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WorksheetsGCC 151 - 175
Total questions: 25
Worksheet time: 25mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The nurse is caring for a client following a colonoscopy in which conscious sedation was used. Initial assessment of the client reveals the following: BP 128/72, temperature 97, pulse 64, respirations 14, oxygen saturation 90%, and Glascow score of 13. An IV of normal saline is infusing at 20 drops per minute. Which nursing intervention should receive priority?
a)
Administering an analgesic
b)
Administering oxygen per standing order
c)
Covering the client with a blanket
d)
Discontinuing the IV fluid
e)
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2.
A multigravida is scheduled for an amniocentesis at 32 weeks gestation to determine the L/S ratio and phosphatidyl glycerol level. The L/S ratio is 1:1. The nurse's assessment of this data is:
a)
The infant is at low risk for congenital anomalies.
b)
The infant is at high risk for intrauterine growth retardation.
c)
The infant is at high risk for respiratory distress syndrome.
d)
The infant is at high risk for birth trauma.
e)
-
3.
The client returns to the unit from surgery with a blood pressure of 90/50, pulse 132, respirations 30. Which action by the nurse should receive priority?
a)
Continue to monitor the vital signs
b)
Contact the physician
c)
Ask the client how he feels
d)
Ask the LPN to continue the post-op care
e)
-
4.
An adolescent primigravida who is 10 weeks pregnant attends the antepartal clinic for her first check-up. To develop a teaching plan, the nurse should initially assess:
a)
The client's knowledge of the signs of preterm labor
b)
The client's feelings about the pregnancy
c)
Whether the client was using a method of birth control
d)
The client's thoughts about future children
e)
-
5.
Psychologic conditioning to increase resistance to stress focuses on:
a)
Building physical resources.
b)
Decreasing assertiveness.
c)
Enhancing self-esteem.
d)
Exercise.
e)
-
6.
Which of the following is the best indicator of the diagnosis of HIV?
a)
White blood cell count
b)
ELISA
c)
Western Blot
d)
Complete blood count
e)
-
7.
A client with a bowel resection and anastomosis returns to his room with an NG tube attached to intermittent suction. Which of the following observations indicates that the nasogastric suction is working properly?
a)
The client's abdomen is soft.
b)
The client is able to swallow.
c)
The client has active bowel sounds.
d)
The client's abdominal dressing is dry and intact.
e)
-
8.
The nurse cares for a client post-thyroidectomy. The nurse notices the client experiences muscle twitches. Upon questioning, the client complains of numbness and tingling of the mouth and fingertips. The nurse suspects which electrolyte disturbance?
a)
Hyponatremia.
b)
Hyperkalemia.
c)
Hypocalcemia.
d)
Hypermagnesemia.
e)
-
9.
The nurse is caring for the client following a cerebral vascular accident. Which portion of the brain is responsible for taste, smell, and hearing?
a)
Occipital
b)
Frontal
c)
Temporal
d)
Parietal
e)
-
10.
A client with diagnosed diabetes visits the clinic complaining of shakiness and tingling sensations. Which of the following questions is most important for the LPN/LVN to ask?
a)
When did you last eat?
b)
Did you bring your medication with you?
c)
What was your blood glucose and when was it checked?
d)
Is there anyone available to drive you home today?
e)
-
11.
Which action by the healthcare worker indicates a need for further teaching?
a)
The nursing assistant wears gloves while giving the client a bath.
b)
The nurse wears goggles while drawing blood from the client.
c)
The doctor washes his hands before examining the client.
d)
The nurse wears gloves to take the client's vital signs.
e)
-
12.
Which disease process results from an absence or inadequate amount of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia and a series of biochemical disorders?
a)
Diabetes insipidus
b)
Hyperaldosteronism
c)
Diabetic ketoacidosis
d)
HHNS
e)
-
13.
The nurse is caring for the patient's post-surgical removal of a 6mm oral cancerous lesion. The priority nursing measure would be to:
a)
Maintain a patent airway
b)
Perform meticulous oral care every 2 hours
c)
Ensure that the incisional area is kept as dry as possible
d)
Assess the client frequently for pain using the visual analogue scale
e)
-
14.
A client with AIDS asks the nurse why he can't have a pitcher of water at his bedside so he can drink whenever he likes. The nurse should tell the client that:
a)
It would be best for him to drink tap water.
b)
He should drink less water and more juice.
c)
Leaving a glass of water makes it easier to calculate his intake.
d)
He shouldn't drink water that has been sitting longer than 15 minutes.
e)
-
15.
A female client comes to the family planning clinic. The client is a smoker and doubts the ability to stop smoking. The nurse recommends which form of birth control based on the client's history?
a)
Female sterilization.
b)
Depo-Provera injection.
c)
Oral contraceptive pills.
d)
The Ortho Evra patch.
e)
-
16.
A patient experiences an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. Test results reveal elevated serum osmolality and urine specific gravity. What is the most likely explanation for these test results?
a)
Renal insufficiency
b)
Hypoaldosteronism
c)
Diabetes insipidus
d)
Deficient fluid volume
e)
-
17.
A client completes a course of chemotherapy. During this time of nadir, which assessment finding may the nurse encounter?
a)
Hypokalemia.
b)
Elevated platelets.
c)
Elevated serum creatinine level.
d)
Decreased absolute neutrophil count (ANC).
e)
-
18.
A client is admitted with complaints of general fatigue and episodes of syncope. The client's spouse states that the client snores loudly at night and often stops breathing for prolonged periods. The nurse assesses the sleeping client and documents heavy snoring with periods of apnea lasting up to 30 seconds. The nurse reports these assessment findings in multidisciplinary client care rounds and the physician requests a consultation with a specialist for evaluation of possible severe sleep apnea. The collaborative client care effort by the multidisciplinary team resulted in:
a)
A diagnosis of sleep apnea.
b)
A consultation for further evaluation.
c)
The nurse acting as a client advocate.
d)
Delegation.
e)
-
19.
The physician is about to remove a chest tube. Which client instruction is appropriate?
a)
Take a deep breath, exhale, and bear down
b)
Hold the breath for 2 minutes and exhale slowly
c)
Exhale upon actual removal of the tube
d)
Continually breathe deeply in and out during removal
e)
-
20.
A nurse notices soiled linen in the trash receptacle instead of in the soiled linen receptacle in a client's room. The nurse first puts on gloves and then carefully separates the soiled linen from the trash and places it in the soiled linen receptacle to be cleaned by the facility's laundry. This action by the nurse is an example of which principle of client care management?
a)
Resource management.
b)
Case management.
c)
Time management.
d)
Priorities management.
e)
-
21.
An hour after I.V. furosemide (Lasix) is administered to a patient with heart failure, a short burst of ventricular tachycardia appears on the cardiac monitor. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse suspect?
a)
Hypocalcemia
b)
Hypermagnesemia
c)
Hypokalemia
d)
Hypernatremia
e)
-
22.
A client comes to the emergency department with sudden onset of shortness of breath. The client's condition deteriorates quickly. The physician suspects a pulmonary embolism. The nurse can expect the physician to order which test?
a)
Chest x-ray.
b)
Ultrasound of chest.
c)
Pulmonary function tests.
d)
Ventilation perfusion (VQ) scan.
e)
-
23.
What is the main source of energy in the diet?
a)
Fats.
b)
Water.
c)
Carbohydrates.
d)
Minerals.
e)
-
24.
The nurse cares for a client with chronic kidney disease. The client has an arteriovenous fistula that is being used for dialysis. As part of the assessment, the nurse should:
a)
Listen for a bruit and palpate for a thrill over the fistula.
b)
Measure urine output.
c)
Observe for signs of edema.
d)
Monitor creatinine level.
e)
-
25.
What is the definition of informed consent? Choose the best answer.
a)
Informed consent is obtained by the client reading the surgical/invasive procedure consent form.
b)
Informed consent is voluntary consent to an invasive procedure given by the client after careful consideration of all information related to the procedure and the client's condition.
c)
Informed consent can be given by a client who is sedated or mentally not competent to make decisions.
d)
Informed consent must be given by a client prior to an invasive procedure for a life-threatening condition requiring emergent treatment.
e)
-
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