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digital

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to boolean law A+1

(a)  

2.

Which of the following is true about the hexadecimal system?

a)

It uses digits from 0 to 9 and letters A to F.

b)

It only uses digits from 0 to 9.

c)

It is used only in mathematical calculations.

d)

It is a base 10 system.

3.

What is the value of 1011 in hexadecimal?

a)

B

b)

A

c)

C

d)

D

4.

Which code is self-complementing?

a)

Excess-3 code

b)

BCD code

c)

Gray code

d)

ASCII code

5.

Which number system uses the digits 0-7?

a)

Decimal

b)

Binary

c)

Hexadecimal

d)

Octal

6.

What is the BCD (Binary-Coded Decimal) representation of the decimal number 9?

a)

1001

b)

1111

c)

0001

d)

0110

7.

What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 18?

a)

10010

b)

10100

c)

11110

d)

11100

8.

Which of the following is NOT a weighted code?

a)

BCD

b)

Excess-3

c)

2421 code

d)

Gray code

9.

Demorgan's theorem states that

a)

(AB)'=A'+B'

b)

(A+B)'=A'B'

c)

A'+B'=A'B'

d)

(AB)'=A'+B

10.

Which of the following is the base of the Decimal Number System?

a)

10

b)

16

11.

1's complement of 1011101 is

a)

0101110

b)

1001101

c)

0100010

d)

1100101

12.

What is the base of the Octal Number System?

a)

10

b)

16

13.

The hexadecimal representation of binary number (10101101) is:

a)

AD

b)

AE

c)

AC

d)

AF

14.

There are Minterms for 3 variables (a, b, c)

a)

8

b)

6

c)

4

d)

2

15.

Which of the following is a valid ASCII code for the character 'A'?

a)

65

b)

97

c)

32

d)

120

16.

BCD code is

a)

weighted code

b)

non weighted code

c)

binary code

d)

alphanumeric code

17.

How many symbols are used in the Binary Number System?

a)

2

b)

8

c)

10

d)

16

18.

There are ______ cells in a 4 variable K-map

a)

12

b)

16

c)

18

19.

Which numbering system uses numbers and letters as symbols?

a)

decimal

b)

octal

c)

binary

d)

hexadecimal

20.

What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the decimal number 255?

a)

FF

b)

F0

c)

255

d)

00

21.

Which logic gate has the output expression Y = A·B̅?

a)

NOR

b)

NAND

c)

XOR

d)

AND

22.

The output of an AND gate is HIGH when:

a)

Any one input is HIGH

b)

All inputs are HIGH

c)

All inputs are LOW

d)

Any one input is LOW

23.

Which of the following gates has the output always opposite of OR gate?

a)

NAND

b)

NOR

c)

XOR

d)

XNOR

24.

What is the output of an XNOR gate with inputs A=1 and B=1?

a)

1

b)

0

c)

2

d)

-1

25.

Which gate’s output is the complement of the OR gate?

a)

NOR

b)

NAND

c)

XOR

d)

XNOR

26.

Which circuit is used to realize a Boolean function?

a)

Combinational logic circuit

b)

Sequential logic circuit

c)

Analog circuit

d)

Digital-to-analog converter

27.

Which gate is known as a universal gate?

a)

AND

b)

OR

c)

NAND

d)

XOR

28.

The output of an XNOR gate is 1 when:

a)

Inputs are equal

b)

Inputs are unequal

c)

Any one input is 1

d)

All inputs are 0

29.

How many AND gates are required to realize Y = CD + EF + G?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

4

d)

1

30.

Which gate can be used to realize all other gates?

a)

AND

b)

OR

c)

NOR

d)

XOR

31.

What is the purpose of circuit realization in digital electronics?

a)

To design and implement digital circuits

b)

To analyze analog signals

c)

To store data

d)

To perform arithmetic operations

32.

Which gate produces output 1 only when inputs are unequal?

a)

XOR

b)

AND

c)

NOR

d)

XNOR

33.

Which gate is called an “inverter”?

a)

AND

b)

OR

c)

NOT

d)

NOR

34.

The output of an OR gate is 1 when:

a)

All inputs are 0

b)

At least one input is 1

c)

All inputs are 1

d)

None of the above

35.

The output of a NOR gate is HIGH when:

a)

Any one input is HIGH

b)

All inputs are LOW

c)

All inputs are HIGH

d)

Inputs are unequal

36.

What is the output of an OR gate with inputs A = 0 and B = 1?

a)

1

b)

0

c)

2

d)

-1

37.

The output of an AND gate with inputs A = 1, B = 0 is:

a)

0

b)

1

c)

A

d)

B

38.

Which logic gate produces an output of 1 when at least one input is 1?

a)

OR gate

b)

AND gate

c)

NOT gate

d)

NAND gate

39.

What is the function of a decoder?

a)

To encode data

b)

To decode data

c)

To store data

d)

To perform arithmetic operations

40.

Which gate produces a HIGH output only when all inputs are HIGH?

a)

OR

b)

AND

c)

NAND

d)

NOR

41.

What is the function of a decoder?

a)

To encode data

b)

To decode data

c)

To store data

d)

To perform arithmetic operations

42.

Which logic gate produces an output of 1 when inputs are the same?

a)

XOR gate

b)

XNOR gate

c)

AND gate

d)

OR gate

43.

A circuit that selects one input from multiple inputs is called:

a)

Multiplexer

b)

Demultiplexer

c)

Flip-Flop

d)

Encoder

44.

What is a Demultiplexer?

a)

Multiplexer

b)

Encoder

c)

Decoder

45.

What is the output of an XOR gate with inputs A=1 and B=1?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

-1

46.

What is the purpose of a half-adder circuit?

a)

To add two bits

b)

To subtract two bits

c)

To multiply two bits

d)

To divide two bits

47.

What is the purpose of a magnitude comparator?

a)

To compare two binary numbers

b)

To add two binary numbers

c)

To subtract two binary numbers

d)

To multiply two binary numbers

48.

What is the output of a NAND gate with inputs A=1 and B=1?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

Undefined

49.

Which logic gate produces an output of 1 when at least one input is 1?

a)

AND gate

b)

OR gate

c)

NOT gate

50.

What is the function of a full-adder circuit?

a)

To add two bits

b)

To add three bits

c)

To subtract two bits

d)

To multiply two bits

51.

Which gate produces an output that is the opposite of the input?

a)

AND gate

b)

OR gate

c)

NOT gate

d)

XOR gate

52.

Which circuit is used to select one output from multiple outputs?

a)

Multiplexer

b)

Demultiplexer

c)

Encoder

d)

Decoder

53.

Which circuit is used for data compression?

a)

Encoder

b)

Decoder

c)

Multiplexer

d)

Demultiplexer

54.

13. The gate that produces an output that is the logical sum of inputs is:

a)

AND gate

b)

OR gate

c)

NAND gate

d)

XOR gate

55.

Which of the following is a NOT gate?

a)

AND gate

b)

OR gate

c)

NOT gate

d)

XOR gate

56.

What is the output of a NAND gate with inputs A=1 and B=0?

a)

1

b)

0

c)

2

d)

Undefined

57.

Total number of units in a half adder

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

1

58.

Which circuit converts binary data to a coded form?

a)

Encoder

b)

Decoder

c)

Multiplexer

d)

Demultiplexer

59.

In which operation carry is obtained?

a)

subtraction

b)

addition

c)

multiplication

d)

both addition and subtraction

60.

Which logic gate produces an output of 1 only when inputs are different?

a)

AND gate

b)

OR gate

c)

NOT gate

d)

XOR gate

61.

Which circuit is used to route data to one of several output lines?

a)

Multiplexer

b)

Demultiplexer

c)
62.

Full subtractor is used to perform subtraction of:

a)

2 bits

b)

3 bits

c)

4 bits

d)

8 bits

63.

The D flip-flop is also called a:

a)

Delay flip-flop

b)

Data flip-flop

c)

Both a and b

d)

Toggle flip-flop

64.

The basic building block of sequential circuits is:

a)

Logic gate

b)

Decoder

c)

Multiplexer

d)

Flip-Flop

65.

A Master-Slave JK flip-flop is used to avoid:

a)

Propagation delay

b)

Race around condition

c)

Invalid state

d)

Extra clock pulse

66.

The main difference between latch and flip-flop is:

a)

Latch is edge triggered, flip-flop is level triggered

b)

Latch is level triggered, flip-flop is edge triggered

c)

Both are edge triggered

d)

Both are level triggered

67.

Edge-triggered flip-flops change their output:

a)

On the level of the clock signal

b)

On the rising or falling edge of the clock signal

c)

Independent of the clock

d)

None of these

68.

A ripple counter is another name for:

a)

Synchronous counter

b)

Asynchronous counter

c)

Ring counter

d)

Modulo counter

69.

The T flip-flop toggles when:

a)

T = 1

b)

T = 0

c)

T = don't care

d)

None of these

70.

A 4-bit binary counter has a maximum count of:

a)

8

b)

10

c)

15

d)

16

71.

Which counter counts in both forward and reverse directions?

a)

Ring counter

b)

Up counter

c)

Down counter

d)

Up/Down counter

72.

A flip-flop is mainly used for:

a)

Addition

b)

Multiplication

c)

Division

d)

Storage of 1 bit of data

73.

Which flip-flop is called a "toggle flip-flop"?

a)

SR

b)

JK

74.

A flip-flop is a .

a)

Combinational circuit

b)

Sequential circuit

c)

Arithmetic circuit

d)

None of these

75.

Which flip-flop eliminates the invalid state of SR flip-flop?

a)

D flip-flop

b)

T flip-flop

c)

JK flip-flop

d)

Master-Slave flip-flop

76.

The main disadvantage of ripple counters is:

a)

High power consumption

b)

Large propagation delay

c)

More number of flip-flops required

d)

Complex design

77.

A 3-bit binary up counter counts from:

a)

0 to 3

b)

0 to 7

c)

1 to 8

d)

0 to 15

78.

In an SR flip-flop, the output is invalid when:

a)

S=0, R=0

b)

S=0, R=1

c)

S=1, R=0

d)

S=1, R=1

79.

A counter is basically a:

a)

Combinational circuit

b)

Sequential circuit

c)

Adder circuit

d)

Decoder circuit

80.

Which flip-flop is known as the "basic memory element"?

a)

SR flip-flop

b)

JK flip-flop

c)

T flip-flop

d)

D flip-flop

81.

Which counter is faster in operation?

a)

Asynchronous counter

b)

Synchronous counter

c)

Ring counter

d)

Johnson counter

82.

A decade counter counts up to:

a)

10

b)

16

83.

The full form of EEPROM is:

a)

Erasable Electrically Programmable ROMs

b)

Electrically Erasable Programmable ROMs

c)

Electrically Erasable Programming ROMs

d)

Electrically Erasable Programmed ROMs

84.

Which of the following best describes EPROMs?

a)

EPROMs can be erased by shorting all inputs to the ground

b)

EPROMs can be erased electrically

c)

EPROMs can be programmed only once

d)

EPROMs can be erased by UV

85.

How many types of RAMs are?

a)

2 (Static RAM and Dynamic RAM)

b)

3 (Static RAM, Dynamic RAM, and Flash RAM)

c)

4 (Static RAM, Dynamic RAM, Flash RAM, and ROM)

d)

1 (Only Dynamic RAM)

86.

Static RAM employs

a)

BJT or UJT

b)

FET or JFET

c)

Capacitor or BJT

d)

BJT or MOS

87.

Which one of the following is volatile in nature?

a)

ROM

b)

EROM

c)

PROM

d)

RAM

88.

Computers invariably use RAM for

a)

High complexity

b)

High resolution

c)

High speed main memory

d)

High flexi

89.

PROM was introduced for which of the following reasons?

a)

To allow users to program memory after manufacturing

b)

To increase the speed of processors

c)

To reduce the size of computers

d)

To improve display quality

90.

The major disadvantage of RAM is?

a)

Its access speed is too slow

b)

Its matrix size is too big

c)

It is volatile

d)

High power consumption

91.

Dynamic RAM employs

a)

Capacitor or MOSFET

b)

FET or JFET

c)

Capacitor or BJT

d)

BJT AND MOS

92.

The advantages of RAMs are

a)

Non destructive read out

b)

Fast operating speed

c)

Low power dissipation

d)

All of the Mentioned

93.

Select the type of RAM that is volatile in nature.

a)

DRAM

b)

ROM

c)

Flash Memory

d)

EEPROM

94.

Which of the following is a type of memory?

a)

SRAM

b)

DRAM

c)

EEPROM

d)

Both SRAM and DRAM

95.

What does the term “random access” mean in terms of memory?

a)

Any address can be accessed in systematic order

b)

Any address can be accessed in any order

c)

Addresses must be accessed in a specific order

d)

Any address can be accessed in reverse order

96.

Which characteristic of RAM memory makes it not suitable for permanent storage?

a)

Unreliable

b)

Too slow

c)

Too bulky

d)

It is volatile

97.

Which of the following best describes the fusible-link PROM?

a)

Manufacturer-programmable, reprogrammable

b)

Manufacturer-programmable, one-time programmable

98.

Catch memory acts between

a)

RAM and ROM

b)

CPU and HARDDISK

c)

CPU and RAM

d)

CPU and ROM

99.

PROM is programmed by

a)

EPROM programmer

b)

EEPROM programmer

c)

PROM programmer

d)

ROM programmer

100.

Which of the following is programmed electrically by the user?

a)

ROM

b)

PROM

c)

EPROM

d)

EEPROM

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