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Foundry and Casting Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The most used material for patterns in sand casting is:

a)

Wax

b)

Metal

c)

Plastic

d)

Wood

2.

A pattern is used in foundry for:

a)

Pouring molten metal

b)

Making mould cavity

c)

Cooling the casting

d)

Strengthening the sand

3.

The allowance given to a pattern for metal contraction during cooling is:

a)

Draft allowance

b)

Machining allowance

c)

Shrinkage allowance

d)

Rapping allowance

4.

The box used to hold the moulding sand is called:

a)

Hopper

b)

Cope and drag

c)

Furnace

d)

Ladle

5.

The tool used for ramming sand in mould is:

a)

Rammer

b)

Strike-off bar

c)

Riddle

d)

Trowel

6.

The property of moulding sand that allows gases to pass through is:

a)

Cohesiveness

b)

Permeability

c)

Adhesiveness

d)

Collapsibility

7.

The function of a core in moulding is to:

a)

Provide internal cavities

b)

Provide external shape

c)

Support the mould box

d)

Increase cooling rate

8.

Non-ferrous metals such as aluminum are melted in:

a)

Cupola furnace

b)

Blast furnace

c)

Crucible furnace

d)

Open hearth furnace

9.

In a crucible furnace, metal is melted in:

a)

Crucible pot

b)

Hearth

c)

Lining

d)

Chamber

10.

The energy source for an electric arc furnace is:

a)

Coal

b)

Oil

c)

Gas

d)

Electricity

11.

Casting is a process of:

a)

Forging metal

b)

Rolling metal sheets

c)

Pouring molten metal into a mould and solidifying

d)

Welding two parts

12.

Green sand in sand casting means:

a)

Sand with moisture

b)

Sand of green color

c)

Dry sand mixed with clay

d)

Sand with chemicals

13.

In gravity die casting, molten metal enters the mould:

a)

By suction

b)

By pressure

c)

By centrifugal force

d)

By gravity alone

14.

Pressure die casting is used for:

a)

Large castings

b)

Open mould castings

c)

Small, precise castings

d)

Sand moulds

15.

In hot chamber die casting, the metal is:

a)

Melted inside the casting machine

b)

Brought from outside furnace

c)

Heated by centrifugal force

d)

Cooled quickly

16.

The casting process best suited for hollow cylindrical parts is:

a)

Die casting

b)

Centrifugal casting

c)

Continuous casting

d)

Sand casting

17.

In centrifugal casting, the driving force is:

a)

Pressure

b)

Gravity

c)

Centrifugal force

d)

Suction

18.

A major advantage of continuous casting is:

a)

Better machining allowance

b)

No mould needed

c)

No heat required

d)

Continuous production without ingots

19.

Cold shut occurs when:

a)

Two streams of molten metal do not fuse properly

b)

Sand particles mix with metal

c)

Metal cools too slowly

d)

Mould is not preheated

20.

Welding is a process of:

a)

Joining two metals by mechanical fastening

b)

Joining two metals by fusion with or without filler

c)

Cutting metals into pieces

d)

Casting metals into moulds

21.

Arc welding uses heat generated by:

a)

Chemical reaction

b)

Gas combustion

c)

Electric arc between electrode and workpiece

d)

Frictional heat

22.

The power source used in arc welding can be:

a)

Transformer

b)

Battery

c)

Engine

d)

Inverter

23.

The flux covering on electrodes in arc welding mainly provides:

a)

Mechanical strength

b)

Electrical insulation

c)

Cooling effect

d)

Arc stability and shielding gas

24.

The most commonly used arc welding method in industries is:

a)

Carbon arc welding

b)

Metal arc welding

c)

Gas welding

d)

Friction welding

25.

In MIG welding, the term MIG stands for:

a)

Metal Inert Gas

b)

Metal Internal Gas

c)

Mechanical Inert Gas

d)

Molten Inert Graphite

26.

The shielding gas used in TIG welding is commonly:

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Argon

27.

TIG welding gives:

a)

Excellent quality, precision welds

b)

High welding speed, less control

c)

Poor weld quality

d)

Welding only for cast iron

28.

The reducing (carburizing) flame in gas welding is used for:

a)

Stainless steel

b)

Aluminum and nickel

c)

Cutting

d)

Cast iron

29.

The neutral flame in oxy-acetylene welding is best suited for:

a)

Cast iron and mild steel

b)

Brass and bronze

c)

Cutting operations

d)

Plastics

30.

Spot welding is preferred for sheet metals because:

a)

It requires no filler metal

b)

It needs less operator skill

c)

It gives localized joints quickly

d)

It uses less power

31.

Seam welding is widely used in fuel tanks and drums because:

a)

It requires no electrodes

b)

It saves more material

c)

It is cheaper than spot welding

d)

It provides leak-proof continuous welds

32.

Soldering is weaker than brazing because:

a)

It uses cheaper electrodes

b)

Solder has low melting point and strength

c)

It requires high temperature

d)

It is performed in vacuum

33.

Destructive tests are avoided in production because:

a)

The specimen is damaged permanently

b)

They take more time

c)

They are inaccurate

d)

They use expensive machines

34.

Radiography is useful for detecting:

a)

External porosity only

b)

Hardness variation

c)

Internal defects like voids and blowholes

d)

Surface roughness

35.

Slag inclusion defects can be avoided by:

a)

Using smaller electrodes

b)

Cleaning each weld pass properly

c)

Applying more current

d)

Using less flux

36.

Arc eye or eye injuries in welding occur mainly because:

a)

Dust enters the eye

b)

Sparks hit the face

c)

Helmet is too heavy

d)

UV rays from arc damage the retina

37.

Heat in resistance welding is produced due to:

a)

Electrical resistance

b)

Chemical reaction

c)

Friction

d)

Magnetic induction

38.

Electrodes used in resistance welding are usually made of:

a)

Steel

b)

Copper alloys

c)

Aluminum

d)

Cast iron

39.

Hard facing is used to:

a)

Improve wear resistance

b)

Reduce hardness

c)

Reduce welding current

d)

Save electrodes

40.

Hot working is generally done:

a)

Below recrystallization temperature

b)

At room temperature

c)

Below 0°C

d)

Above recrystallization temperature

41.

Hot working improves:

a)

Machinability

b)

Thermal conductivity

c)

Ductility and toughness

d)

Electrical resistance

42.

The process of reducing thickness of metal by passing between rolls is:

a)

Forging

b)

Rolling

c)

Extrusion

d)

Drawing

43.

Hot working removes:

a)

Blow holes and porosity

b)

Surface cracks

c)

Rust only

d)

Scale only

44.

The forging operation that increases length and reduces cross-section is:

a)

Drawing out

b)

Upsetting

c)

Piercing

d)

Bending

45.

Press forging gives better dimensional accuracy than hammer forging because:

a)

It uses dies with no impact load

b)

It requires less heating

c)

It applies slow, continuous pressure

d)

It uses lighter machines

46.

Upset forging is widely used in bolt head making because:

a)

It increases diameter by shortening the length

b)

It reduces diameter by lengthening the section

c)

It improves toughness by slow cooling rate

d)

It enhances ductility without

47.

Press forging ensures better accuracy than hammer forging since:

a)

It applies slow continuous pressure on the work

b)

It strikes repeated high-speed blows on metal

c)

It heats the work uniformly in small furnaces

d)

It allows rolling action between two shaped dies

48.

Roll forging is mostly used for axles and rods because:

a)

The hammer blows distribute heat uniformly

b)

The dies are kept open to allow free expansion

c)

The operation is carried out at room temperature

d)

The shaped rolls gradually reduce cross-section

49.

Forged components are stronger than castings due to:

a)

The melting process reduces internal porosity

b)

The cooling rate makes grains finer and harder

c)

The grain flow follows the overall shape of part

d)

The machining removes defects from the surface

50.

A press in which power is transmitted by a crankshaft is called:

a)

Mechanical press

b)

Hydraulic press

c)

Pneumatic press

d)

Screw press

51.

The press working operation used to bend sheet into angles is:

a)

Curling

b)

Drawing

c)

Angle bending

d)

Shearing

52.

The operation in which the edge of the sheet is rolled into a circle is known as:

a)

Notching

b)

Piercing

c)

Shaving

d)

Curling

53.

The operation in which a desired shape is completely cut from the sheet is called:

a)

Piercing

b)

Blanking

c)

Notching

d)

Trimming

54.

The operation in which holes are punched without removing material is:

a)

Lancing

b)

Shaving

c)

Trimming

d)

Curling

55.

A mechanical press is more suitable for blanking because:

a)

It applies uniform pressure throughout stroke

b)

It reduces burrs on pierced holes

c)

It delivers high-speed strokes for cutting

d)

It requires less heating of the sheet

56.

A hydraulic press is preferred for deep drawing because:

a)

It consumes less power in shearing

b)

It provides steady pressure during stroke

c)

It avoids springback during bending

d)

It works at higher speed than mechanical press

57.

Angle bending is mainly used to:

a)

Form simple L or V shapes in sheets

b)

Avoid cracks during trimming

c)

Reduce thickness of sheet edges

d)

Remove burrs after piercing holes

58.

Curling operation is carried out to:

a)

Improve tensile strength of sheets

b)

Eliminate sharp sheet edges by rolling

c)

Increase sheet hardness by pressing

d)

Avoid cracks during lancing process

59.

Blanking and piercing differ in that:

a)

In blanking, sheet edges remain scrap; in piercing, edges are product

b)

In blanking, dies are smaller than in piercing

c)

In blanking, more power is needed than piercing

d)

In blanking, the cut part is product; in piercing, the hole is product

60.

First step in powder metallurgy is:

a)

Sintering

b)

Compacting

c)

Powder production

d)

Sizing

61.

In powder metallurgy, which method is most widely used to produce metal powders?

a)

Chemical reduction

b)

Atomization

c)

Electrolysis

d)

Mechanical pulverization

62.

Purpose of sizing is:

a)

Powder production

b)

Improve dimensional accuracy

c)

Mixing particles

d)

Increase powder flow

63.

In atomization, metal powder is produced by:

a)

Reducing metal oxides

b)

Spraying molten metal with gas or water jets

c)

Breaking solid metal

d)

Electroplating

64.

Which of the following produces the highest purity metal powders?

a)

Atomization

b)

Reduction

c)

Electrolysis

d)

Milling

65.

Reduction process involves:

a)

Adding oxygen to oxides

b)

Reducing metal oxides using gases

c)

Melting and pouring

d)

Forging into shape

66.

The product obtained after compaction but before sintering is called:

a)

Finished part

b)

Sintered part

c)

Porous product

d)

Green compact

67.

Which of the following is a typical use for powder metallurgy in the automotive industry?

a)

Brake rotors

b)

Crankshafts

c)

Pistons

d)

Bearings

68.

Self-lubricating parts are made by:

a)

Forging

b)

Extrusion

c)

Powder metallurgy with porosity

d)

Welding

69.

Hot pressing combines:

a)

Melting and atomizing

b)

Compaction and sintering

c)

Electrolysis and infiltration

d)

Milling and forging

70.

Heat treatment is done primarily to:

a)

Melt the metal

b)

Change chemical composition

c)

Improve mechanical properties

d)

Change color

71.

Which property is improved by heat treatment?

a)

Printability

b)

Transparency

c)

Hardness

d)

Gloss

72.

What is the primary purpose of the annealing process in heat treatment?

a)

To increase hardness

b)

To remove internal stresses and soften the material

c)

To change color

d)

To improve gloss

73.

What effect does the normalizing process have on the grain structure of a material?

a)

It refines the grain structure

b)

It coarsens the grain structure

c)

It eliminates grain boundaries

d)

It causes no change in the grain structure

74.

What is the purpose of tempering the steel?

a)

To reduce the brittleness

b)

To remove the ductility

c)

To increase the hardness

d)

To increase the brittleness

75.

The iron-carbon equilibrium diagram shows relationship between:

a)

Oxygen and iron

b)

Iron and carbon

c)

Hydrogen and carbon

d)

Steel and aluminum

76.

Pearlite is a mixture of:

a)

Iron and carbon

b)

Austenite and ferrite

c)

Ferrite and cementite

d)

Graphite and carbide

77.

The eutectoid point occurs at:

a)

1130°C

b)

723°C

c)

912°C

d)

600°C

78.

Which of the following form of iron is magnetic in nature?

a)

α (Alpha)

b)

δ (Beta)

c)

γ (Gamma)

d)

λ (Delta)

79.

Which medium is fastest for quenching?

a)

Air

b)

Water

c)

Oil

d)

Salt bath

80.

Identify the device used to hold irregularly shaped workpieces on a lathe.

a)

Steady rest

b)

Faceplate

c)

Chuck

d)

Mandrel

81.

Which of the following is used to hold a job between centers on a lathe?

a)

Drive plate and carrier

b)

Chuck

c)

Mandrel

d)

Angle plate

82.

Name the device used to support long slender workpieces during turning.

a)

Tailstock

b)

Steady rest

c)

Mandrel

d)

Chuck

83.

The power tool used to tighten or loosen nuts and bolts quickly is:

a)

Circular saw

b)

Impact wrench

c)

Jigsaw

d)

Chainsaw

84.

Why is a steady rest required in lathe operations?

a)

To increase cutting speed

b)

To support long workpieces

c)

To reduce tool wear

d)

To hold small parts

85.

A mandrel is primarily used for:

a)

External turning

b)

Internal grinding

c)

Holding hollow workpieces

d)

Supporting centers

86.

Which device provides precise angular indexing for machining operations?

a)

Tailstock

b)

Drill chuck

c)

Faceplate

d)

Indexing head

87.

Which tool holds small round workpieces with high concentric accuracy?

a)

Four-jaw chuck

b)

Faceplate

c)

Magnetic chuck

d)

Collet

88.

The function of a turret indexing mechanism is to:

a)

Rotate workpiece

b)

Change cutting tools quickly

c)

Hold cutting fluids

d)

Control feed rate

89.

The function of an indexing head is:

a)

To control depth of cut

b)

To rotate the workpiece by a precise angle

c)

To increase spindle speed

d)

To support heavy workpieces

90.

The difference between steady rest and follower rest is:

a)

Steady rest supports near the tool, follower rest moves with tool

b)

Steady rest moves, follower rest fixed

c)

Both are same

d)

None of the above

91.

A catch plate is used with:

a)

Mandrel

b)

Chuck

c)

Steady rest

d)

Vice

92.

Identify the device used for accurate angular positioning of workpiece.

a)

Indexing head

b)

Mandrel

c)

Chuck

d)

Faceplate

93.

The function of a four-way tool post is:

a)

Hold four workpieces

b)

Hold and change tools quickly

c)

Hold centers

d)

Support tailstock

94.

The advantage of using collets over chucks is:

a)

Higher accuracy and speed

b)

Low cost

c)

Heavy-duty work

d)

Manual operation

95.

Select the proper device to machine a long shaft with minimum deflection.

a)

Steady rest

b)

Mandrel

c)

Faceplate

d)

Chuck

96.

Choose the correct tool-holding device for drilling multiple holes at different angles.

a)

Adapter

b)

Turret

c)

Arbor

d)

Collet

97.

If a job must be turned between centers, which setup should be used?

a)

Drive plate + carrier

b)

Chuck only

c)

Mandrel

d)

V-block

98.

To machine a component requiring equal divisions, which device is suitable?

a)

Indexing head

b)

Vice

c)

Mandrel

d)

V-block

99.

In foundry practice, what is the "cope" in a mould?

a)

The lower half of the moulding box

b)

The upper half of the moulding box

c)

The pattern used for casting

d)

The sand used for moulding

100.

Which of the following is a common defect found in casting due to entrapped gas?

a)

Shrinkage cavity

b)

Cold shut

c)

Blow holes / Gas porosity

d)

Sand inclusion