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Module 4 Review-EMT II

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:

a)

the way in which traumatic injuries occur

b)

a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries

c)

your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries

d)

the detection of less obvious life threatening injuries

2.

When assessing the interior of a crashed motor vehicle for damage, you are gathering information regarding the:

a)

index of suspicion

b)

mechanism of injury

c)

kinetic energy

d)

potential energy

3.

Force acting over a distance is the definition of:

a)

work

b)

latent energy

c)

kinetic energy

d)

potential energy

4.

The energy of a moving object is called:

a)

latent energy

b)

kinetic energy

c)

potential energy

d)

converted energy

5.

When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy:

a)

doubles

b)

triples

c)

quadruples

d)

is not affected

6.

If one or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the EMT should:

a)

suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma.

b)

transport the survivors only if they have injuries or complain of pain

c)

allow the survivors to refuse transport if they have no obvious injuries

d)

rapidly assess only the survivors who have experienced obvious trauma.

7.

Airbags are designed to:

a)

prevent a second collision inside the car

b)

be used with or without a shoulder harness.

c)

decrease the severity of deceleration injuries.

d)

prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma.

8.

Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the EMT to:

a)

determine the vehicle’s speed at the time of impact.

b)

assess the severity of the third collision of the crash.

c)

recognize if the driver hit the brakes before impact.

d)

identify contact points and predict potential injuries.

9.

A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she:

a)

is wearing only a lap belt.

b)

remains within the vehicle.

c)

experiences multiple impacts

d)

is ejected or partially ejected.

10.

Factors that should be considered when assessing a patient who has fallen include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a)

the speed of the fall.

b)

the surface struck.

c)

the height of the fall.

d)

the primary impact point.

11.

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that:

a)

osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position.

b)

any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma.

c)

elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury

d)

bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls.

12.

The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as:

a)

captivation

b)

cavitation

c)

congruent

d)

conversion

13.

When treating a patient who experienced a pulmonary blast injury, you should:

a)

use a demand valve to ventilate the patient.

b)

suspect an accompanying cardiac tamponade

c)

avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure

d)

administer large amounts of intravenous fluid

14.

Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma?

a)

Intravenous fluid administration

b)

Early administration of oxygen

c)

Elevation of the lower extremities

d)

Rapid transport to a trauma center

15.

In contrast to a Level III trauma center, a Level I trauma center must:

a)

be involved in trauma prevention programs

b)

have general surgeons in-house 24 hours a day.

c)

have access to an emergency physician within 30 minutes.

d)

be able to stabilize patients before transferring to a higher level facility.

16.

Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma?

a)

Dismounted seats

b)

Steering wheel collapse

c)

Intrusion into the vehicle

d)

Deployment of the airbag

17.

Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a motor vehicle crash?

a)

Collapsed dashboard

b)

Deformed steering wheel

c)

Caved-in passenger door

d)

Intrathoracic hemorrhage

18.

Internal injuries caused by gunshot wounds are difficult to predict because:

a)

the caliber of the bullet is frequently unknown

b)

the area of damage is usually smaller than the bullet

c)

the bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body

d)

exit wounds caused by the bullet are usually small.

19.

Signs of a pulmonary blast injury include:

a)

vomiting blood

b)

coughing up blood

c)

an irregular pulse

d)

multiple rib fractures

20.

According to the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma (ACS-COT), an adult trauma patient should be transported to the highest level of trauma center if he or she:

a)

was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed

b)

has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min

c)

has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury

d)

has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma

21.

Shock is the result of:

a)

hypoperfusion to the cells of the body

b)

the body’s maintenance of homeostasis

c)

temporary dysfunction of a major organ

d)

widespread constriction of the blood vessels

22.

Capillary sphincters are:

a)

under complete control of the voluntary portion of the nervous system

b)

capable of dilating in order to increase perfusion to crucial body organs

c)

responsible for constricting to compensate for decreased cell perfusion

d)

circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries

23.

One of the primary waste products of normal cellular metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lungs is:

a)

lactic acid

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

pyruvic acid

d)

carbon monoxide

24.

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock?

a)

Liver laceration

b)

Cardiac tamponade

c)

Simple pneumothorax

d)

Spinal cord injury

25.

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock?

a)

Pallor

b)

Dizziness

c)

Wheezing

d)

Hypotension

26.

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of:

a)

plasma

b)

platelets

c)

whole blood

d)

red blood cells

27.

Neurogenic shock occurs when:

a)

failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation

b)

the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging

c)

there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container

d)

massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury

28.

In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by:

a)

hypovolemia

b)

tachycardia

c)

diaphoresis

d)

hypothermia

29.

Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a)

cool and clammy skin

b)

absent peripheral pulses

c)

restlessness or anxiety

d)

rapid, shallow breathing

30.

Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock?

a)

a 20 year old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils

b)

a 23 year old restless male with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia

c)

a 28 year old female with pale skin and rapid, shallow respirations

d)

a 32 year old male with anxiety and a systolic bp of 110 mmHg

31.

Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock?

a)

severe vomiting

b)

liver laceration

c)

excessive sweating

d)

repeated diarrhea

32.

All of the following conditions should make you suspect shock, EXCEPT:

a)

anaphylaxis

b)

spinal injury

c)

severe infection

d)

ischemic stroke

33.

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should:

a)

apply pressure to the brachial artery

b)

apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist

c)

administer high flow O2

d)

wrap the towl with pressure bandages

34.

To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as:

a)

the skin

b)

the heart

c)

the brain

d)

the lungs

35.

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during:

a)

septic shock

b)

neurogenic shock

c)

cardiogenic shock

d)

anaphylactic shock

36.

Cardiogenic shock may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:

a)

heart attack

b)

increased afterload

c)

increased preload

d)

poor contractility

37.

Distributive shock occurs when:

a)

an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function

b)

severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster

c)

temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain

d)

widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds

38.

A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 90/64 mm Hg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing:

a)

septic shock

b)

pump failure

c)

a local infection

d)

decompensated shock

39.

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct?

a)

Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen.

b)

Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure.

c)

Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure

d)

Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.

40.

Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent death from a tension pneumothorax?

a)

early administration of high flow O2

b)

rapid administration of IV fluids

c)

decompression of the injured side of the chest

d)

positive pressure ventilation with a bag valve mask

41.

Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin?

a)

scalp

b)

back

c)

ears

d)

soles of feet

42.

What layer of the skin forms a watertight, protective seal for the body?

a)

dermis

b)

epidermis

c)

muscular layer

d)

subcutaneous layer

43.

All of the following body structures are lined with mucous membranes, except for the:

a)

lips

b)

nose

c)

anus

d)

mouth

44.

Functions of the skin include all of the following, except:

a)

maintenance of water balance

b)

regulation of body temperature

c)

the production of key antibodies

d)

sending information to the brain

45.

A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n):

a)

abrasion

b)

contusion

c)

hematoma

d)

crush injury

46.

A hematoma develops when:

a)

small amounts of blood leak into the epidermis

b)

large blood vessels beneath the skin are damaged

c)

severe swelling compromises arterial circulation

d)

cells and small vessels in the dermis are damaged

47.

When assessing a patient with a closed soft-tissue injury, it is most important to:

a)

manipulate the injury site for signs of a fracture

b)

assess circulation distal to the site of the injury.

c)

remain alert for more severe underlying injuries.

d)

recognize that the integrity of the skin is broken.

48.

An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue, resulting in complete detachment or a flap of skin, is called a(n):

a)

incision

b)

avulsion

c)

laceration

d)

amputation

49.

An abdominal evisceration:

a)

is most commonly the result of blunt force trauma.

b)

should be covered with bulky dry, sterile dressings.

c)

often causes severe hypothermia because of heat loss.

d)

occurs when organs protrude through an open wound.

50.

In addition to severe bleeding, the most life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is:

a)

an air embolism

b)

a spinal fracture

c)

an ischemic stroke

d)

nerve fiber damage

51.

In contrast to animal bites, the bite of a human:

a)

is usually less severe because the human mouth is cleaner.

b)

typically results in a minor infection that is slow-spreading

c)

carries with it a wide variety of virulent bacteria and viruses.

d)

is associated with a much higher incidence of rabies infection

52.

A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a:

a)

full thickness burn

b)

superficial burn

c)

second degree burn

d)

partial thickness burn

53.

A partial-thickness burn involves the outer layer of skin and a portion of the:

a)

epidermis

b)

fatty layer

c)

muscle fascia

d)

dermal layer

54.

Which of the following statements regarding the rule of nines is correct?

a)

A child’s head is equal to 14% of his or her total body surface area

b)

The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the body surface area

c)

The posterior of a child’s leg is equal to 13.5% of the body surface area.

d)

The anterior arm in the adult is equal to 9% of the total body surface area.

55.

When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should:

a)

deactivate the chemical with a 5% vinegar solution

b)

quickly irrigate the arm with large amounts of water

c)

use forceful streams of water to remove the chemical

d)

brush away the chemical before flushing with water

56.

When treating a partial-thickness burn, you should:

a)

immerse the affected part in warm water.

b)

rupture any blisters to prevent an infection.

c)

cover the burn with a moist, sterile dressing.

d)

avoid the use of creams, lotions, or antiseptics.

57.

Functions of dressings and bandages include all of the following, except:

a)

immobilization of the injury

b)

prevention of contamination

c)

protection from further injury

d)

control of external hemorrhage

58.

You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female. During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should:

a)

remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one

b)

carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside

c)

assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed

d)

remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one

59.

In addition to external bleeding, the most significant risk that an open soft-tissue injury exposes a patient to is:

a)

infection

b)

hypothermia

c)

nerve damage

d)

vessel damage

60.

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 35-year-old patient?

a)

Circumferential partial-thickness burn to the chest

b)

Full-thickness burn to 5% of the body surface area

c)

Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the body surface area

d)

Superficial burn covering 50% of the body surface area

61.

Which of the following body systems or components is the least critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body?

a)

an effectively pumping heart

b)

an intact system of blood vessels

c)

adequate blood in the vasculature

d)

the filtering of blood cells in the spleen

62.

Capillaries link the arterioles and the: 

a)

venules

b)

aorta

c)

veins

d)

cells

63.

Hypoperfusion is another name for:

a)

shock

b)

cyanosis

c)

hypoxemia

d)

cellular death

64.

Perfusion is most accurately defined as the:

a)

effective transfer of oxygen from the venules across the systemic capillary membrane walls.

b)

ability of the systemic arteries to constrict as needed to maintain an adequate blood pressure.

c)

effective removal of carbon dioxide and other metabolic waste products from the body’s cells.

d)

circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body’s metabolic needs.

65.

Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for two to three hours?

a)

brain

b)

heart

c)

kidneys

d)

skeletal muscle

66.

An organ or tissue might better resist damage from hypoperfusion if the:

a)

body’s demand for oxygen is markedly increased.

b)

body’s temperature is considerably less than 98.6°F (37.0°C).

c)

systolic arterial blood pressure is at least 60 mm Hg.

d)

heart rate is maintained at more than 100 beats/min

67.

Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ______ of his or her total blood volume.

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

20%

68.

The ability of a person’s cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss is most related to:

a)

his or her baseline blood pressure

b)

the part of the body injured

c)

how rapidly he or she bleeds

d)

how fast his or her heart beats

69.

A fractured femur can result in the loss of ______ or more of blood into the soft tissues of the thigh.

a)

250 mL

b)

500 mL

c)

1 L

d)

2 L

70.

In older patients, the first indicator of nontraumatic internal bleeding might be:

a)

weakness or dizziness

b)

a low blood pressure

c)

diaphoresis and pale skin

d)

a heart rate over 120 beats/min

71.

Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with:

a)

dyspnea

b)

hematuria

c)

hemoptysis

d)

hematemesis

72.

In nontrauma patients, an early indicator of internal bleeding is:

a)

a rapid, thready pulse

b)

rapid, shallow breathing

c)

dizziness upon standing

d)

a decreasing blood pressure

73.

Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by:

a)

elevating the injured extremity

b)

packing the wound with gauze

c)

compressing a pressure point

d)

applying local direct pressure

74.

Which of the following splinting devices would be most appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding?

a)

air splint

b)

vacuum splint

c)

sling and swathe

d)

cardboard splint

75.

Bleeding from the nose following head trauma:

a)

is a sign of a skull fracture and should not be stopped

b)

should be controlled by packing the nostril with gauze.

c)

should be assumed to be caused by a fractured septum.

d)

is usually due to hypertension caused by the head injury

76.

Internal bleeding into a fractured extremity is most often controlled by:

a)

applying a tourniquet

b)

splinting the extremity

c)

keeping the patient warm

d)

applying a chemical ice pack

77.

Hypovolemic shock occurs when:

a)

the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced.

b)

low fluid volume leads to inadequate perfusion.

c)

the patient’s systolic BP is less than 100 mm Hg.

d)

at least 10% of the patient’s blood volume is lost.

78.

The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, except:

a)

systolic blood pressure

b)

poor general appearance

c)

the mechanism of injury

d)

clinical signs and symptoms

79.

External bleeding from a vein is relatively easy to control because:

a)

veins carry deoxygenated blood

b)

veins hold smaller amounts of blood volume

c)

veins are under a lower pressure

d)

blood typically oozes from a vein

80.

Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include:

a)

bruising only

b)

pain and distention

c)

widespread ecchymosis

d)

significant hypotension