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Marketing Concepts and Social Responsibility MCQs (Transcribed)

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The statement, "Marketing should be introduced at the beginning rather than the end of the production cycle and integrated into each phase of the business," is consistent with a(n) ____ orientation.

a)

production

b)

market

c)

retail

d)

sales

e)

enterprise

2.

The marketing concept includes a goal orientation to remind managers that:

a)

achieving long-term organizational goals is as important as satisfying customers

b)

customers must be satisfied no matter what the long-term effect on the firm

c)

the only reason for any business to exist is to make a profit

d)

the objective is to find a target market that differs from that of the competition

e)

functional integration of all departments is useful but not essential

3.

An organization with a(n) ____ believes that it exists not only to satisfy customer wants and needs and to meet organizational objectives but also to preserve or enhance individuals' and society's long-term best interests.

a)

sales orientation

b)

market orientation

c)

ethical business mission

d)

focused target market strategy

e)

societal orientation

4.

Which of the following statements about the societal orientation is true?

a)

Companies that protect the environment by using all-natural materials in their products are showing a societal marketing orientation.

b)

Marketers cannot deliver all benefits sought by customers because these benefits may not be in the long-term best interests of the customers.

c)

The societal marketing concept is an important refinement of the market concept.

d)

Organizations have both a social and economic justification for their existence.

e)

All of these statements about the societal orientation are true.

5.

____ is defined as the relationship between benefits and the sacrifice necessary to obtain those benefits.

a)

Opportunity cost

b)

Marketing utility

c)

Market quality

d)

Satisfaction percentage

e)

Customer value

6.

When customer expectations regarding product quality, service quality, and value-based price are met or exceeded, ____ is created.

a)

a value line

b)

a quality rift

c)

planning excellence

d)

customer satisfaction

e)

expectation satisfaction

7.

What is the fundamental objective of most businesses?

a)

employee empowerment, teamwork, and relationship marketing

b)

satisfied stakeholders

c)

low costs and high quality

d)

customer loyalty and retention

e)

survival, profits, and growth

8.

Corporate social responsibility is defined as the:

a)

belief that the legal system defines ethical behavior

b)

development of inclusive codes of ethics

c)

rules by which social rewards are attained

d)

concern for social welfare by businesses

e)

coordination of social programs for publicity purposes

9.

Corporate social responsibility:

a)

is mandated by federal law

b)

requires companies to sacrifice economic performance for the sake of their stakeholders

c)

does not influence competition

d)

may not always result in profit and growth

e)

is unaffected by environmental changes

10.

____ is the idea that socially responsible companies will outperform their peers by focusing on the world's social problems and viewing them as opportunities to build profit and help the world at the same time.

a)

Sustainability

b)

Philanthropy

c)

Cause marketing

d)

Creative ethics

e)

International ethics

11.

The four components of the pyramid of corporate social responsibility are:

a)

sustainability, creativity, profit, and culture

b)

organizational culture, creativity imagery, economic performance, and objectivity

c)

organizational, financial, social, and cultural responsibilities

d)

sustainability, legality, creativity, and competition

e)

economic, legal, ethical, and philanthropic responsibilities

12.

Which of the following statements describes ethics?

a)

Ethics are the moral principles or values that generally govern the conduct of an individual.

b)

Ethics is the standard of behavior by which conduct is judged.

c)

Morals are a foundation for ethical behavior.

d)

Ethical values are situation specific and time oriented.

e)

All of the statements describe ethics.

13.

A(n) ____ is a defined group that managers feel is most likely to buy a firm's product.

a)

target market

b)

buying center

c)

aggregated unit

d)

consumer cluster

e)

demographic sample

14.

Which of the following statements best describes the typical target market?

a)

A target market will remain stable over time, with the same group of consumers.

b)

Target markets change over time as consumers drop in or out of the market, and as tastes change.

c)

Target markets are not strongly affected by changes in the external environment.

d)

Target markets only change when the features and benefits of the product offering change.

e)

Target markets cannot be specifically defined according to age, income, or location because these factors are continually changing.

15.

The external environment:

a)

can be controlled in much the same manner as the internal marketing mix

b)

cannot be influenced by marketing managers

c)

does not change over time

d)

does not have an impact on Fortune 500 companies

e)

must be continually monitored by marketing managers

16.

The external environment is a strong influence on a target market and can be a source of ____ for the marketing manager.

a)

opportunities and threats

b)

threats and strengths

c)

environmental loopholes

d)

opportunities and weaknesses

e)

product myopia

17.

What is apparently the most difficult external variable for marketing managers to forecast, influence, or integrate into marketing plans?

a)

technology

b)

social factors

c)

demography

d)

competition

e)

economic conditions

18.

When a company engages in ____, it is implementing strategies that attempt to shape the external environment in which it operates.

a)

synergistic control

b)

environmental management

c)

transactional management

d)

market control

e)

reactive management

19.

____ factors are the environmental factors concerned with the changes in people's values, lifestyles, and family roles.

a)

Social

b)

Economic

c)

Political

d)

Competitive

e)

Demographic

20.

What do self-sufficiency, upward mobility, and conformity have in common?

a)

These are no longer valued attitudes.

b)

They are attitudes that can easily be changed.

c)

These are three perceptions that Americans have of the Asian lifestyle.

d)

These are three of the core values that have influenced lifestyles in the United States.

e)

They are the determinants of a component lifestyle.

21.

The study of people's vital statistics, such as their ages, births, deaths, and locations, is called:

a)

cultural sociology

b)

psychometrics

c)

ecology

d)

ethnography

e)

demography

22.

Which of the following is NOT a demographic characteristic of a population?

a)

income level

b)

age

c)

values

d)

education

e)

birthrate

23.

Factors, such as interest rates, inflation, and consumer income that influence the marketing environment, are called ____ factors.

a)

economic

b)

socio-demographic

c)

political

d)

government

e)

consumption

24.

A period of economic activity when income, production, and employment tend to fall, reducing overall demand, is called:

a)

stagnation

b)

an inflation

c)

a recession

d)

price escalation

e)

a depression

25.

Which of the following is sometimes an effective weapon for fighting inflation and recession?

a)

technology

b)

line extensions

c)

increased capital gains taxes

d)

introducing product-line extensions

e)

reducing R&D expenditures

26.

Research that attempts to expand the frontiers of knowledge rather than solving a specific, pragmatic problem is called:

a)

technical diversity

b)

reactive research

c)

applied research

d)

experiential research

e)

basic research

27.

Laws and regulations of various governments and their ongoing development and change are an example of ____ factors and are part of all organizations' external environment.

a)

economic investment

b)

political and legal

c)

research and development

d)

competitive

e)

demographic

28.

___ is the managerial process of creating and maintaining a fit between the organization's objectives and resources and evolving market opportunities.

a)

Tactical management

b)

The market audit

c)

Functional planning

d)

Environmental scanning

e)

Strategic planning

29.

____ is the process of anticipating events and determining strategies to achieve organizational objectives.

a)

Planning

b)

Portfolio evaluation

c)

Forecasting

d)

Implementation

e)

Evaluation

30.

Marketing plans should be written to do all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

compare actual and expected performance

b)

provide clearly stated activities

c)

create common goals for employees to work toward

d)

allow managers to enter the marketplace with an awareness of possibilities and problems

e)

control the elements of the external marketing environment

31.

Which of the following is one of the elements of the marketing plan?

a)

a business mission statement

b)

a situation analysis

c)

a target market strategy

d)

the marketing mix

e)

all of the choices

32.

The ____ answers the question, "What business are we in, and where are we going?"

a)

mission statement

b)

financial statement

c)

situation analysis

d)

market strategy

e)

strategic plan

33.

The focus of an organization's mission statement should be on:

a)

the products it wishes to sell

b)

the market it wishes to serve

c)

its social responsibilities

d)

the desires of government regulators

e)

technologies it understands well

34.

A popular technique for managing a large organization with different technologies and markets is to divide it into:

a)

strategic business units

b)

different technologies

35.

An SBU:

a)

competes with the same companies as the other SBUs in the parent organization

b)

shares the same mission with all the other SBUs in the parent organization

c)

controls its business independent of other SBUs in the organization

d)

usually benefits from the combined corporate raw materials purchases

e)

still has strategic planning performed back at corporate headquarters

36.

After management agrees on a mission statement, it must set objectives. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good objective?

a)

profitable

b)

realistic

c)

measurable

d)

time-specific

e)

consistent

37.

A _____ is defined as a statement of what is to be accomplished through marketing activities.

a)

mission statement

b)

business plan

c)

marketing objective

d)

goal-driven directive

e)

marketing criteria

38.

A _____ is a formal study conducted by an organization to ascertain its current status and capabilities and its future expectations.

a)

situation analysis

b)

marketing audit

c)

trend analysis

d)

strategic alternative selection

e)

competitive advantage audit

39.

The SWOT acronym refers to a firm's analysis of its:

a)

sales, width of product mix, observations, and technology

b)

situations, wealth, organizational strengths, and target markets

c)

strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats

d)

service levels, willingness to spend, organizational culture, and total revenues

e)

strategies, willingness to change, objectives, and trends

40.

_____ is defined as the collection and interpretation of information about forces, events, and relationships that may affect the organization.

a)

Market sampling

b)

An internal audit

c)

Opportunity analysis

d)

Environmental scanning

e)

Stakeholder analysis

41.

_____ is a strategy of increasing market share for present products in existing markets.

a)

Market penetration

b)

Product development

c)

Market development

d)

Diversification

e)

Product penetration

42.

_____ is a strategy that attracts new customers to existing products.

a)

Product development

b)

Market development

c)

Market penetration

d)

Product development

e)

Diversification

43.

_____ is a strategy that creates new products for present markets.

a)

Product penetration

b)

Market penetration

c)

Product development

d)

Market development

e)

Diversification

44.

_____ is the strategy of increasing sales by introducing new products into new markets.

a)

Product penetration

b)

Product development

c)

Market penetration

d)

Market development

e)

Diversification

45.

The _____ is the unique blend of product, distribution, promotion, and pricing strategies designed to produce mutually satisfying exchanges with a target market.

a)

internal environmental mix

b)

marketing mix

c)

product mix

d)

product line

e)

market portfolio

46.

The starting point of any firm's marketing mix is the:

a)

analysis of what production equipment is available and owned by the company

b)

design of the promotion campaign to be used for the product

c)

selection of the places through which the good or service will be sold

d)

determination of the product's price, enabling future revenues and budgets to be estimated

e)

development of the good or service to be sold

47.

Making sure products are available when and where customers want them is the job of which element of the marketing mix?

a)

advertising strategies

b)

production strategies

c)

product strategies

d)

promotion strategies

e)

distribution strategies

48.

Global marketing standardization:

a)

is becoming less popular with the large multinationals

b)

encourages product, packaging, and advertising variations for each nation or local market

c)

actually raises production costs

d)

presumes markets throughout the world are becoming more alike

e)

is more popular with consumer products than with industrial goods

49.

A business thinking of expanding into global markets needs to examine all of the following external environments EXCEPT:

a)

culture

b)

political structure and actions

c)

its marketing mix

d)

natural resources

e)

demographic makeup

50.

Central to any society is a common set of values shared by its citizens that determines what is socially acceptable. Marketers refer to these values collectively as a country's:

a)

ethical system

b)

culture

c)

ethnocentricity

d)

national personality

e)

socialization

51.

Which of the following is an important cultural factor that should be considered by global marketers?

a)

competitive synergy

b)

language

c)

natural resources

d)

technology sensitivity

e)

level of economic development

52.

Customer relationship management:

a)

is often described as a closed-loop system

b)

only involves personnel in marketing and management departments

c)

organizes the company around functional departments

d)

is a very simplistic method of encouraging customer satisfaction

e)

is only a theory and has not been proven successful in any practical way

53.

The basic assumption of _____ is that marketing to repeat customers is more profitable than marketing to first-time buyers.

a)

customer segmentation

b)

predictive modeling

c)

customer valuation

d)

data manipulation

e)

lifetime value analysis

54.

Everyday information about developments in the marketing environment that managers use to prepare and adjust marketing plans is referred to as:

a)

competitive intelligence

b)

marketing information

c)

decision support information

d)

marketing research

e)

observation

55.

_____ is the creation of a large computerized file of customers’ and potential customers’ profiles and purchase patterns.

a)

Electronic targeting

b)

Sampling procedure specification

c)

Database marketing

d)

Competitive data mining

e)

Consumer behavior marketing

56.

_____ is the process of planning, collecting, and analyzing data relevant to a marketing decision. The results of this analysis are then communicated to management.

a)

Data collection

b)

Artificial intelligence

c)

Decision support

d)

Marketing research

e)

Single-source research

57.

Marketing research has three functional roles. These roles are:

a)

normative, descriptive, and explanatory

b)

predictive, normative, and persuasive

c)

descriptive, diagnostic, and predictive

d)

flexible, interactive, and discovery-oriented

e)

descriptive, explanatory, and predictive

58.

Trade groups, commercial publications, and government departments can be used as sources of:

a)

secondary data

b)

consensual information

c)

primary data

d)

artificial intelligence

e)

marketing audits

59.

Information collected for the first time for the purpose of solving a particular problem under investigation is called _____ data.

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

dichotomous

d)

observation

e)

convenience

60.

In-home personal interviews:

a)

offer high-quality data at a high cost

b)

offer the ability to obtain high-quality data at a low cost

c)

are becoming increasingly more popular

d)

are less expensive than mall intercepts

e)

offer information of moderate quality but at a low cost

61.

Telephone interviews offer:

a)

speed in gathering data

b)

a potential for reaching all households

c)

few nonresponses

d)

the ability to collect large amounts of complex data

e)

the lowest-cost method for obtaining data

62.

_____ research depends on watching what people do.

a)

Anonymous viewership

b)

Observation

c)

Interactive

d)

Personal scanner

e)

Survey

63.

An intelligence system that helps managers assess their competition and vendors in order to become more efficient and effective competitors is called:

a)

competitive research

b)

competitive intelligence

c)

industrial espionage

d)

an audit

e)

differential competitive advantage

64.

New-to-the-world products, where the product category itself is new, are also called:

a)

discontinuous innovations

b)

moderate innovations

c)

slow-diffusing products

d)

venture products

e)

creative offerings

65.

The first stage of the new-product development process is:

a)

screening and concept testing

b)

establishing the new-product strategy

c)

exploring opportunities

d)

developing a business analysis

e)

the building of a prototype

66.

The process of converting applications for new technologies into marketable products is called:

a)

basic research

b)

product modification

c)

marketing development

d)

product development

e)

correlation analysis

67.

The phase of the product life cycle in which healthy profits usually begin to appear is the _____ stage.

a)

growth

b)

decline

c)

introductory

d)

maturity

e)

commercialization

68.

In which stage of the product life cycle do marginal competitors start dropping out of the market?

a)

Introduction

b)

Growth

c)

Maturity

d)

Decline

e)

Shake-out

69.

A market is people or organizations that have:

a)

the ability, willingness, and power to buy

b)

a medium of exchange and products they desire

c)

needs and wants and an ability and willingness to buy

d)

unmet needs or wants and products or services that satisfy those unmet needs or wants

e)

communication, financial, and capital resources

70.

A(n) ____ is a subgroup of individuals or organizations sharing one or more characteristics that cause them to have similar product needs.

a)

market universe

b)

market segment

c)

aggregated market

d)

segmentation base

e)

population sample

71.

____ is the process of dividing a market into meaningful groups that are relatively similar and identifiable.

a)

Perceptual mapping

b)

Positioning

c)

Micromarketing

d)

Market sampling

e)

Market segmentation

72.

The purpose of market segmentation is to:

a)

reduce the market down to a size the firm can handle

b)

divide the market into equal size and profit regions for sales territories

c)

group a large number of markets together, enabling a company to serve them simultaneously

d)

develop a generalized definition of the market as a whole

e)

enable the marketer to tailor marketing mixes to meet the needs of one or more specific groups

73.

To be useful, a segmentation scheme must produce segments that meet four basic criteria. The criteria are:

a)

segmentability, targetability, reliability and validity, and homogeneity

b)

tangibility, inseparability, nonperishability, and uniqueness

c)

substantiality, identifiability and measurability, accessibility, and responsiveness

d)

reliability, flexibility, tangibility, and unbiased

e)

complexity, compatibility, relative advantage, trialability, and observability

74.

Income, ethnic background, gender, and age are all examples of ____ segmentation bases.

a)

geodemographic

b)

organizational

c)

demographic

d)

socioeconomic

e)

psychographic

75.

____ segmentation is based on personality, motives, and lifestyles.

a)

Psychographic

b)

Demographic

c)

Benefit

d)

Family life cycle

e)

Character

76.

The steps of the consumer decision-making process in order are:

a)

need recognition, alternative aggregation, reevaluation, purchase decision, postpurchase behavior

b)

need positioning, stimulus response reactions, evaluation of alternatives, purchase decision, postpurchase behavior

c)

need positioning, alternative aggregation and divestment, purchase decision, postpurchase evaluation

d)

information search, need positioning, evaluation of alternatives, product trial, purchase decision, postpurchase satisfaction

e)

need recognition, information search, evaluation of alternatives, purchase, and postpurchase behavior

77.

Which of the following is any unit of input affecting one or more of the five senses: sight, smell, taste, touch, and hearing?

a)

Tactic

b)

Need

c)

Stimulus

d)

Want

e)

Desire

78.

Which of the following is an information source that is not associated with advertising or promotion?

a)

External

b)

Nonmarketing-controlled

c)

Marketing-controlled

d)

Unbiased

79.

is defined as the quantity of a product that will be sold at various prices for a specified period.

a)

Market share

b)

Demand

c)

Supply

d)

Value

e)

Revenue

80.

The price of the good or service is a key decision for a marketer because it most significantly and directly affects the product's:

a)

distribution

b)

costs

c)

demand

d)

promotion

e)

quality

81.

is defined as the quantity of product offered to the market by suppliers at various prices for a specified period.

a)

Supply

b)

Demand

c)

Equity

d)

Liquidity

e)

Current asset

82.

Profit maximization occurs when:

a)

total costs equals average fixed revenue

b)

average variable costs are larger than average total costs

c)

total costs equal total variable costs

d)

marginal variable costs equal average revenues

e)

marginal revenue equals marginal cost

83.

The point at which marginal cost and marginal revenue are equal always results in:

a)

maximization of elasticity

b)

maximization of revenue

c)

maximization of costs

d)

maximization of profits

e)

break-even equilibrium