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T3 - Malicious Code

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 2hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following MOST likely describes the behavior of ransomware?

a)

Collects keystrokes to steal credentials

b)

Encrypts files and demands payment for decryption

c)

Creates hidden administrator accounts

d)

Self-replicates across networked systems

2.

After a phishing email is opened, a message appears demanding Bitcoin to unlock files. Which immediate action should a technician take FIRST?

a)

Pay the ransom to avoid data loss

b)

Reboot the system in Safe Mode

c)

Isolate the host from the network

d)

Run a disk cleanup utility

3.

Which network protocol weakness did the WannaCry outbreak exploit?

a)

SMBv1

b)

FTP

c)

RDP

d)

SNMP

4.

Which of the following MOST likely represents malware that masquerades as legitimate software while installing a backdoor?

a)

Worm

b)

Rootkit

c)

Trojan

d)

Spyware

5.

Which indicator MOST likely reveals a Trojan infection?

a)

Spikes in broadcast traffic

b)

Altered file extensions

c)

New startup services or scheduled tasks

d)

Sudden file encryption

6.

A finance PC shows encrypted HTTPS traffic to rare domains overseas. Which malware type is MOST likely responsible?

a)

Virus

b)

Trojan

c)

Spyware

d)

Keylogger

7.

Which malware type self-replicates without user action and can quickly saturate bandwidth?

a)

Worm

b)

Trojan

c)

Virus

d)

Logic Bomb

8.

Which control MOST effectively prevents a worm outbreak from spreading?

a)

Enforce egress filtering

b)

Apply patches and segment networks

c)

Train users on phishing awareness

d)

Reboot affected hosts

9.

Which malware type requires user execution of an infected file to spread?

a)

Trojan

b)

Virus

c)

Worm

d)

Rootkit

10.

Which network symptom MOST likely indicates a worm infection?

a)

New scheduled tasks

b)

Abnormal outbound SMTP traffic

c)

Frequent system reboots

d)

Pop-up advertisements

11.

Which of the following BEST describes spyware?

a)

Encrypts files for ransom

b)

Deletes system data

c)

Silently collects user activity and credentials

d)

Hijacks boot sectors

12.

Which control MOST effectively mitigates spyware?

a)

Disable macros in Office

b)

Harden browsers and enforce least privilege

c)

Enable SMBv1

d)

Remove network segmentation

13.

Software pre-installed by vendors that slows performance is BEST categorized as:

a)

Worm

b)

Spyware

c)

Bloatware / PUP

d)

Rootkit

14.

Which mitigation MOST likely prevents unwanted bundled installations?

a)

Segmentation

b)

Safe-install choices and allow-listing

c)

EDR telemetry

d)

Encrypted DNS

15.

Which malware captures keyboard input and stores it in plain text?

a)

Spyware

b)

Worm

c)

Keylogger

d)

Trojan

16.

An analyst observes text files updating in C:\Temp as a user types. Which malware is MOST likely present?

a)

Worm

b)

Keylogger

c)

Rootkit

d)

Ransomware

17.

A logic bomb can be BEST described as code that:

a)

Encrypts files on a timer

b)

Executes when specific conditions are met

c)

Replicates across the network

d)

Injects code into the OS kernel

18.

Which historical incident involved a fired employee activating a logic bomb?

a)

Tim Lloyd

b)

Kevin Mitnick

c)

Marcus Hutchins

d)

Albert Gonzalez

19.

Rootkits primarily attempt to:

a)

Gain financial credentials

b)

Hide malicious activity from detection tools

c)

Spread automatically

d)

Modify web browsers for ads

20.

Which observation MOST likely indicates a rootkit?

a)

Pop-up ads

b)

Hidden processes invisible to Task Manager

c)

Slow startup

d)

Disabled print service

21.

Which remediation step is MOST reliable for confirmed rootkit infections?

a)

Run AV scan

b)

Re-image from a clean source

c)

Delete registry entries

d)

Disable services

22.

Which malware used digitally signed drivers to conceal industrial sabotage?

a)

WannaCry

b)

Zeus

c)

Stuxnet

d)

Emotet

23.

Periodic encrypted DNS queries to rare domains from several hosts MOST likely indicate:

a)

Ransomware propagation

b)

Botnet command-and-control

c)

Worm scanning

d)

Virus infection

24.

Which botnet architecture is MOST resilient against single-server takedowns?

a)

Centralized

b)

Layered

c)

Peer-to-peer

d)

Modular

25.

A botnet performing crypto-mining primarily affects which security objective?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Integrity

c)

Availability

d)

Non-repudiation

26.

Which tool would MOST likely detect a worm’s lateral movement across subnets?

a)

NetFlow analyzer

b)

Hash calculator

c)

DLP scanner

d)

Password cracker

27.

Which detection method MOST effectively identifies encrypted C2 traffic?

a)

Signature-based IDS

b)

Behavioral analytics and JA3 fingerprinting

c)

Port blocking only

d)

Static blacklists

28.

Which malware goal is to deceive users into running malicious code disguised as useful software?

a)

Worm

b)

Trojan

c)

Virus

d)

Logic Bomb

29.

Which security control MOST effectively prevents Trojans from email attachments?

a)

Disable macros and enable secure mail filtering

b)

Patch network devices

c)

Segment internal subnets

d)

Apply DNS filtering only

30.

Malware that operates entirely in memory by abusing system tools is BEST described as:

a)

Trojan

b)

Worm

c)

Fileless malware

d)

Virus

31.

Which indicator MOST likely reveals a keylogger dropped by a Trojan?

a)

Unsigned kernel driver

b)

Outbound spam traffic

c)

Suspicious parent-child process chains

d)

Browser DLL injection

32.

Which mitigation MOST effectively limits a worm’s lateral spread after infection?

a)

Email filtering

b)

Network segmentation

c)

Patch management

d)

Application allow-listing

33.

Which malware family commonly uses DLL injection or kernel manipulation to remain hidden?

a)

Virus

b)

Rootkit

c)

Worm

d)

Spyware

34.

Why are immutable backups critical when mitigating ransomware?

a)

Improve boot speed

b)

Prevent alteration or deletion of recovery data

c)

Reduce false positives

d)

Automate drive encryption

35.

Which log pattern MOST likely suggests active C2 beaconing?

a)

Repeated failed logins

b)

Regular timed connections to aging domains

c)

USB mount events

d)

Localhost DNS queries

36.

Analysts determine that a PowerShell script executed from a temporary folder immediately after a phishing email was opened. Which phase of the attack lifecycle does this MOST likely represent?

a)

Initial Access

b)

Execution

c)

Persistence

d)

Impact

37.

Which control would MOST likely prevent malware from maintaining persistence through registry run keys?

a)

Secure Boot

b)

EDR registry monitoring

c)

DNS filtering

d)

Immutable backups

38.

Privilege escalation attempts exploiting unsigned drivers can BEST be mitigated by:

a)

Enforcing driver-signing requirements

b)

Network segmentation

c)

User-training refreshers

d)

Disabling Office macros

39.

An analyst observes the process chain winword.exe → powershell.exe → cmd.exe on a host. This activity MOST likely indicates which attack technique?

a)

Living-off-the-land execution

b)

Lateral movement

c)

File infection

d)

DNS tunneling

40.

Applying the principle of least privilege MOST directly mitigates which phase of an attack?

a)

Privilege Escalation

b)

Persistence

c)

Execution

d)

Impact

41.

Which single control MOST effectively limits data exfiltration during the impact phase of an attack?

a)

DNS sinkholing

b)

Network segmentation with egress filtering

c)

Disabling macros

d)

Patch management

42.

Packed executables with random filenames in %AppData% MOST likely indicate which evasion technique?

a)

Code obfuscation/packing

b)

Lateral movement

c)

Keylogging

d)

C2 beaconing

43.

Which malware type MOST commonly modifies system utilities to conceal malicious processes?

a)

Trojan

b)

Virus

c)

Rootkit

d)

Worm

44.

Which practice MOST effectively prevents logic bombs in production software?

a)

Code review and change-control procedures

b)

Behavior analytics

c)

Secure Boot

d)

DLP monitoring

45.

Correlating synchronized beacon timing across multiple hosts would MOST likely detect:

a)

Peer-to-peer botnet activity

b)

Drive-by downloads

c)

Macro-based malware

d)

Rootkit infection

46.

Which component of a malware campaign maintains communication with attacker infrastructure?

a)

Loader

b)

Dropper

c)

Command-and-Control (C2) channel

d)

Exploit kit

47.

Which control combination MOST effectively prevents reinfection following a ransomware incident?

a)

Patch management and immutable backups

b)

Enable SMBv1 and host firewall

c)

User awareness training only

d)

DNS filtering only

48.

Spyware that injects DLLs into browser processes is BEST detected through:

a)

Application allow-listing

b)

Browser hardening

c)

Memory analysis and EDR telemetry

d)

Network segmentation

49.

Why are PUPs considered a potential security risk even when not directly malicious?

a)

They disable antivirus software

b)

They degrade performance and expand attack surface

c)

They encrypt drives for ransom

d)

They replicate autonomously

50.

Which key distinction differentiates a worm from a Trojan?

a)

Worms require user execution

b)

Worms self-replicate automatically

c)

Trojans spread autonomously

d)

Trojans exploit kernel drivers

51.

Which toolset provides the MOST complete visibility into C2 beacon behavior?

a)

EDR integrated with SIEM correlation

b)

Backup and restore utilities

c)

Group Policy Editor

d)

DLP endpoint agent

52.

A malicious macro creates a hidden Windows service that runs after reboot. This action MOST likely represents which attack phase?

a)

Initial access

b)

Persistence

c)

Privilege escalation

d)

Lateral movement

53.

Which configuration change MOST effectively mitigates “living-off-the-land” fileless attacks?

a)

Disable unused admin tools and restrict PowerShell

b)

Increase AV signature updates

c)

Enable legacy SMBv1

d)

Force password rotation

54.

Which event MOST likely marks the impact stage of a ransomware attack?

a)

Creation of a scheduled task

b)

File encryption and ransom note display

c)

Exploitation of a browser plugin

d)

Outbound beacon to C2

55.

Which control MOST effectively prevents privilege escalation through vulnerable drivers?

a)

Timely patch management

b)

Network segmentation

c)

DNS sinkholing

d)

Macro disablement

56.

TLS traffic with mismatched SNI and JA3 signatures MOST likely indicates:

a)

C2 tunneling activity

b)

Normal web browsing

c)

File transfer

d)

Email communication

57.

Which of the following MOST likely explains why network segmentation is critical once a worm is detected on a corporate subnet?

a)

It hides the malware’s signatures from antivirus scans

b)

It restricts the worm’s ability to propagate laterally

c)

It prevents installation of rootkits on domain controllers

d)

It removes keyloggers from infected systems

58.

Which well-known malware specifically targeted industrial control systems to cause physical damage?

a)

Zeus

b)

Stuxnet

c)

Emotet

d)

MyDoom

59.

Which technique do many botnets use to remain reachable even after security teams block their domains?

a)

Domain Generation Algorithms (DGA)

b)

MAC address spoofing

c)

ARP poisoning

d)

VPN tunneling

60.

Which combination of controls MOST effectively limits ransomware damage and prevents botnet persistence?

a)

Offline backups + least privilege + egress filtering

b)

Macro disablement only

c)

Browser extensions only

d)

Password rotation only

61.

Multiple endpoints show encrypted files and ransom notes, but backups are intact. Which immediate coordinated action should responders take FIRST?

a)

Power off all user systems

b)

Disconnect infected hosts from the network

c)

Pay the ransom to recover quickly

d)

Run System Restore

62.

Users report browser redirects and credential theft. EDR logs show browserhelper.dll loading at startup. Which malware type is MOST likely present?

a)

Spyware

b)

Worm

c)

Keylogger

d)

Trojan

63.

A workstation contacts a known phishing domain every 90 seconds while idle, and CPU usage stays high. Which issue is MOST likely occurring?

a)

Worm scanning

b)

Botnet beaconing

c)

Logic bomb activation

d)

Rootkit driver load

64.

During forensics, investigators find a disabled service created five days before a ransomware detonation that auto-enabled on the attack day. Which artifact does this BEST represent?

a)

Rootkit driver

b)

Logic bomb trigger

c)

Worm payload

d)

Bootloader virus

65.

An employee installs a “free PDF converter,” after which pop-ups and slow performance begin. What infection vector and malware type are MOST likely?

a)

Drive-by / Rootkit

b)

Bundled installer / PUP

c)

Phishing / Ransomware

d)

Macro / Trojan

66.

After removing a rootkit, EDR still flags unsigned drivers loading at boot. Which remediation step should be taken NEXT?

a)

Delete temporary files

b)

Re-image the system from a trusted source

c)

Disable the network adapter

d)

Rename suspect drivers

67.

A phishing email delivers a dropper that installs Emotet, which then spreads laterally and steals credentials. Which control could have prevented the initial compromise?

a)

Email filtering and macro restrictions

b)

Immutable backups

c)

DNS sinkholing

d)

Network segmentation

68.

A network admin notices hundreds of outbound DNS requests to random .ru domains. Which mitigation should be implemented FIRST?

a)

DNS filtering with blocklists

b)

Update printer firmware

c)

Increase password length

d)

Enable guest Wi-Fi

69.

Behavior-based analytics flag hosts making abnormal beacon patterns and automatically isolate them. This protection primarily disrupts which attack phase?

a)

Defense Evasion

b)

Command and Control

c)

Impact

d)

Persistence

70.

A developer’s maintenance script deletes production files when a date variable resets to zero. Which preventative measure would MOST effectively catch this error before deployment?

a)

Secure coding standards and peer code review

b)

Driver signing requirements

c)

DNS tunneling detection

d)

Password complexity policy