)

The absolute measure of hotness on the Kelvin scale

d)

A measure of how much matter an object contains

36.

Which statement best defines temperature?

a)

Energy in transit between two bodies

b)

The total internal energy of a system

c)

A measure of the average kinetic energy of particles

d)

Work done on a system at constant pressure

37.

Thermal equilibrium between two objects implies which condition?

a)

They have the same mass

b)

No net heat flow occurs because temperatures are equal

c)

Heat flows from the colder to the hotter object

d)

Their specific heat capacities are identical

38.

What is the general relationship between heat absorbed and temperature change for a given substance?

a)

Heat absorbed is inversely proportional to temperature change

b)

Heat absorbed is directly proportional to temperature change

c)

Heat absorbed is independent of temperature change

d)

Heat absorbed equals the square of temperature change

39.

Heat capacity (C) is best described as which type of property?

a)

Intensive, because it does not depend on amount of substance

b)

Extensive, because it depends on the amount of substance

c)

Neither intensive nor extensive

d)

A spectral property unrelated to thermodynamics

40.

Specific heat capacity (c) is best described as which type of property?

a)

Intensive, because it is defined per unit mass (or per mole)

b)

Extensive, because it scales with the amount of substance

c)

A property that changes with the container size

d)

Not a thermodynamic property

41.

Which equation correctly relates heat q to mass m, specific heat capacity c, and temperature change ΔT?

a)

q = m c ΔT

b)

q = c ΔT / m

c)

q = m / (c ΔT)

d)

q = c / (m ΔT)

42.

In the equation q = m c ΔT, which units are most appropriate for c in SI when m is in kilograms and ΔT in kelvins?

a)

J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹

b)

J mol⁻¹

c)

K J⁻¹ kg

d)

J K

43.

If 2.0 kg of a substance with c = 500 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹ experiences a temperature increase of 10 K, what is the heat absorbed?

a)

500 J

b)

1000 J

c)

10,000 J

d)

5,000 J

44.

Which statement correctly distinguishes heat capacity C from specific heat capacity c?

a)

C is per unit mass; c is for the whole object

b)

C depends on the total amount of substance; c is normalized per unit mass

c)

Both C and c are intensive properties

d)

Neither C nor c depends on the substance

45.

Which term best describes the energy transferred due to a temperature difference between a system and its surroundings?

a)

Work

b)

Heat

c)

Enthalpy of formation

d)

Entropy

46.

Which equation is most appropriate for quantifying heat exchange in a substance undergoing a temperature change without phase change?

a)

q = m·c·ΔT

b)

q = P·ΔV

c)

q = ΔH°f

d)

q=k[A]nq = k·[A]^n

47.

In the context of quantifying heat exchange, which property of a material represents the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of the substance by 1°C?

a)

Molar enthalpy

b)

Specific heat capacity

c)

Latent heat of fusion

d)

Thermal conductivity

48.

If 100 g of water (c = 4.18 J g⁻¹ °C⁻¹) is cooled from 25.0°C to 20.0°C, what is the heat exchanged (q)? Assume no phase change.

a)

−2.09 kJ

b)

+2.09 kJ

c)

−0.418 kJ

d)

+0.418 kJ

49.

Which statement best describes the sign convention for q in thermochemistry?

a)

q is positive when the system releases heat to the surroundings

b)

q is negative when the system absorbs heat from the surroundings

c)

q is positive when the system absorbs heat from the surroundings

d)

q is always positive

50.

A metal sample releases 500 J of heat to water in a calorimeter. Which option correctly characterizes the process for the metal?

a)

Endothermic; q > 0 for the metal

b)

Exothermic; q < 0 for the metal

c)

Endothermic; q < 0 for the metal

d)

Isothermal; q = 0 for the metal

51.

Which laboratory technique directly applies quantification of heat exchange to determine specific heat capacities?

a)

Spectrophotometry

b)

Calorimetry

c)

Titration

d)

Chromatography

52.

Complete Practice 7.3: Which calculation would you perform to find the temperature change (ΔT) of a solution after absorbing 1.50 kJ when m = 250 g and c = 4.18 J g⁻¹ °C⁻¹?

a)

ΔT = q/(m·c)

b)

ΔT = m·c/q

c)

ΔT = q·m·c

d)

ΔT = c/q

53.

Complete Conceptual Connection 7.4: Which pair correctly matches the quantity and its definition in thermochemistry?

a)

Enthalpy: energy associated solely with work

b)

Heat capacity: energy required to raise the temperature of a system by 1°C

c)

Entropy: heat absorbed at constant pressure

d)

Latent heat: heat associated with temperature change only

54.

Which statement best defines pressure–volume work in thermodynamics?

a)

Work associated with changes in a system’s temperature

b)

Work done when a system expands or contracts against an external pressure

c)

Work produced only by electrical processes in a system

d)

Work that occurs exclusively at constant volume

55.

What is the standard equation for pressure–volume work for a system expanding or contracting against a constant external pressure?

a)

w = PΔV

b)

w = −PΔV

c)

w = ΔE − q

d)

w = q + PΔV

56.

Why is a negative sign incorporated in the pressure–volume work expression for expansion?

a)

Because expansion requires negative pressure

b)

Because the system does work on the surroundings, decreasing the system’s energy

c)

Because volume decreases during expansion

d)

Because heat is released in all expansions

57.

Which conversion factor correctly relates L·atm to joules for expressing work?

a)

1 L·atm = 1 J

b)

1 L·atm ≈ 101.3 J

c)

1 L·atm ≈ 4.184 J

d)

1 L·atm ≈ 8.314 J

58.

A gas expands from 2.0 L to 6.0 L against a constant external pressure of 1.0 atm. What is the work w?

a)

+4.0 L·atm

b)

−4.0 L·atm

c)

+404 J

d)

−404 J

59.

In measuring ΔE for chemical reactions, how can a system exchange energy with the surroundings?

a)

Only via pressure–volume work

b)

Only via heat

c)

Via heat and pressure–volume work

d)

Neither heat nor work transfers energy

60.

Which expression represents the first-law relationship for the internal energy change ΔE in terms of heat and work?

a)

ΔE = q − w

b)

ΔE = q + w

c)

ΔE = w − q

d)

ΔE = PΔV

61.

Which statement best defines ΔE in a chemical system?

a)

The change in enthalpy at constant pressure

b)

The change in internal energy of the system

c)

The heat released at constant volume

d)

The work done on the surroundings

62.

In calorimetry, what is primarily measured to determine heat transfer during a reaction?

a)

Change in mass of reactants

b)

Temperature change of the calorimeter contents

c)

Volume change of the reaction vessel

d)

Electrical potential across the solution

63.

In a bomb calorimeter, which condition is maintained during the measurement of heat for a reaction?

a)

Constant pressure

b)

Constant volume

c)

Constant temperature

d)

Constant enthalpy

64.

Which expression best represents the heat absorbed by a bomb calorimeter's surroundings when the temperature changes by ΔT and the calorimeter has heat capacity C_cal?

a)

q_cal = m c_s ΔT

b)

q_cal = C_cal ΔT

c)

q_cal = n C_p ΔT

d)

q_cal = −C_cal ΔT

65.

For a reaction carried out in a bomb calorimeter, which thermodynamic quantity of the system is directly obtained from the measurement?

a)

Enthalpy change (ΔH) at constant pressure

b)

Internal energy change (ΔE) at constant volume

c)

Gibbs free energy change (ΔG) at constant temperature

d)

Entropy change (ΔS) at constant pressure

66.

If q_rxn is the heat released by the chemical reaction and q_cal is the heat absorbed by the calorimeter, which relationship holds for an isolated bomb calorimeter?

a)

q_rxn + q_cal = 0

b)

q_rxn = q_cal

c)

q_rxn − q_cal = 0

d)

q_rxn = −ΔH

67.

Under constant volume conditions in a bomb calorimeter, the measured heat of reaction corresponds to which quantity?

a)

q_v = ΔE

b)

q_v = ΔH

c)

q_v = ΔG

d)

q_v = TΔS

68.

Which statement correctly relates ΔH and ΔE for reactions where the number of moles of gas changes?

a)

ΔH always equals ΔE regardless of gas moles.

b)

ΔH = ΔE + Δ(n_gas)RT.

c)

ΔH = ΔE − Δ(n_gas)RT.

d)

ΔH = 0 when ΔE ≠ 0.

69.

Which is the most appropriate definition of enthalpy (H) for a system?

a)

H = E − PV

b)

H = E + PV

c)

H = q at constant volume

d)

H = q at constant temperature

70.

At constant pressure, which relationship links the heat of reaction to enthalpy change?

a)

q_p = ΔE

b)

q_p = ΔH

c)

q_p = ΔG

d)

q_p = −ΔS

71.

Which choice correctly identifies a similarity between ΔE and ΔH for a chemical reaction?

a)

Both equal the heat at constant volume.

b)

Both represent state function changes of the system.

c)

Both depend on the path taken by the process.

d)

Both ignore work contributions.

72.

Which statement best distinguishes ΔE from ΔH for processes involving pressure–volume work?

a)

ΔE includes PV work and ΔH does not.

b)

ΔH accounts for PV work through the PV term; ΔE is the fundamental internal energy change.

c)

ΔE equals q_p, while ΔH equals q_v.

d)

Both ΔE and ΔH exclude PV work by definition.

73.

Which statement best describes the sign convention for ΔH in an exothermic process?

a)

ΔH is positive because heat is absorbed by the system.

b)

ΔH is negative because heat is released to the surroundings.

c)

ΔH is zero because heat flow cancels out.

d)

ΔH sign cannot be determined without ΔE.

74.

In thermochemistry, what does a positive ΔE for the system indicate?

a)

The system loses internal energy to the surroundings.

b)

The surroundings do work on the system or transfer heat to it.

c)

The system releases heat to the surroundings.

d)

No energy exchange occurs.

75.

Which definition correctly matches an endothermic reaction?

a)

A reaction that releases heat, resulting in ΔH < 0.

b)

A reaction that absorbs heat from the surroundings, resulting in ΔH > 0.

c)

A reaction with no enthalpy change.

d)

A reaction that only changes ΔE but not ΔH.

76.

Which definition correctly matches an exothermic reaction?

a)

A reaction that absorbs heat from the surroundings, ΔH > 0.

b)

A reaction that releases heat to the surroundings, ΔH < 0.

c)

A reaction where ΔE must be zero.

d)

A reaction driven solely by bond formation without heat exchange.

77.

Which statement captures a primary understanding of enthalpy (ΔH) in chemical systems?

a)

ΔH tracks heat at constant volume.

b)

ΔH is the heat exchanged at constant pressure for processes where only PV work is relevant.

c)

ΔH equals the Gibbs free energy for all reactions.

d)

ΔH is independent of the surroundings.

78.

During a change in enthalpy for a chemical system, where does the energy flow occur?

a)

Only within the system; the surroundings are unaffected.

b)

Between the system and surroundings as heat at constant pressure.

c)

Only as electrical work.

d)

Only as mechanical work unrelated to PV.

79.

What happens energetically when chemical bonds are broken?

a)

Energy is released; bond breaking is exothermic.

b)

Energy is required; bond breaking is endothermic.

c)

No energy change occurs.

d)

Energy requirement depends solely on ΔE sign.

80.

What happens energetically when chemical bonds are formed?

a)

Energy is absorbed; bond formation is endothermic.

b)

Energy is released; bond formation is exothermic.

c)

Energy change is always zero.

d)

Energy change depends only on ΔH sign for bond breaking.

81.

Which choice best links ΔE and ΔH for typical reactions involving only PV work at constant pressure?

a)

ΔH approximates the heat exchanged, while ΔE accounts for total internal energy change including heat and work.

b)

ΔE equals ΔH exactly for all reactions.

c)

ΔH measures only work, while ΔE measures only heat.

d)

Neither ΔE nor ΔH relates to energy flow.

82.

For an endothermic process at constant pressure, which statement is correct about the surroundings?

a)

The surroundings warm as heat is released.

b)

The surroundings cool as heat is absorbed by the system.

c)

The surroundings are unaffected thermally.

d)

The surroundings perform negative work on the system.

83.

Which statement best defines ΔH_rxn for a chemical process conducted at constant pressure?

a)

The total internal energy of the products minus reactants at any conditions

b)

The heat exchanged with the surroundings at constant volume

c)

The enthalpy change accompanying the reaction per the balanced chemical equation at constant pressure

d)

The Gibbs free energy change independent of stoichiometry

84.

How is ΔH_rxn related to the stoichiometry of a reaction in a thermochemical equation?

a)

It is independent of the number of moles in the equation

b)

It scales proportionally with the amounts of reactants/products as written in the balanced equation

c)

It only depends on the limiting reagent and not the coefficients

d)

It doubles when the reaction is exothermic

85.

Which statement lists a basic understanding of calorimetry for solutions at constant pressure?

a)

No heat is exchanged between the reaction and the solution

b)

The solution acts as the surroundings absorbing or releasing heat from the reaction

c)

The calorimeter walls supply heat to drive the reaction

d)

Temperature change is unrelated to heat flow

86.

In coffee‑cup calorimetry, which equation is typically used to relate heat to measurable quantities of the solution?

a)

q_solution = m_solution c_solution ΔT

b)

q_rxn = ΔH_rxn · n_products

c)

q_cal = PΔV

d)

q = TΔS

87.

How is the heat of reaction related to the heat of the solution in a perfectly insulated coffee‑cup calorimeter?

a)

q_rxn = q_solution

b)

q_rxn = − q_solution

c)

q_rxn = 0 regardless of temperature change

d)

q_rxn = q_cal + q_solution (where q_cal is zero)

88.

Which condition must be met for coffee‑cup calorimetry assumptions to hold?

a)

The process occurs at constant volume with no pressure change

b)

The process occurs at constant pressure with negligible heat exchange with the surroundings (insulated calorimeter)

c)

The reaction must be endothermic

d)

The solution’s heat capacity must be zero

89.

For an aqueous neutralization studied in a coffee‑cup calorimeter, which measured quantity most directly determines q_solution using q = m c ΔT?

a)

Initial concentration of acid

b)

Temperature change of the solution

c)

Pressure of the laboratory

d)

pH at equivalence point

90.

A student doubles all stoichiometric coefficients in a balanced thermochemical equation. What happens to the reported ΔH_rxn value associated with that equation?

a)

It remains the same because ΔH_rxn is intensive

b)

It doubles because ΔH_rxn is reported per equation as written

c)

It halves because the reaction becomes more exothermic

d)

It changes sign

91.

Which statement correctly distinguishes coffee‑cup calorimetry from bomb calorimetry for chemical reactions?

a)

Coffee‑cup calorimetry measures q at constant volume; bomb calorimetry measures q at constant pressure

b)

Coffee‑cup calorimetry measures enthalpy changes at constant pressure; bomb calorimetry measures internal energy changes at constant volume

c)

Both measure Gibbs free energy changes at constant temperature

d)

Bomb calorimetry is only for solution reactions

92.

Which statement best describes ΔH_rxn for a chemical reaction?

a)

It represents the entropy change of the system.

b)

It is the enthalpy change associated with the reaction as written.

c)

It measures the Gibbs free energy at equilibrium.

d)

It is the heat capacity of the reactants.

93.

If the coefficients in a balanced chemical equation are all multiplied by 2, how does ΔH_rxn change?

a)

It remains the same.

b)

It doubles.

c)

It halves.

d)

It becomes zero.

94.

Reversing a chemical equation will have what effect on ΔH_rxn?

a)

No effect.

b)

It doubles.

c)

It changes sign.

d)

It becomes the reciprocal value.

95.

For an endothermic process, which sign of ΔH_rxn is correct?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Zero

d)

Undefined

96.

Which quantitative relationship correctly links a chemical equation and ΔH_rxn when scaling the reaction?

a)

ΔH_rxn is independent of stoichiometric coefficients.

b)

ΔH_rxn scales proportionally with the reaction as written.

c)

ΔH_rxn equals the sum of reactant entropies.

d)

ΔH_rxn is always constant at 1 kJ/mol.

97.

When combining two chemical equations to obtain an overall reaction, how should the ΔH_rxn values be treated?

a)

Subtract the smaller ΔH_rxn from the larger.

b)

Average the ΔH_rxn values.

c)

Add the ΔH_rxn values to get the overall ΔH_rxn.

d)

Multiply the ΔH_rxn values.

98.

Which of the following is most consistent with an exothermic reaction?

a)

ΔH_rxn > 0 and heat is absorbed.

b)

ΔH_rxn < 0 and heat is released.

c)

ΔH_rxn = 0 and no heat exchange.

d)

ΔH_rxn > 0 and heat is released.

99.

Conceptual Connection: Which principle allows the use of known reaction enthalpies to determine ΔH_rxn for a target reaction by algebraically manipulating equations?

a)

Le Châtelier’s principle

b)

Hess’s law

c)

Boyle’s law

d)

Raoult’s law

100.

Practice: A reaction is written per 1 mol of product with ΔH_rxn = −50 kJ. If the equation is rewritten per 0.5 mol of product, what is the new ΔH_rxn?

a)

−100 kJ

b)

−50 kJ

c)

−25 kJ

d)

+25 kJ

101.

Which statement correctly links the sign of ΔH_rxn and the direction of heat flow at constant pressure?

a)

Positive ΔH_rxn indicates heat release to surroundings.

b)

Negative ΔH_rxn indicates heat absorption from surroundings.

c)

Positive ΔH_rxn indicates heat absorption by the system.

d)

ΔH_rxn sign does not relate to heat flow.

102.

Which statement best defines Hess’s Law in thermochemistry?

a)

The total enthalpy change of a reaction depends on the pathway taken, including intermediate steps.

b)

The total enthalpy change of a reaction is the same, regardless of the path taken, and equals the sum of enthalpy changes of known steps.

c)

The enthalpy change of a reaction can only be measured calorimetrically at constant pressure.

d)

Bond enthalpies determine reaction spontaneity according to Gibbs free energy.

103.

Hess’s Law relies on which property of enthalpy?

a)

Non-additivity

b)

Path dependence

c)

State function

d)

Temperature independence

104.

In applying Hess’s Law, what operation is performed on enthalpy changes when reversing a chemical equation?

a)

Multiply ΔH by zero

b)

Keep ΔH unchanged

c)

Change the sign of ΔH

d)

Square ΔH

105.

Which scenario illustrates a valid use of Hess’s Law?

a)

Combining known combustion reactions to determine the enthalpy of formation of a compound

b)

Using reaction rate data to calculate ΔH directly

c)

Deriving ΔH from equilibrium constants without temperature data

d)

Inferring ΔH from bond lengths alone

106.

When two intermediate equations are added to yield a target reaction, how should their enthalpy changes be treated?

a)

Average the ΔH values

b)

Add the ΔH values algebraically

c)

Subtract the smaller ΔH from the larger

d)

Multiply the ΔH values

107.

A reaction is multiplied by a factor of 2 to match stoichiometry in a Hess’s Law derivation. What happens to its ΔH?

a)

It is divided by 2

b)

It is unchanged

c)

It is multiplied by 2

d)

It becomes zero

108.

Which data set is most appropriate for constructing a Hess’s Law cycle to determine an unknown enthalpy change?

a)

Standard enthalpies of formation for reactants and products

b)

Activation energies and rate constants

c)

Equilibrium constants at various temperatures

d)

Standard molar entropies only

109.

Choose the statement that correctly links Hess’s Law to standard enthalpy of formation (ΔH°f).

a)

ΔH°f values cannot be combined because they are path-dependent.

b)

ΔH°f values are additive and can be used to compute reaction enthalpies via products minus reactants.

c)

ΔH°f only applies to gas-phase reactions, so Hess’s Law cannot use it for solids.

d)

ΔH°f requires knowledge of Gibbs free energy to be usable in Hess’s Law.

110.

Which best explains why Hess’s Law works for enthalpy but not generally for rate laws?

a)

Rates are state functions while enthalpy is not.

b)

Enthalpy is a state function; rates depend on mechanism and pathway.

c)

Both enthalpy and rate laws are path independent.

d)

Rate laws only apply at equilibrium, making them additive.

111.

When constructing a Hess’s Law solution, which check ensures your intermediate steps reproduce the target reaction?

a)

Confirm that total ΔG equals zero.

b)

Verify that reactant and product stoichiometric coefficients cancel to yield the exact target equation.

c)

Ensure all species have the same phase labels.

d)

Make sure net charge is nonzero.

112.

Which statement best describes the purpose of Section 7.9 in thermochemistry?

a)

It introduces the concept of entropy and spontaneous processes.

b)

It outlines methods to determine reaction enthalpies using standard enthalpies of formation.

c)

It explains calorimetry at constant pressure only.

d)

It focuses on equilibrium constants for gas-phase reactions.

113.

Standard enthalpy of formation data are primarily used to calculate which quantity for a chemical reaction?

a)

Gibbs free energy change

b)

Entropy change

c)

Enthalpy change of reaction

d)

Activation energy

114.

Which approach is NOT one of the typical ways to calculate the enthalpy of a reaction from standard enthalpies of formation?

a)

Summing products’ standard enthalpies of formation minus reactants’ standard enthalpies of formation, each multiplied by stoichiometric coefficients

b)

Using Hess’s Law to combine formation reactions to yield the target reaction

c)

Applying bond enthalpies directly without formation data

d)

Referencing standard states to assign zero enthalpy for elements in their standard forms and then constructing the reaction enthalpy

115.

In using standard enthalpies of formation, what must be considered for each species in the balanced chemical equation?

a)

Its oxidation number only

b)

Its stoichiometric coefficient and physical state in the standard state

c)

Its molecular geometry

d)

Its partial pressure regardless of standard conditions

116.

Which description correctly identifies a key component of defining the “standards” for enthalpy measurements?

a)

Temperature of 298 K, pressure of 1 bar, and pure substances in their reference (standard) state

b)

Temperature of 273 K, pressure of 1 atm, and solutions at 1 M concentration only

c)

Any temperature and pressure as long as the reaction is at equilibrium

d)

Zero Kelvin and vacuum conditions

117.

When calculating reaction enthalpy from standard enthalpies of formation, which sign convention is correct?

a)

Exothermic reactions have positive ΔH.

b)

Endothermic reactions have negative ΔH.

c)

ΔHrxn = ΣνΔHf°(products) − ΣνΔHf°(reactants).

d)

ΔHrxn = ΣνΔHf°(reactants) − ΣνΔHf°(products).

118.

Which statement aligns with Hess’s Law in the context of formation enthalpies?

a)

The enthalpy change depends on the path taken.

b)

The overall reaction enthalpy equals the sum of enthalpy changes of individual steps.

c)

Formation enthalpy is undefined for elements.

d)

Reaction enthalpy must be measured calorimetrically.

119.

Defining standard states is important because:

a)

It sets a common reference for enthalpy values so reactions can be compared.

b)

It ensures all reactions are spontaneous.

c)

It eliminates the need for balancing equations.

d)

It converts enthalpy into entropy.

120.

Which item correctly matches a standard state reference used in enthalpy calculations?

a)

Gaseous species at 1 bar partial pressure, pure liquids and solids, and solutes at specified standard concentrations

b)

Gases at any pressure, liquids at any purity, and solids as mixtures

c)

Only aqueous solutes at 1 M concentration regardless of phase

d)

Ions in vacuum at zero pressure

121.

When using standard enthalpies of formation to compute ΔHrxn, which common procedural step is essential?

a)

Ignore physical states to simplify calculations.

b)

Use the balanced chemical equation to weight each ΔHf° by its stoichiometric coefficient.

c)

Convert all energies to entropy units before summation.

d)

Assume all reactants have zero enthalpy.

122.

Which statement best describes the relationship between a compound’s formation from its elements and its decomposition into constituent elements, based on enthalpy changes?

a)

They have equal magnitude and opposite sign.

b)

They have equal magnitude and same sign.

c)

Formation has zero enthalpy while decomposition is nonzero.

d)

Decomposition always releases more energy than formation.

123.

What is the standard enthalpy of reaction (ΔH°rxn) generally defined as?

a)

The enthalpy change when reactants and products are all in their standard states.

b)

The energy required to break all bonds in the reactants.

c)

The entropy change of a reaction at any temperature.

d)

The Gibbs free energy at equilibrium.

124.

Which expression correctly relates ΔH°rxn to standard enthalpies of formation (ΔH°f)?

a)

ΔH°rxn = ΣΔH°f(products) − ΣΔH°f(reactants)

b)

ΔH°rxn = ΣΔH°f(reactants) − ΣΔH°f(products)

c)

ΔH°rxn = ΣΔH°f(products) + ΣΔH°f(reactants)

d)

ΔH°rxn = 0 for all reactions

125.

Which statement is true about standard enthalpy of formation (ΔH°f) for elements in their reference forms?

a)

It is defined as zero.

b)

It is always positive.

c)

It is always negative.

d)

It equals the entropy of the element.

126.

If a compound’s formation from elements is exothermic, what can be said about the decomposition of the same compound into its elements?

a)

It is endothermic with equal magnitude of enthalpy change.

b)

It is also exothermic.

c)

It has zero enthalpy change.

d)

It cannot occur spontaneously.

127.

Which procedure correctly computes ΔH°rxn using tabulated ΔH°f values?

a)

Multiply each ΔH°f by its stoichiometric coefficient, sum for products, subtract sum for reactants.

b)

Add all ΔH°f values without coefficients.

c)

Subtract product ΔH°f values from reactant ΔH°f values without coefficients.

d)

Use entropy values instead of enthalpy.

128.

Given ΔH°f(H2O(l)) = −285.8 kJ/mol and ΔH°f(H2(g)) = 0, ΔH°f(O2(g)) = 0, what is ΔH°rxn for the formation of liquid water: H2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → H2O(l)?

a)

−285.8 kJ/mol

b)

+285.8 kJ/mol

c)

0 kJ/mol

d)

−142.9 kJ/mol

129.

Which best explains why ΔH°rxn for a decomposition is the negative of the formation ΔH°rxn?

a)

Enthalpy is a state function, so reversing a process reverses the sign of ΔH.

b)

Decomposition increases disorder.

c)

Formation uses Hess’s law.

d)

Bond energies are always positive.

130.

When calculating ΔH°rxn from ΔH°f values, why must stoichiometric coefficients be applied?

a)

Because ΔH°f values are per mole of substance formed.

b)

To convert enthalpy to entropy.

c)

To account for temperature dependence.

d)

Because coefficients cancel during subtraction.

131.

According to typical societal energy consumption patterns, where does the majority of energy currently come from?

a)

Fossil fuels

b)

Nuclear fusion

c)

Hydroelectric power

d)

Geothermal energy

132.

Which environmental problem is most directly associated with the combustion of fossil fuels?

a)

Increased greenhouse gas emissions

b)

Ozone depletion by chlorofluorocarbons

c)

Excessive freshwater consumption

d)

Soil salinization

133.

Which of the following is the best definition of a greenhouse gas?

a)

A gas that forms acidic rain when dissolved in water

b)

A gas that traps infrared radiation in Earth’s atmosphere, contributing to warming

c)

A gas that is only produced by plants in greenhouses

d)

A gas that reacts with ozone to form oxygen

134.

Which primary air pollutant is most commonly produced by vehicle engines and can lead to photochemical smog?

a)

Nitrogen oxides (NOx)

b)

Helium (He)

c)

Sodium chloride (NaCl)

d)

Calcium carbonate (CaCO3)

135.

Which is a primary source of sulfur dioxide (SO2) emissions contributing to acid rain?

a)

Burning coal and oil containing sulfur

b)

Photosynthesis in plants

c)

Evaporation of seawater

d)

Electrolysis of water

136.

Which pair correctly matches a primary type of air pollution with a typical source?

a)

Particulate matter — industrial combustion and diesel exhaust

b)

Ozone — emitted directly from power plants

c)

Lead — natural volcanic emissions

d)

Carbon dioxide — produced only by the oceans

137.

Which strategy most directly reduces carbon dioxide emissions from electricity generation?

a)

Replacing coal-fired plants with wind and solar power

b)

Adding scrubbers to remove particulate matter from smokestacks

c)

Increasing catalytic converter use in cars

d)

Injecting chlorine into cooling water

138.

Which challenge is commonly associated with scaling renewable energy to replace fossil fuels?

a)

Intermittency and storage requirements

b)

Excessive production of sulfuric acid

c)

Inability to produce electricity without combustion

d)

Legal prohibition in most countries

139.

Which statement best describes the role of greenhouse gases in climate change?

a)

They reflect ultraviolet radiation, cooling Earth.

b)

They trap outgoing infrared radiation, raising Earth’s average temperature.

c)

They absorb visible light, making days shorter.

d)

They neutralize atmospheric acids, preventing acid rain.

140.

Which option represents a balanced approach to reducing air pollution from transportation?

a)

Transition to electric vehicles powered by low-carbon electricity and improve public transit

b)

Increase vehicle horsepower to shorten travel times

c)

Switch from gasoline to leaded gasoline to improve engine performance

d)

Ban catalytic converters to reduce costs