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Nursing and Public Health Worksheet

Total questions: 52

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During the third trimester, which physiological change is most likely to cause shortness of breath in a pregnant woman?

a)

Increased metabolic demand from the fetus

b)

The high position of the uterus compressing the diaphragm

c)

Allergic reactions to pregnancy hormones

d)

Gestational hypertension

2.

For a patient diagnosed with hyperthyroidism, which nursing diagnosis is most critical?

a)

Risk for imbalanced nutrition less than body requirements due to increased metabolic rate

b)

Risk for impaired skin integrity related to increased moisture

c)

Disturbed body image due to weight fluctuations

d)

Risk for imbalanced nutrition greater than body requirements due to hypermetabolism

3.

Which public health intervention is most effective in controlling the spread of infectious diseases?

a)

Environmental sanitation

b)

Isolation of infected individuals

c)

Vaccination programs

d)

Chemoprophylaxis

4.

A classic sign of acute glomerulonephritis in a child is:

a)

Hematuria

b)

Hypertension resistant to treatment

c)

Glucosuria

d)

Sudden decrease in serum creatinine

5.

In a patient experiencing fainting after self-injection, the most immediate nursing intervention is to:

a)

Administer oxygen

b)

Assess vital signs

c)

Assist the patient to a safe position

d)

Notify the physician

6.

6. The PCV-10 vaccine is used to prevent which disease?

a)

Pneumococcal disease

b)

Measles

c)

Polio

d)

Hepatitis B

7.

Which of the following includes the correct combination of diseases?

a)

Mumps, pneumonia, diarrhea, and sinusitis

b)

Otitis media, pneumonia, bacterial meningitis, and cellulitis

c)

Pneumonia, poliomyelitis, cryptococcal meningitis, and typhoid fever

d)

Allergic rhinitis, pneumonia, burns, and whooping cough

8.

A community can be broadly defined as:

a)

A social unit sharing common values and resources

b)

A group of people engaging in similar traditional health-seeking behaviors

c)

A gathering of individuals with shared health education practices

d)

A network enhancing understanding of local health status

9.

Which action will best promote independence in a client on skeletal traction?

a)

Instruct the client to request pain medication proactively

b)

Encourage passive leg exercises within traction limits

c)

Provide meticulous skincare to prevent breakdown

d)

Provide an overhead trapeze for the client’s use

10.

During a VCT (Voluntary Counseling and Testing) session, paraphrasing enhances communication by:

a)

Encouraging patients to repeat information for clarity

b)

Using interpreters for language barriers

c)

Restating client information in the nurse’s own words

d)

Asking patients to write down their concerns

11.

The primary goal of a school health program is to:

a)

Educate teachers about children's health behaviors

b)

Provide age-appropriate health information to students

c)

Gather information about children's family health practices

d)

Teach effective health education strategies to educators

12.

In cases of acute exacerbation in a mental health facility, the patient must fill out which form?

a)

MOH 302 form

b)

Admission consent form

c)

Mental health evaluation form

13.

During the second stage of labor, a vaginal examination is performed to:

a)

Confirm full cervical dilation

b)

Assess fetal presentation

c)

Evaluate the status of the membranes

d)

Prepare for the delivery process

14.

When making a patient’s bed, the procedure should conclude with:

a)

The nurse washing their hands

b)

The nurse adjusting the bed height

c)

The nurse tucking in the corners of the linen

d)

The nurse transporting used linen to laundry

15.

The most suitable type of traction for a fractured proximal femur is:

a)

Russell's traction

b)

Cervical traction

c)

Dunlop traction

d)

Buck's extension traction

16.

The appropriate application of forceps is indicated in which scenario?

a)

Breech presentation at 3+ station, complete cervical dilation, membranes ruptured

b)

Vertex presentation at 1+ station, complete cervical dilation, membranes ruptured

c)

Mentum anterior at 3+ station, complete cervical dilation, membranes ruptured

d)

Transverse lie at 3+ station, complete cervical dilation, membranes ruptured

17.

Following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), signs of a blocked drainage catheter include:

a)

Clear urine output in the drainage bag

b)

Persistent bladder spasms and urgency

c)

Normal saline irrigation infusing at a consistent rate

d)

Significant disparity between irrigant instilled and urine drained

18.

In the context of COVID-19 prevention, breaking the chain of infection occurs at which point?

(a)  

19.

Which of the following is a component of the chain of infection?

a)

Portal of entry

b)

Susceptible host

c)

Mode of transmission

d)

Portal of exit

20.

Which type of study design is most suitable for examining the association between lifestyle factors and health outcomes?

a)

Case-control study

b)

Cross-sectional study

c)

Cohort study

d)

Randomized controlled trial

21.

Which symptom is typically present in a patient with left-sided heart failure?

a)

Peripheral edema

b)

Shortness of breath upon exertion

c)

Ascites

d)

Jugular vein distension

22.

In the management of a patient with diabetes, which dietary adjustment is crucial?

a)

Increase intake of simple carbohydrates

b)

Monitor and regulate carbohydrate intake

c)

Decrease protein consumption

d)

Eliminate all fats from the diet

23.

When providing education on the use of an inhaler, which instruction is most important?

a)

Shake the inhaler before use

b)

Exhale fully before inhaling the medication

c)

Hold the inhaler vertically

d)

Use the inhaler every four hours

24.

The purpose of the Apgar score in newborns is to:

a)

Determine the need for resuscitation

b)

Assess long-term developmental outcomes

c)

Evaluate maternal health during pregnancy

d)

Measure gestational age at birth

25.

In the management of hypertension, which lifestyle modification is most effective?

a)

Reducing sodium intake

b)

Increasing caloric intake

c)

Decreasing water intake

d)

Eliminating all fats

26.

Which term best describes a healthcare professional’s obligation to provide competent care?

a)

Duty of care

b)

Standard of care

c)

Code of ethics

d)

Informed consent

27.

In acute pancreatitis, which dietary modification is advised?

a)

High-fat diet

b)

Low-protein diet

c)

Low-carbohydrate diet

d)

Low-fat diet

28.

Which of the following is a potential complication of diabetes mellitus?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Chronic kidney disease

c)

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

d)

Hypertension

29.

In the context of trauma care, the acronym 'ABCDE' stands for:

a)

Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure

b)

Assessment, Breathing, Circulation, Diagnosis, Evaluation

c)

Airway, Breathing, Compression, Diagnosis, Examination

d)

Assessment, Breathing, Control, Decision, Examination

30.

What is the primary risk factor for developing colorectal cancer?

a)

High-fiber diet

b)

Regular physical activity

c)

Family history of colorectal cancer

31.

What is the most effective way to prevent urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

a)

Drinking cranberry juice

b)

Maintaining proper hygiene

c)

Increasing caffeine intake

d)

Wearing tight clothing

32.

Which symptom is most indicative of iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Jaundice

b)

Fatigue

c)

Blurred vision

d)

Abdominal pain

33.

The primary goal of palliative care is to:

a)

Cure the underlying disease

b)

Enhance quality of life and relieve suffering

c)

Prolong life at all costs

d)

Provide psychological support only

34.

Which assessment finding is a priority in a patient with suspected meningitis?

a)

Fever and chills

b)

Nuchal rigidity

c)

Rash on the extremities

d)

Headache and photophobia

35.

In a patient with heart failure, which lab value is most important to monitor?

a)

Serum glucose levels

b)

B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

c)

Serum potassium levels

d)

White blood cell count

36.

What is the most common cause of peptic ulcers?

a)

High-stress levels

b)

Excessive alcohol consumption

37.

Which behavior is most likely to increase the risk of developing coronary artery disease?

a)

Regular physical activity

b)

Low-fat diet

c)

Smoking

d)

Stress management techniques

38.

In the context of wound care, which factor is most critical for promoting healing?

a)

Moisture balance

b)

Use of topical antibiotics

c)

Application of dressings

d)

Pain management

39.

Which dietary component is most important for pregnant women to consume to prevent neural tube defects?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Folate (folic acid)

c)

Calcium

d)

Iron

40.

Which condition is most commonly associated with chronic alcohol abuse?

a)

Gallbladder disease

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Liver cirrhosis

d)

Hypertension

41.

What is the primary purpose of the patient’s bill of rights?

a)

Outline the responsibilities of healthcare providers

b)

Ensure patients are informed about their health conditions

c)

Protect patient confidentiality

d)

Empower patients to make informed decisions about their care

42.

Which of the following is a key indicator of dehydration in children?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Decreased urine output

c)

High energy levels

d)

Warm, dry skin

43.

What is the main purpose of rehabilitation after surgery?

a)

To reduce hospital stay

b)

To enhance recovery and restore function

c)

To prevent further complications

d)

To provide psychological support only

44.

In the context of health literacy, the term 'health information seeking' refers to:

a)

The ability to understand medical terminology

b)

Actively searching for health-related information

c)

The process of evaluating healthcare providers

d)

The skill to interpret health statistics

45.

Which nutrient is most important for maintaining healthy skin?

a)

Fiber

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Protein

d)

Calcium

46.

Which strategy is most effective in managing workplace stress?

a)

Avoiding all stressful situations

b)

Practicing relaxation techniques

c)

Increasing work hours

d)

Ignoring stress symptoms

47.

In the context of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which symptom is most commonly experienced?

a)

Chest pain

b)

Frequent coughing

48.

Which factor is most important in promoting patient safety in healthcare settings?

a)

Adhering to infection control protocols

b)

Offering complimentary services

c)

Reducing staff numbers

d)

Increasing patient wait times

49.

Which of the following is a key indicator of effective pain management?

a)

Increased blood pressure

b)

Patient self-reporting of pain relief

c)

Decreased appetite

d)

Heightened anxiety levels

50.

What is the most effective strategy for preventing falls in the elderly?

a)

Increasing physical activity

b)

Providing assistive devices

c)

Conducting home safety assessments

d)

Reducing lighting in the home

51.

Which intervention is most effective for managing asthma?

a)

Avoiding all outdoor activities

b)

Regular use of prescribed inhalers and avoiding triggers

c)

Relying solely on emergency medication

d)

Ignoring symptoms

52.

What is the main purpose of health policies?

a)

To limit access to healthcare services

b)

To promote equitable health outcomes

c)

To increase healthcare costs

d)

To reduce healthcare provider autonomy