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Learning Aim A,B & C Recap

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is good posture called?

a)

Neutral Spine Alignment

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Scoliosis

d)

Thoracic vertebrae

2.

Kyphosis is referred to as having a _________

a)

hunchback

b)

flatback

c)

swayback

d)

round shoulders

3.

Scoliosis is referred to as a ________ curvature of the spine at the thoracic vertebrae.

a)

lateral

b)

vertical

c)

posterior

d)

anterior

4.

Kyphosis is caused by:

a)

Poor posture or a vertebral deformity at the thoracic cavity

b)

Inheritable condition in young children

c)

Lateral curvature of the spine

d)

Neutral spine alignment

5.

Scoliosis occurs in young children and is ________.

a)

inheritable

b)

contagious

c)

curable with antibiotics

d)

always fatal

6.

Which part of the spine contains the intervertebral discs?

a)

Cervical vertebrae

b)

Thoracic vertebrae

c)

Lumbar vertebrae

d)

All of the above

7.

Bones are formed through ossification. What is the initial composition of the skeleton?

a)

Bone

b)

Cartilage

c)

Muscle

d)

Ligament

8.

As the amount of ______ increases, the bones harden.

a)

calcium

b)

water

c)

fat

d)

sugar

9.

What is the function of the epiphyseal plates in bone growth?

a)

They produce blood cells

b)

They fuse with the bone to form a thin line of hyaline cartilage

c)

They break down cartilage

d)

They form the periosteum

10.

Which part of the bone is responsible for the formation of spongy bone?

a)

Primary ossification center

b)

Hyaline cartilage

c)

Blood vessel of periosteal bud

d)

Compact bone

11.

The articulating bones for the Shoulder joint are _________.

a)

Scapula & Humerus

b)

Femur & Tibia

c)

Radius & Ulna

d)

Clavicle & Sternum

12.

The articulating bones for the Elbow joint are _________.

a)

Humerus, Radius & Ulna

b)

Femur, Tibia & Fibula

c)

Scapula, Clavicle & Humerus

d)

Radius, Ulna & Carpals

13.

The articulating bones for the Wrist joint are _________.

a)

Radius & Carpals

b)

Humerus & Ulna

c)

Femur & Tibia

d)

Scapula & Clavicle

14.

The articulating bones for the Hip joint are _________.

a)

Pelvis & Femur

b)

Scapula & Humerus

c)

Tibia & Fibula

d)

Radius & Ulna

15.

The articulating bones for the Knee joint are _________.

a)

Femur & Tibia

b)

Femur & Fibula

c)

Tibia & Fibula

d)

Femur & Humerus

16.

The articulating bones for the Ankle joint are _________.

a)

Tibia, Fibula & Tarsals

b)

Femur, Patella & Tibia

c)

Radius, Ulna & Carpals

d)

Scapula, Clavicle & Humerus

17.

Which bone is labeled as 'Scapula'?

a)

Clavicle

b)

Humerus

c)

Scapula

d)

Acromion

18.

What type of joint is fixed and allows no movement?

a)

Synovial

b)

Cartilaginous

c)

Fibrous/Fixed

d)

Ball and Socket

19.

Which type of joint is slightly moveable, for example, between the lumbar vertebrae?

a)

Synovial

b)

Cartilaginous

c)

Fibrous/Fixed

d)

Hinge

20.

Which type of joint is freely moveable and provides the greatest range of movements?

a)

Synovial

b)

Fibrous

c)

Cartilaginous

d)

Immovable

21.

The coccyx is an example of a ______ joint.

a)

Fibrous/Fixed

b)

Synovial

c)

Cartilaginous

d)

Ball and Socket

22.

Why are synovial joints important in sport?

a)

They provide the greatest range of movements.

b)

They are the strongest type of joint.

c)

They are the least flexible joints.

d)

They do not allow any movement.

23.

Increased production of ________ fluid ensures the articular cartilage doesn’t dry out during exercise.

a)

synovial

b)

serous

c)

cerebrospinal

d)

pleural

24.

Increase of ________ uptake within the bones is a short term response to exercise.

a)

calcium

b)

glucose

c)

oxygen

d)

potassium

25.

Increased ________ of the ligaments is a short term response to exercise.

a)

pliability

b)

rigidity

c)

density

d)

thickness

26.

Reduction in the ________ of synovial fluid is a short term response to exercise.

a)

viscosity

b)

volume

c)

temperature

d)

color

27.

Stimulates the production of ________ due to increased stress on bones is a short term response to exercise.

a)

collagen

b)

insulin

c)

adrenaline

d)

hemoglobin

28.

Increased bone ________ and strength due to mineral content is a long term adaptation of the skeletal system to exercise.

a)

density

b)

flexibility

c)

length

d)

elasticity

29.

Increased ligament ________ thus reducing opportunity of dislocation is a long term adaptation of the skeletal system to exercise.

a)

strength

b)

length

c)

flexibility

d)

weakness

30.

Increased thickness of ________ cartilage which protects bones from wear and tear is a long term adaptation of the skeletal system to exercise.

a)

articular

b)

elastic

c)

fibrocartilage

d)

costal

31.

What does Osteoarthritis cause? Osteoarthritis causes ________ which causes a lack of mobility in over 40s of both genders.

a)

articular cartilage thins

b)

bone density increases

c)

muscle mass grows

d)

ligament lengthens

32.

What does Rheumatoid Arthritis cause? Rheumatoid Arthritis causes ________ of the joints in 40 - 50 year old women.

a)

an inflammation

b)

a fracture

c)

a dislocation

d)

a tumor

33.

Osteoporosis is a reduction in ________ caused by a lack of calcium and Vitamin D as well as a sedentary lifestyle.

a)

bone density

b)

muscle mass

c)

blood pressure

d)

body temperature

34.

Weight training in children tends to do more harm than good. The reason for this is that children's bones are still growing and putting too much force on them can damage the epiphyseal plates. Damage to these plates during childhood can result in ________ growth.

a)

stunted

b)

accelerated

c)

normal

d)

delayed

35.

According to the notes, what is the main reason weight training is harmful for children?

a)

It makes them tired

b)

It can damage their epiphyseal plates

c)

It helps them grow faster

d)

It improves their strength

36.

Weight training in children is recommended because it helps their bones grow stronger.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

The ________ is the prime mover or contracting muscle. Directly responsible for the movement at a joint.

a)

Agonist Muscle

b)

Antagonist Muscle

c)

Synergist Muscle

d)

Fixator Muscle

38.

Which muscle relaxes as the agonist works and opposes the action of the agonist?

a)

Agonist Muscle

b)

Antagonist Muscle

c)

Fixator Muscle

d)

Synergist Muscle

39.

The ________ contacts isometrically and allows the agonist to work effectively by stabilising the origin of the agonist.

a)

Fixator Muscle

b)

Antagonist Muscle

c)

Synergist Muscle

d)

Prime Mover

40.

Which muscle neutralises undesired action and assists the agonist in performing the desired movement?

a)

Agonist Muscle

b)

Antagonist Muscle

c)

Fixator Muscle

d)

Synergist Muscle

41.

What is a concentric contraction?

a)

When a muscle lengthens and relaxes

b)

When a muscle shortens in length and develops tension as it contracts

c)

When a muscle remains the same length

d)

When a muscle loses tension

42.

Concentric contractions occur when a muscle _______ in length and develops tension as it contracts.

a)

shortens

b)

lengthens

c)

remains the same

d)

relaxes

43.

Concentric contractions are common in power sports where you need explosive force.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

What does an eccentric contraction involve?

a)

Development of tension as the muscle shortens

b)

Development of tension as the muscle lengthens

c)

No tension development

d)

Muscle remains the same length

45.

Eccentric contractions are common when you need to control the movement or work against gravity.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Eccentric contractions involve the development of tension as the muscle _________

a)

lengthens

b)

shortens

c)

relaxes

d)

contracts

47.

Isometric Contractions are when the muscle contracts but does not change in _______.

a)

length

b)

shape

c)

temperature

d)

color

48.

Which of the following best describes isometric contractions?

a)

The muscle contracts and changes in length

b)

The muscle contracts but does not change in length

c)

The muscle relaxes and changes in length

d)

The muscle relaxes but does not change in length

49.

Isometric contractions are common when there is no movement occurring.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Which muscle fibre type has slow twitch and slow contraction speed?

a)

Type I

b)

Type IIa

c)

Type IIx/b

51.

Which muscle fibre type is best suited for endurance sports such as 1500m, Tour de France, Football, and Rugby?

a)

Type I

b)

Type IIa

c)

Type IIx/b

52.

Type IIx/b muscle fibres have _____ twitch and _____ contraction speed.

a)

fast; fast

b)

slow; slow

c)

slow; fast

d)

fast; slow

53.

Which muscle fibre type has high myoglobin and mitochondria levels?

a)

Type I

b)

Type IIa

c)

Type IIx/b

54.

Which muscle fibre type has high fatigue resistance and does not tire easily?

a)

Type I

b)

Type IIa

c)

Type IIx/b

55.

Type IIa muscle fibres have _____ force of contraction and are used in moderate sports like tennis and swimming.

a)

medium

b)

low

c)

high

d)

very high

56.

Which muscle fibre type is aerobic and anaerobic?

a)

Type I

b)

Type IIa

c)

Type IIx/b

57.

Type IIx/b muscle fibres have _____ fatigue resistance and tire easily.

a)

low

b)

high

c)

moderate

d)

excellent

58.

According to the notes, what percentage of muscle loss occurs on average between the ages of 50 to 70?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

40%

59.

The rate of muscle loss decreases after the age of 70.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

What lifestyle accelerates muscle loss according to the notes?

a)

Active lifestyle

b)

Sedentary lifestyle

c)

Balanced diet

d)

Regular exercise

61.

Remaining ______ and following an appropriate strength training programme can reduce the effects of aging.

a)

active

b)

sedentary

c)

inactive

d)

passive

62.

What is a cramp?

a)

A slow, weak contraction of a muscle

b)

A sudden, strong, uncontrollable contraction of a muscle which can last for a few seconds or minutes and is very painful

c)

A gentle stretching of a muscle

d)

A muscle relaxing after exercise

63.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of cramp?

a)

Overuse of the muscle

b)

Dehydration

c)

Eating too much sugar

d)

Mineral depletion

64.

One cause of cramp is _________.

a)

Overuse of the muscle

b)

Lack of sleep

c)

Excessive sugar intake

d)

Low body temperature

e)

High blood pressure

65.

Dehydration can lead to _________?

a)

cramp

b)

fever

c)

rash

d)

cough

66.

What should a performer do if they suffer a cramp during exercise?

a)

Continue exercising

b)

Stop exercising, stretch and massage the affected muscle

c)

Drink coffee

d)

Ignore the pain

67.

Which of the following is recommended to prevent cramps?

a)

Remain hydrated

b)

Maintain electrolyte balance

c)

Stretch before and after exercise

d)

All of the above

68.

Air passes through the _______ cavity where dust and bacteria are filtered out by sticky mucus.

a)

nasal

b)

oral

c)

thoracic

d)

abdominal

69.

The function of the epiglottis in the respiratory system is:

a)

to prevent food from entering the windpipe during swallowing

b)

to produce sound for speech

c)

to filter dust and microbes from inhaled air

d)

to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide

70.

At the bottom of the trachea, it divides into two _______.

a)

bronchi

b)

alveoli

c)

capillaries

d)

lobes

71.

Each bronchus subdivides again into a mass of fine branches known as _______.

a)

bronchioles

b)

alveoli

c)

tracheoles

d)

capillaries

72.

The tiny hollow bags with bulb-like pockets in which gases are exchanged are called:

a)

Bronchioles

b)

Alveoli

c)

Trachea

d)

Ribs

73.

The walls of the alveoli are only one cell thick.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

The process where oxygen diffuses through the alveoli and capillary walls into the blood is called:

a)

Osmosis

b)

Filtration

c)

Diffusion

d)

Active transport

75.

Blood releases _______ which diffuses in the opposite direction to alveoli.

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen

c)

nitrogen

d)

water vapor

76.

What happens to the internal intercostal muscles during inspiration?

a)

They relax.

b)

They contract.

c)

They expand.

d)

They stiffen.

77.

What is the role of internal intercostal muscles during expiration?

a)

They contract to push the ribs downwards and inwards.

b)

They relax to allow the ribs to move upwards and outwards.

c)

They contract to expand the chest cavity.

d)

They help the diaphragm to contract.

78.

During inspiration, what do the external intercostal muscles do?

a)

They contract to lift the ribs upwards and outwards.

b)

They relax to allow the ribs to move downwards.

c)

They contract to push the ribs inwards.

d)

They remain inactive during inspiration.

79.

What happens to the diaphragm during inspiration?

a)

It contracts and flattens.

b)

It relaxes and rises.

c)

It becomes rigid and immobile.

d)

It contracts and bulges upward.

80.

During expiration, what happens to the diaphragm?

a)

It relaxes and pushes up.

b)

It contracts and moves down.

c)

It expands and flattens.

d)

It remains unchanged.

81.

What happens to the size of the lungs/thoracic cavity during inspiration?

a)

It increases in size.

b)

It decreases in size.

c)

It remains the same.

d)

It collapses.

82.

What happens to the size of the lungs/thoracic cavity during expiration?

a)

It decreases in size.

b)

It increases in size.

c)

It remains the same.

d)

It fluctuates randomly.

83.

During inspiration, does the air pressure in the lungs drop or rise?

a)

It drops (low air pressure).

b)

It rises (high air pressure).

c)

It remains the same.

d)

It fluctuates randomly.

84.

During expiration, does the air pressure in the lungs drop or rise?

a)

It rises (high air pressure).

b)

It drops (low air pressure).

c)

It remains unchanged.

d)

It fluctuates randomly.

85.

What is the oxygen content in the lungs during inspiration?

a)

High.

b)

Low.

c)

Moderate.

d)

Very low.

86.

What is the oxygen content in the lungs during expiration?

a)

Low.

b)

High.

c)

Moderate.

d)

Zero.

87.

Which gases are involved in the process of gaseous exchange in the lungs?

a)

Nitrogen and Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide and Oxygen

c)

Hydrogen and Carbon Dioxide

d)

Oxygen and Helium

88.

What is gaseous exchange? Gaseous Exchange occurs through ______ between gases in the alveoli and blood in the capillaries.

a)

diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

filtration

d)

active transport

89.

Refer to the diagram showing the alveolus and blood capillary. Which gas moves into the blood capillary from the alveolus?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Helium

90.

Where does gaseous exchange take place in the human body?

a)

Heart

b)

Alveoli in the lungs

c)

Kidneys

d)

Stomach

91.

Diffusion occurs between the air in the alveoli and blood in the capillaries that surround the _______.

a)

alveoli

b)

bronchi

c)

trachea

d)

diaphragm

92.

Which structures form a respiratory membrane?

a)

Alveoli walls and capillary walls

b)

Bronchi and trachea

c)

Red blood cells and plasma

d)

Diaphragm and ribs

93.

Gases diffuse from an area of _______ concentration to an area of _______ concentration.

a)

high; low

b)

low; high

c)

equal; equal

d)

low; equal

94.

Carbon Dioxide diffuses back into the alveoli from the blood plasma while oxygen diffuses into the blood plasma from the alveoli.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

What is the tidal volume?

a)

The amount of air that can be forced in and out of the lungs after maximum inspiration or expiration

b)

The volume of air breathed in and out with each breath

c)

The amount of air that is left in the lungs after fully exhaling

d)

The total lung capacity