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Quiz Week 1-3 Block FMS I

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An abnormal chromosome with two identical arms is called

a)

Paracentric Inversion

b)

Reciprocal Translocation

c)

Isochromosome

d)

Dicentric chromosome

e)

Pericentric Inversion

2.

Meiotic error in human oogenesis (the process of producing the female gametes) may cause following conditions except:

a)

XYY

b)

Trisomy 18

c)

XXY

d)

Trisomy 13

e)

XXX

3.

β-thalassemia case common in South East Asia is often due to a point mutation E26K in the β-globin gene. This mutation results in a β-globin protein that ______

a)

Contains lysine at position 26 instead of glutamate (glutamic acid)

b)

Contains aspartate (aspartic acid) at position 26 instead of lysine

c)

Cannot be synthesized (no β-globin protein at all)

d)

Is only 26 amino acids long with lysine as the last amino acid

e)

Contains lysine at position 26 instead of aspartate (aspartic acid)

4.

Individuals with CYP2D6*4 allele are considered poor metabolizer for the cancer drug Tamoxifen. These allelic variants lead to:

a)

Inactive CYP2D6 enzymes

b)

Reduced drug dose

c)

Increased risk of side-effect

d)

A and B

e)

A, B and C

5.

Daughter strands in a replication are always made of one strand of old DNA and one newly synthesized complementary strand. This nature of DNA replication is referred as

a)

Discontinuous

b)

Semiconservative

c)

Antiparallel

d)

Conservative

e)

Dispersive

6.

In Gene Therapy, viral vectors are generally preferred over non-viral vectors because viral vectors:

a)

Can only carry RNA

b)

Can be engineered to target specific types of cells

c)

Are pathogenic

d)

Are expensive

e)

Can induce immune response

7.

Coli cells grown on 15N medium are transferred to 14N medium and allowed to grow for two more generations (two rounds of DNA replication). DNA extracted from these cells is centrifuged. What density distribution of DNA would you expect in this experiment?

a)

One low-density and one intermediate-density band

b)

One high-density and one low-density band

c)

One intermediate-density band

d)

One low-density band

e)

One high-density and one intermediate-density band

8.

Consider this sequence A-B-C-D-E-O-F-G-H, to be a DNA sequence where O is the centromere. Which of the following will be a paracentric inversion?

a)

A-B-C-F-G-O-D-E-H

b)

A-B-C-F-G-O-E-D-H

c)

A-B-D-E-O-F-G-H

d)

A-B-C-B-C-D-E-O-F-G-H

e)

A-D-C-B-E-O-F-G-H

9.

Which of the following statement about Endoplasmic Reticulum is CORRECT?

a)

Messenger RNA need to enter rough ER to be translated into proteins

b)

The pH in the ER is lower than the Lysosomes

c)

Smooth and rough ER are separated organelles

d)

Proteins synthesized in the ER can be targeted to mitochondria

e)

Proteins synthesized in the rough ER may have errors

10.

UV radiation can cause DNA damage in form of thymine dimers formation. This DNA damage is usually repaired by the DNA repair mechanism of

a)

MMR

b)

NHEJ

c)

BER

d)

HDR

e)

NER

11.

Gene expression can be suppressed (“knocked out” or “switched off”) by introducing an antisense RNA or a double stranded RNA (dsRNA) of the corresponding gene into the cells. This method is called _______

a)

Genome editing

b)

RNAi (RNA interference)

c)

Alternative splicing

d)

DNA silencing

e)

CRISPR/Cas9

12.

Choose the answer that has these events of protein synthesis (translation) in the proper sequence.

  1. An aminoacyl-tRNA binds to the A site

  2. A peptide bond forms between the new amino acid and a polypeptide chain

  3. tRNA leaves th P site, and the P site remains vacant

  4. A small ribosomal subunit binds with mRNA

  5. tRNA translocates to the P site

a)

1, 3 , 2, 4, 5

b)

2, 4, 5, 1, 3

c)

4, 1, 2, 5, 3

d)

5, 4, 3, 2, 1

e)

4,1,3,2,5

13.

Gram positive bacteria differs from Gram negative bacteria in which of the following

a)

The presence of plasma membrane

b)

The presence of large periplasmic space

c)

The absence of cell wall

d)

The absence of DNA

e)

The presence of teichoic acid

14.

Which of the following statements about Cell is FALSE?

a)

Different cells use different genetic code

b)

All cells need energy to operate

c)

Proteins control the activities, functions, and structures in all cells

d)

All cells synthesize proteins by using the ribosome

e)

All cells store information in genes in the form of D

15.

Cellular adaptation that occurs due to an increase in workload that results in an increase in the number of cells is

a)

Metaplasia

b)

Atrophy

c)

Hypertrophy

d)

Dysplasia

e)

Hyperplasia

16.

Chimerism is the result of

a)

Double fertilization

b)

Sex-linked Recombination

c)

Chromosomal Deletion

d)

Non-Disjunction in Mitosis

e)

Non-Disjunction in Meiosis I

17.

The regions of a gene located at -10 and -35, with respect to the start of transcription, are termed

a)

Origin of replication (ori)

b)

Promoters

c)

Enhancer sequences

d)

Start codons

e)

Terminator

18.

The process called _______________ is thought to be one of mechanisms allowing human cells to produce more proteins from only one single gene.

a)

RNA silencing

b)

Alternative splicing

c)

RNAi (RNA interference)

d)

Silence mutation

e)

Genome editing

19.

In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until

a)

DNA nucleases have isolated the transcription unit

b)

Several transcription factors have bound to the promoter

c)

The DNA introns are removed from the template

d)

The two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter

e)

The 5' caps are removed from the mRNA

20.

Autophagy includes all the following except

a)

Secretory Vesicle formation

b)

Degradation of unneeded Peroxisome

c)

Degradation in Lysosome

d)

Vesicle breakdown

e)

Vesicle elongation

21.

The body's natural process for removal of the body's dead and non-functioning cells is

a)

Inflammation

b)

Necrosis

c)

Apoptosis

d)

Chaperone mediated degradation

e)

Fatty acid change

22.

Which of the following best describes the flow of information in eukaryotic cells?

a)

RNA → proteins → DNA

b)

proteins → DNA → RNA

c)

DNA → RNA → proteins

d)

RNA → DNA → proteins

e)

DNA → proteins → RNA

23.

The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is

a)

Complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA

b)

Changeable, depending on the amino acid that attaches to the tRNA

c)

Catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme

d)

Complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon

e)

The part of tRNA that bonds to a specific amino acid

24.

When two or more genes are responsible for a single phenotype, this is called:

a)

Polydactyly

b)

Polyploidy

c)

Polygenic inheritance

d)

Pleiotropy

e)

Epistasis

25.

In Mendel’s experiment with the pea plants, which trait was observed in the F1 generation?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Recessive

c)

Dominant

d)

Co-dominant

e)

Incomplete recessive

26.

Nuclear pore allows the movement of

a)

Ion and protein

b)

RNA

c)

Ion, protein and RNA

d)

Protein

e)

Ion

27.

Secretory cells that release relatively large quantities of glycoproteins contain relatively large amounts of which of the following?

a)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus

c)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, Mitochondria

d)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, Mitochondria

e)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus

28.

Which of the following statement about Lysosomes is FALSE?

a)

Lysosomes degrade molecules coming from exocytosis

b)

Proton pump on Lysosomal membrane require ATP

c)

The internal acidic environment of lysosomes requires proton pump

d)

Lysosomal enzymes degrade a wide variety of molecules

e)

Lysosomes can fuse with plasma membrane

29.

The cytoskeleton includes all the following except

a)

Lamin

b)

Myosin

c)

Actin

d)

Tubulin

e)

Vimentin

30.

The following pedigree is characteristic for a disease which is inherited in____________ manner

a)

X-linked recessive

b)

Y-linked dominant

c)

X-linked dominant

d)

Autosomal recessive

e)

Autosomal dominant

31.

In eukaryotic cell, the following structure consists of double membrane

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Ribosome

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

e)

Nuclear Envelope

32.

Lysosomal Storage Diseases are the result of

a)

Defective Ion Transporter

b)

Defective Lysosomal Enzyme

c)

Defective Glycosylation in Golgi Apparatus

d)

A, B

e)

A, B and C

33.

In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around

a)

A thymine dimer

b)

Satellite DNA

c)

Histones

d)

Polymerase molecules

e)

Ribosomes

34.

Individuals with the following karyotype will most likely

a)

Have cleft palate

b)

Sterile

c)

Not survive

d)

Mentally retarded

e)

Taller than average

35.

A cross between two individuals results in a ratio of 9:3:3:1 for four possible phenotypes. This is an example of

a)

Monohybrid cross

b)

Dihybrid cross

c)

Trihybrid cross

d)

Test cross

e)

None of the above

36.

Interaction between enhancer sequence and an activator in a regulation of gene expression is an example of

a)

DNA-DNA interaction

b)

Protein-protein interaction

c)

RNA-protein interaction

d)

DNA-RNA interaction

e)

DNA-protein interaction

37.

You would expect an individual with a tetrasomy to have ___________ chromosomes

a)

46

b)

47

c)

45

d)

48

e)

69

38.

Enlargement of skeletal muscle with exercise is an example of

a)

Atrophy

b)

Hypertrophy

c)

Hyperplasia

d)

Dysplasia

e)

Metaplasia

39.

White blood cells engulf foreign material by using the process of

a)

Receptor-mediated endocytosis.

b)

Phagocytosis

c)

Regulated secretion

d)

Pinocytosis

e)

Constitutive secretion

40.

Which of the following help(s) to stabilize mRNA by inhibiting its degradation?

a)

Spliceosomes

b)

5' cap and poly (A) tail

c)

Introns

d)

RNA polymerase

e)

TATA box

41.

In the Ubiquitin Proteasome Pathway, Ubiquitin acts as

a)

Protease Complex

b)

Chaperone for Protein Folding

c)

Conjugating Enzyme for cellular protein

d)

Activating Enzyme for degradation

e)

Marker for cellular protein targeted for degradation

42.

In analyzing the number of different bases in a DNA sample, which result would be consistent with the base-pairing rules?

a)

G = T

b)

A = C

c)

A + G = C + T

d)

A = G

e)

A + T = G + T

43.

Which of the following statements is not correct about Apoptosis?

a)

Activation through extracellular signals

b)

Activation through intracellular signals

c)

Activation of Caspase Cascade

d)

Induces nucleus condensation

e)

Induces inflammatory response

44.

The following statements for SNP are correct, except:

a)

Present in <1% of study population

b)

Detected in non-coding region

c)

Occur when a single base is altered

d)

Detected in coding region

e)

May have effect on drug transport

45.

Marfan syndrome is a human genetic disorder affecting the connective tissues, caused by mutations of the fibrillin-1 (FBN1) gene. This disease commonly affects the eyes, heart, blood vessels, and skeleton. This is an example of:

a)

Polyploidy

b)

Polygenic inheritance

c)

Pleiotropy

d)

Polydactyly

e)

Epistasis

46.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about Necrosis?

a)

It results in fragmentation of the cell

b)

No loss of membrane integrity

c)

No inflammatory response

d)

Pre-lytic DNA fragmentation

e)

It affects groups of cells

47.

After fertilization, the resulting zygote begins to divide by

a)

Synapsis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Mitosis

d)

Binary fission

e)

Autophagocytosis

48.

The following pedigree is an example of

a)

X-Linked Recessive

b)

Autosomal Recessive

c)

X-Linked Dominant

d)

Mitochondrial Inheritance

e)

Autosomal Dominant

49.

Which of the following is not true of RNA processing?

a)

snRNP and snRNA may function in RNA splicing

b)

Nucleotides may be added at both ends of the RNA

c)

Exons are cut out before mRNA leaves the nucleus

d)

A primary transcript is often much longer than the final RNA molecule that leaves the nucleus

e)

RNA splicing can be catalyzed by spliceosomes

50.

Which of the following is not true of RNA processing?

a)

snRNP and may function in RNA splicing

b)

Nucleotides may be added at both ends of the RNA

c)

Exons are cut out before mRNA leaves the nucleus

d)

A primary transcript is often much longer than the final RNA molecule that leaves the nucleus

e)

RNA spilicing can be catalyzed by spliceosomes