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CompTIA Cloud+ Lesson 12 - Managing Disaster Recovery

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes incremental backups?

a)

They save all data every time regardless of changes.

b)

They save only changes since the last backup and update the archive bit.

c)

They save changes since the last full backup without resetting markers.

d)

They create read-only images mainly for deployment.

2.

Why can restoring from incremental backups take longer than other methods?

a)

Because you need the full backup plus all subsequent incremental backups.

b)

Because the archive bit is never updated.

c)

Because incremental backups include the entire drive each time.

d)

Because they are stored as read-only images.

3.

Differential backups grow larger over the week primarily because they:

a)

reset the archive bit after each run.

b)

do not reset the marker, accumulating all changes since the last full backup.

c)

include the entire operating system each time.

d)

are stored in the cloud by default.

4.

Which backup type usually restores faster than incremental backups because only the full backup and the latest backup of that type are needed?

a)

Differential backups

b)

Incremental backups

c)

Snapshot backups

d)

Archives

5.

What is a snapshot in the context of backups?

a)

A long-term storage method optimized for space and legal retention.

b)

A read-only copy of data at a specific point in time, often used for VMs and services like Active Directory.

c)

A full backup combined with all incrementals.

d)

A method that saves changes since the last full backup and resets markers.

6.

Which scenario is the best use case for archives?

a)

Rapid recovery of frequently changing user files.

b)

Capturing system state for quick OS restore after misconfiguration.

c)

Keeping data for a long time to meet legal or regulatory requirements, optimized for space.

d)

Creating point-in-time images for deploying systems.

7.

Which statement correctly distinguishes archives from backups?

a)

Both are optimized for quick access during restores.

b)

Archives are meant for long-term retention, while backups protect against loss or corruption.

c)

Backups store old data rarely accessed, while archives are used for rapid recovery.

d)

Archives always include entire drives; backups never do.

8.

What do system-state backups primarily copy, and why are they useful?

a)

All user files, enabling complete data restores.

b)

Important operating system settings, allowing quick OS recovery if system files are corrupted or misconfigured.

c)

Entire disks, making them ideal for migrating large datasets.

d)

Only application data, to speed up user file recovery.

9.

Which statement best distinguishes an archive from a backup in IT operations?

a)

An archive is a short-term copy used for rapid disaster recovery; a backup is for long-term retention of inactive data.

b)

An archive preserves data for long-term retention and regulatory or historical needs; a backup creates recoverable copies to restore systems or files after loss or corruption.

c)

Both archives and backups are designed primarily for quick failover of active systems.

d)

Backups eliminate the need for archives by storing only inactive data indefinitely.

10.

A company must keep closed project files for seven years to meet compliance requirements but does not need to restore them quickly if lost. Which strategy is most appropriate?

a)

Daily incremental backups

b)

Full system-state backups

c)

Long-term archiving to durable storage with indexed retrieval

d)

Snapshots on a high-performance SAN for fast rollback

11.

Which backup category specifically requires attention for files used by automation and configuration management tools because losing them could disrupt deployments?

a)

System-state backups

b)

Application-level backups

c)

Configuration file backups

d)

Filesystem backups

12.

Which of the following is an example of an automation configuration file that should be backed up?

a)

Docker container images

b)

Ansible playbooks

c)

Linux kernel binaries

d)

User home directories

13.

Chef items to back up include which pair?

a)

Charts and manifests

b)

Recipes and cookbooks

c)

Roles and bindings

d)

Pipelines and stages

14.

What is a potential drawback of offsite backups compared with onsite backups, according to the material?

a)

They are less secure by design

b)

They cannot be replicated

c)

They can be slower to restore when quick recovery is needed

d)

They do not protect against disasters at the main site

15.

Which option best describes a third-party storage facility for backups?

a)

A secondary drive in the same server rack

b)

A company specializing in securely storing backup media

c)

A consumer-grade external hard drive at an employee’s home

d)

A read-only snapshot stored on the primary server

16.

According to the 3-2-1 backup rule, how many different types of media should be used to store your data copies?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

17.

A common implementation of the 3-2-1 rule keeps two backup sets on-site using different media and one offsite. What is the main advantage of using two different media types on-site?

a)

It eliminates the need for offsite storage

b)

It guarantees zero data loss

c)

It reduces the risk of a storage problem stopping the restore process

d)

It doubles the backup speed

18.

Which option best describes an offsite backup location?

a)

A storage device kept in the same server rack as production systems

b)

A backup stored at a different physical site from the primary systems

c)

A snapshot stored on the same local disk as the application

d)

A temporary cache kept in RAM

19.

The 3-2-1 backup rule recommends which combination?

a)

3 copies of data, on 2 different media, with 1 copy offsite

b)

3 copies of data, on 1 medium, with 2 copies offsite

c)

3 backups per week, 2 copies in the cloud, 1 tape onsite

d)

3 encrypted copies, 2 in RAM, 1 in cache

20.

Which offsite option involves using company-controlled infrastructure at another branch to hold backups?

a)

Remote office location

b)

Third-party storage facility

c)

Cloud storage

d)

Local NAS

21.

Which scenario best fits using a third-party storage facility for backups?

a)

Storing tapes in a vendor’s secure warehouse with environmental controls

b)

Replicating backups between two floors in the same building

c)

Keeping weekly images on the app server’s local SSD

d)

Mirroring data to a developer’s laptop

22.

A startup wants elastic capacity without buying hardware and prefers pay-as-you-go. Which backup location aligns best?

a)

Remote office location

b)

Third-party storage facility

c)

Cloud storage

d)

Onsite tape library

23.

Which risk does the 3-2-1 rule primarily mitigate?

a)

Vendor lock-in from using one cloud provider

b)

Data loss from a single point of failure or site disaster

c)

Inability to meet RPO targets due to slow networks

d)

Excessive costs from over-provisioning hardware

24.

An organization keeps daily backups on local disk, weekly copies on tape sent to a secure vendor, and replicates key datasets to cloud storage. Which statement is most accurate?

a)

This violates the 3-2-1 rule because it uses more than two media types

b)

This follows the 3-2-1 rule because it keeps multiple copies on different media with at least one offsite

c)

This is noncompliant because cloud copies cannot be offsite

d)

This is inadequate because no copies remain onsite

25.

Which backup target is traditionally used for long-term archival due to its low cost per GB and offline capability?

a)

Disk storage

b)

Tape media

c)

Object storage

d)

Primary SSD arrays

26.

Which storage type exposes data via HTTP-based APIs like S3 and is optimized for storing large, unstructured backup data with metadata?

a)

Block storage

b)

File shares (NAS)

c)

Object storage

d)

Tape libraries

27.

Which backup target typically offers the fastest restore times for recent backups kept on-premises?

a)

Cloud cold storage

b)

Tape media

c)

Local disk-based backup repository

d)

Offsite tape vault

28.

For scalable, durable offsite copies with geographic redundancy managed by a provider, which backup target should you choose?

a)

Cloud storage

b)

Standalone DAS disks only

c)

On-premises SAN snapshots

d)

DVD media

29.

A backup administrator needs immutability, lifecycle policies, and integration with deduplication appliances. Which target most directly supports these features natively?

a)

Object storage

b)

Optical media

c)

Local workstation disk

d)

Removable USB flash drives

30.

Which statement best describes tape vs. disk as backup targets?

a)

Tape provides faster random access than disk but costs more per GB

b)

Disk provides faster random access and is well-suited for recent restores; tape is cost-effective for long-term retention

c)

Both have similar access characteristics and costs

d)

Disk is primarily for archives while tape is for instant recovery

31.

Which target is most appropriate for integrating with cloud-native backup workflows and object-lock retention?

a)

SAS-attached HDD JBOD

b)

SMB network share only

c)

S3-compatible object storage

d)

LTO-6 tape cartridge

32.

Which statement best describes why organizations implement a backup schedule?

a)

To permanently delete old data

b)

To ensure regular copies of data are made for recovery and continuity

c)

To reduce the size of user files

d)

To avoid using replication entirely

33.

Which data type most likely requires the most frequent backups in a typical organization?

a)

Archived media files that rarely change

b)

User files that are edited daily

c)

Decommissioned server images

d)

Static operating system binaries that never change

34.

An IT team must decide how often to back up server configuration files versus user documents. Which scheduling choice aligns with best practice based on data change rates?

a)

Back up both once a year regardless of changes

b)

Back up server configurations less frequently than user files because configurations change less often

c)

Back up user files less frequently than configurations because users can recreate files

d)

Do not back up configurations at all if replication exists

35.

A company wants to minimize data loss while balancing storage and time costs. Which approach best applies the concept of backup scheduling?

a)

Set identical hourly backups for all data types

b)

Tailor backup frequency to each data type’s rate of change and business value

c)

Back up only after incidents to save space

d)

Replace backups with server-to-server replication only

36.

Which statement best describes asynchronous replication in a data retention context?

a)

The client receives confirmation only after both primary and secondary have committed the write

b)

Data is first written to the primary; the client is confirmed, and then the data is copied to the secondary

c)

The client writes directly to the secondary to reduce latency

d)

No confirmation is sent to the client until a periodic batch copy completes

37.

In asynchronous replication, what is the primary risk if the primary server fails before the secondary has fully received the data?

a)

Data duplication on the secondary

b)

Client-side corruption of the write request

c)

The client believes the data is safe, but the data can be lost

d)

An automatic rollback will always restore the data

38.

A company needs zero data loss upon primary failure. Based on the material, which replication confirmation behavior should they require?

a)

Confirm the write to the client after the primary commits, then copy to secondary later

b)

Confirm to the client only after both primary and secondary have the write

c)

Confirm only after a daily backup job completes

d)

Confirm to the client immediately upon request receipt without any commit

39.

Which sequence correctly reflects the message flow in asynchronous replication?

a)

Client -> Secondary commit -> Primary confirm -> Client confirm

b)

Client -> Primary commit -> Client confirm -> Copy to Secondary -> Secondary confirm -> Primary confirm

c)

Client -> Primary and Secondary simultaneous commit -> Client confirm

d)

Client -> Primary queue -> Daily batch to Secondary -> Client confirm next day

40.

Which statement best defines data replication in an IT context?

a)

Creating multiple user accounts for a single application

b)

Maintaining one or more copies of data on different systems or locations

c)

Compressing data to reduce storage footprint

d)

Encrypting data during transfer only

41.

What is the primary business goal of implementing data replication?

a)

Improving user interface design

b)

Ensuring business continuity by keeping services and data available during failures

c)

Increasing the size of databases for analytics

d)

Eliminating the need for backups

42.

A company continuously copies virtual machine state and storage to a secondary site so workloads can start there if the primary site fails. This practice is an example of what?

a)

Data masking

b)

Virtual machine replication for business continuity

c)

Database sharding

d)

Cold storage archiving

43.

In synchronous replication, when is a write considered successful?

a)

After data is written only to the primary site

b)

After data is queued for transfer to the secondary site

c)

After data is committed at both primary and secondary sites

d)

Only after an administrator manually verifies the copy

44.

Which trade-off accurately compares synchronous and asynchronous replication?

a)

Synchronous has higher latency but near-zero data loss; asynchronous has lower latency but risks some data loss (RPO > 0)

b)

Synchronous has lower latency and higher data loss; asynchronous has higher latency and zero data loss

c)

Both provide zero data loss and identical latency

d)

Asynchronous requires dedicated dark fiber while synchronous does not

45.

Which scenario best fits asynchronous replication?

a)

A finance system requiring zero data loss across metro sites

b)

A global content service replicating to a distant region over a WAN with acceptable lag

c)

A memory cache mirroring within the same rack for microseconds latency

d)

A system that cannot tolerate any replication delay

46.

Which metric pair is most directly impacted when choosing between synchronous and asynchronous replication?

a)

MTBF and MTTR

b)

RPO and latency (and often RTO)

c)

CPU utilization and RAM usage

d)

User concurrency and throughput

47.

Which statement best defines cloud backup encryption in the context of protecting data?

a)

Turning plaintext data into ciphertext so only authorized parties can read it

b)

Compressing files to reduce storage size during backups

c)

Duplicating data across multiple regions for availability

d)

Scanning backups for malware before storage

48.

What is the primary purpose of in-transit encryption for cloud backups?

a)

To prevent unauthorized access while data moves between client and cloud storage

b)

To reduce the size of data before it is uploaded

c)

To ensure data remains available during outages

d)

To allow public inspection of backup traffic

49.

A company encrypts its backup repository so that if storage media is stolen, the data remains unreadable. Which concept does this illustrate?

a)

In Transit Encryption

b)

At Rest Encryption

c)

Compression

d)

Data Deduplication

50.

Which scenario demonstrates ciphertext?

a)

A readable database export in CSV format

b)

A file scrambled by an encryption algorithm that requires a key to decrypt

c)

An uncompressed backup archive

d)

A checksum value used for integrity only

51.

Which recovery option restores data to the original server without overwriting existing files, allowing comparison between backed-up files and current production versions?

a)

In-place overwrite restore

b)

Side-by-side/parallel restoral

c)

Incremental restore

d)

Bare-metal recovery

52.

What is the primary benefit of performing an alternate location restoral during recovery testing?

a)

It accelerates the production server by deleting old backups

b)

It verifies backups in an isolated location without impacting the live server

c)

It guarantees zero data loss during disasters

d)

It automatically updates all users’ devices

53.

A team wants to validate that last night's backup can be restored while ensuring production data remains unchanged. Which approach best meets this requirement?

a)

Run a full restore directly over the production dataset

b)

Use side-by-side/parallel restoral on the production server

c)

Restore to a test environment via alternate location restoral

d)

Skip restore and only review backup logs

54.

During a quarterly recovery drill, engineers need to compare restored files with the active versions on the production server to check for differences. Which recovery method most directly supports this comparison without overwriting current data?

a)

Alternate location restoral

b)

Side-by-side/parallel restoral

c)

Point-in-time rollback

d)

Cold site failover

55.

Which recovery method focuses on restoring only specific files that a user accidentally deleted or changed, typically to a subfolder in the user’s project directory?

a)

In-Place Restoral

b)

Granular File Restoral

c)

Side-By-Side Restoral

d)

Snapshot Restoral

56.

You need to view a virtual machine exactly as it existed at a specific point in time to troubleshoot an issue. Which option best fits this need?

a)

Alternate Location Restoral

b)

Snapshot Restoral

c)

Granular File Restoral

d)

In-Place Restoral

57.

A team wants to recover a few documents without overwriting current project data. Which approach is most appropriate?

a)

Granular File Restoral

b)

In-Place Restoral

c)

Snapshot Restoral

d)

Side-By-Side Restoral

58.

Which restoral type is best for migrating data between AWS accounts or regions while preserving a consistent point-in-time state?

a)

Granular File Restoral

b)

Side-By-Side Restoral

c)

Snapshot Restoral

d)

Alternate Location Restoral

59.

During a post-incident review, you must compare the current configuration of a service with how it looked last Friday at noon. Which recovery option provides the strongest evidence for this comparison?

a)

In-Place Restoral because it merges current and past states

b)

Snapshot Restoral because it captures an exact point in time

c)

Granular File Restoral because it retrieves single files only

d)

Alternate Location Restoral because it changes the recovery path

60.

Which statement best differentiates Snapshot Restoral from Granular File Restoral?

a)

Snapshots recover only individual files; granular restores entire systems.

b)

Snapshots provide point-in-time recovery for VMs or services; granular targets specific files and versions.

c)

Granular restoral moves data across regions; snapshots only restore locally.

d)

Granular restoral always overwrites existing directories; snapshots always create new ones.

61.

Which statement best defines a hybrid cloud in the context of resource availability?

a)

Using only a private data center managed on-premises

b)

Combining private (your own) and public cloud services

c)

Using two or more public cloud providers

d)

Running workloads exclusively at the network edge

62.

Multi-cloud refers to which of the following configurations?

a)

Mixing edge computing with on-premises servers

b)

Using public cloud resources from two or more providers

c)

Hosting all services in a single public cloud region

d)

Migrating all workloads to a private cloud only

63.

A company’s on‑premises resources hit capacity during a traffic spike. To maintain smooth service, it temporarily moves overflow demand to a public cloud. What practice is this?

a)

Cloud bursting

b)

Edge caching

c)

Cold site failover

d)

Cloud federation

64.

Which scenario best illustrates the benefit of hybrid or multi‑cloud for availability?

a)

Relying on a single data center to reduce complexity

b)

Distributing services across private and public clouds to add flexibility and options

c)

Turning off redundancy to reduce costs

d)

Limiting workloads to one provider and one region

65.

In planning for disaster recovery in the cloud, which documentation element is specifically highlighted as important?

a)

Only user training manuals

b)

Business impact analysis results and playbooks with recovery procedures

c)

Marketing roadmaps

d)

Source code repositories

66.

What do Service Level Agreements (SLAs) primarily define between a cloud provider and a customer?

a)

Programming interfaces and SDK versions

b)

Expected performance and availability, including remedies for outages

c)

Data encryption algorithms to be used

d)

End‑user license terms for software

67.

If a cloud provider experiences an outage under the terms of an SLA, what may they be required to do?

a)

Provide free developer training

b)

Compensate the organization for lost revenue or downtime

c)

Delete all affected customer data

d)

Move all workloads to a different region automatically

68.

Which disaster recovery (DR) site type is fully prepared to continue business operations immediately after a disaster without delay?

a)

Hot site

b)

Warm site

c)

Cold site

d)

Cloud site

69.

What is the most important factor when evaluating a secondary site for disaster recovery?

a)

The cost of office furniture

b)

How quickly the secondary site can restore normal business functions

c)

The distance to the nearest airport

d)

The number of employees at the main site

70.

Which statement best describes a warm site?

a)

It contains no equipment and is essentially an empty building

b)

It has full equipment and can take over immediately

c)

It includes some equipment but requires additional setup, configuration, and data movement

d)

It exists only as a virtual environment

71.

Cold sites primarily provide which of the following?

a)

Immediate failover capability

b)

Physical space without important equipment

c)

Fully configured network devices and servers

d)

Automatic data replication

72.

Why should a DR site be located far from the main site?

a)

To reduce internet costs

b)

To protect the business if a natural disaster or regional issue affects one area

c)

To simplify staffing

d)

To comply with office furniture regulations

73.

Which challenge can arise when placing a DR site in a different country or region?

a)

Fewer data centers available

b)

Lack of physical space

c)

Different country laws, slower data replication, and staffing needs at the remote site

d)

Inability to copy VM configurations

74.

How do cloud service providers (CSPs) support disaster recovery according to the material?

a)

They only rent empty buildings for cold sites

b)

They offer disaster recovery as a service and maintain multiple data centers in different regions

c)

They require customers to transport physical servers to the cloud

d)

They prohibit storing VM configurations