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Introduction to NORA and Patient Advocacy

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines Non-Operating Room Anesthesia (NORA) in the context of patient care?

a)

Anesthesia delivered exclusively in traditional operating rooms

b)

Sedation provided by non-physician staff without monitoring

c)

Anesthesia care delivered outside the operating room in locations such as endoscopy or radiology suites

d)

Only local anesthesia administered in outpatient clinics

2.

As a patient advocate in NORA settings, what is the anesthesiologist’s primary responsibility when procedural teams focus on the procedure itself?

a)

Ensure rapid room turnover above all else

b)

Center decisions on the patient’s safety and needs, including appropriate monitoring and airway protection

c)

Delegate monitoring to the proceduralist to reduce staffing

d)

Prioritize completion of the procedure over hemodynamic stability

3.

During anesthesia for EGD in a NORA location, which practice is most critical for preventing equipment or dental injury and maintaining safety?

a)

Avoid topicalization to preserve gag reflex

b)

Use a bite block and apply standard monitors with ETCO2 monitoring

c)

Rely solely on benzodiazepines without propofol

d)

Skip capnography if pulse oximetry is normal

4.

Which of the following is a common Non-Operating Room Anesthesia (NORA) location highlighted in the material?

a)

Gastroenterology suite for ERCP

b)

Pediatric vaccination clinic

c)

Physical therapy gym

d)

Ophthalmology outpatient clinic

5.

For ERCP under NORA, which airway approach is more commonly chosen according to the material?

a)

Mask ventilation only

b)

Intubation

c)

Laryngeal mask airway (LMA) preferred

d)

No airway management needed

6.

For bronchoscopy cases involving a rigid bronchoscope, which anesthesia consideration is most accurate?

a)

Inhalational anesthetics are ideal because delivery is enhanced

b)

Rigid airway instrumentation may inhibit delivery of inhalationals and pollute the room

c)

MAC is universally preferred over general anesthesia

d)

Muscle relaxation should be avoided to prevent coughing

7.

What is a primary complication to anticipate during pulmonary lab anesthesia cases?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Airway obstruction

c)

Renal failure

d)

Allergic rash

8.

Why are bronchoscopies described as among the most dangerous cases in the hospital?

a)

Patients are typically low risk and over-monitored

b)

The proceduralist may occupy the glottis/trachea with a flexible scope while patients often have serious problems

c)

They never require emergency drugs or backup support

d)

They are always performed under spinal anesthesia

9.

In preparing for a stressful bronchoscopy under monitored anesthesia care (MAC), which action aligns best with guidance from the material?

a)

Rely on minimal sedation and remove oxygen support

b)

Have emergency drugs and supplies immediately available and ensure a team member can assist if needed

c)

Avoid using midazolam in any dose

d)

Delay the case until the patient is fully optimized and NPO

10.

During code stroke treatments in the IR suite, which patient status should the anesthesia provider most expect?

a)

Optimized, NPO, and hemodynamically stable

b)

Unoptimized, not NPO, and potentially very ill with little time to prepare

c)

Postoperative and recovering uneventfully

d)

Hemodynamically stable with secured airway pre-procedure

11.

Which trend is highlighted regarding Non-Operating Room Anesthesia (NORA) cases in contemporary practice?

a)

Declining frequency and lower patient acuity

b)

Increasing prevalence with higher patient acuity

c)

Stable volume with unchanged patient acuity

d)

Elimination of NORA due to safety concerns

e)

Shift exclusively to outpatient sedation without anesthesia support

12.

For a patient undergoing a Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPS), which preparation best reflects appropriate anesthetic planning?

a)

Avoid vasopressors to reduce afterload

b)

Expect minimal comorbidities and rare transfusion needs

c)

Be prepared with strong pressors such as vasopressin, norepinephrine, or epinephrine

d)

Use only opioid analgesia because these patients are opioid naïve

13.

Which statement best characterizes anesthesia planning for cardiac cath/interventional cardiology/electrophysiology lab cases?

a)

General anesthesia is required for all cases to limit radiation exposure

b)

Either MAC or general anesthesia may be used; patients often have significant comorbidities, and medications may exacerbate cardiac abnormalities

c)

Sedation is avoided because it obscures EKG interpretation

d)

These procedures involve minimal fluoroscopy and negligible radiation

14.

In the context of catheter ablations for atrial fibrillation/flutter/VT, which pre-procedure evaluation is recommended to rule out a thrombus in the left atrial appendage?

a)

Chest X-ray

b)

Transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE)

c)

Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE)

d)

Cardiac MRI

15.

Cardioversion and TEE cases are typically managed with which anesthetic approach?

a)

Inhalational maintenance with sevoflurane

b)

Total intravenous anesthesia (propofol bolus/infusion)

c)

Regional anesthesia with intercostal blocks

d)

Ketamine-only sedation

16.

Which staffing consideration best aligns with NORA environmental requirements for structural heart cases involving elderly patients with significant comorbidities?

a)

Minimal staff, as emergencies are unlikely

b)

A team prepared for emergencies with multiple specialties involved

c)

Only a single anesthetist and the proceduralist

d)

Staff focused solely on post-procedure transport

17.

During a TAVR performed in a NORA setting, a sudden severe drop in blood pressure occurs immediately after valve deployment. Based on the outlined device complication risks, what is the most likely cause that should be communicated to the proceduralist before escalating vasopressors?

a)

Airway obstruction from sedation

b)

Valve malposition blocking the aorta

c)

Inadequate IV access

d)

Protamine overdose

18.

In planning the recovery environment for patients undergoing NORA procedures such as TAVR, which statement is most accurate?

a)

All patients should be discharged directly home from the procedure room if extubated

b)

Patients may extubate in the procedure room but still require unit-based recovery monitoring

c)

Recovery is unnecessary if anticoagulation is reversed with protamine

d)

Only PACU nurses trained for orthopedic cases are required

19.

Which monitoring modality is specifically recommended for detecting ventilation issues during NORA cases performed in remote locations?

a)

Pulse oximetry

b)

Noninvasive blood pressure

c)

Capnography

d)

Temperature probe

20.

According to recommendations for NORA, what equipment availability best aligns with minimizing anesthesia-related risk?

a)

Portable oxygen only

b)

Defibrillator without an anesthesia machine

c)

Full anesthesia machine with standard monitors equivalent to the operating room

d)

Suction and IV pump only

21.

ASA Closed Claims related to NORA most commonly highlight which category of adverse events in remote locations?

a)

Allergic reactions to antibiotics

b)

Respiratory events such as hypoventilation or airway obstruction

c)

Wrong-site surgery

d)

Massive transfusion reactions

22.

In CT-guided procedures described, what is a key logistical challenge for the anesthesia provider?

a)

Limited access to the patient who is deep inside the machine

b)

Excessive ambient noise making communication impossible

c)

High risk of magnetic projectile injuries

d)

Requirement for continuous neuromuscular monitoring via EMG

23.

Which consideration is explicitly highlighted for CT imaging in NORA?

a)

Avoidance of intravenous contrast at all costs

b)

Radiation exposure and the need for patients to remain still

c)

Use of open MRI–compatible equipment

d)

Preference for spontaneous ventilation over GETA in all cases

24.

During PET imaging for malignancy staging, why is early coordination with the PET staff emphasized?

a)

Scanner time is limited to weekdays only

b)

The half-life of certain injectables is short, affecting scheduling

c)

Patients must fast for 24 hours before the scan

d)

General anesthesia is mandatory for PET scans

25.

For pediatric radiation therapy cases requiring sedation, which approach best aligns with safety guidance in NORA settings?

a)

Deep sedation with planned airway instrumentation

b)

Very light sedation while avoiding airway manipulation and planning for distance from help

c)

No sedation under any circumstances

d)

Use of inhalational induction in the treatment room followed by intubation

26.

Which patient factor most increases the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) during NORA procedures?

a)

Preexisting chronic kidney disease

b)

Young age with normal renal function

c)

Use of low-osmolar contrast media

d)

Adequate preprocedure hydration

27.

During an interventional radiology NORA case, the patient is on therapeutic anticoagulation. Which strategy best balances bleeding risk with procedural needs?

a)

Continue all anticoagulants regardless of procedure risk

b)

Hold or reverse anticoagulation based on procedure-specific bleeding risk and thromboembolic risk

c)

Delay the case for 30 minutes after last dose only

d)

Administer platelet transfusion routinely before contrast use

28.

Which action helps prevent contrast-induced nephropathy in high‑risk patients undergoing NORA procedures?

a)

Withhold all IV fluids to avoid overload

b)

Use the lowest effective contrast dose and ensure adequate isotonic hydration

c)

Prefer high-osmolar contrast agents to improve imaging

d)

Give diuretics immediately after contrast to force diuresis

29.

For an upper endoscopy (EGD), which patient-related risk most directly guides airway protection planning by the anesthesia provider?

a)

Aspiration of gastric contents due to inadequate airway protection

b)

Malignant hyperthermia triggered by endoscope insertion

c)

High risk of venous air embolism from insufflation

d)

Anaphylaxis to iodine contrast used during EGD

30.

Which complication is specifically associated with EGD and should be communicated in consent and monitored post-procedure?

a)

Gastrointestinal perforation

b)

Tension pneumothorax from CO2 insufflation of the colon

c)

Stroke from carotid manipulation

d)

Acute kidney failure from contrast nephropathy