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Safety & Government Regulations in Healthcare_HST Test Review

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A decubitus ulcer is caused by:

a)

Poor nutrition

b)

Continuous pressure on the skin and bony areas

c)

Increased muscle tone

d)

Frequent repositioning

2.

Which of the following are common pressure points where ulcers form?

a)

Elbows, heels, sacrum, and shoulder blades

b)

Forearms and calves

c)

Knees and wrists

d)

Abdomen and chest

3.

Which position places the patient lying flat on the back?

a)

Prone

b)

Lateral

c)

Supine

d)

Sims

4.

The Fowler’s position is typically used for patients:

a)

During surgery

b)

Experiencing difficulty breathing or eating

c)

With leg fractures

d)

Who are unconscious

5.

The first step in safe patient lifting is:

a)

Bend at the waist

b)

Lock your knees

c)

Assess the situation and plan the move

d)

Pull with your arms

6.

Orthostatic hypotension refers to:

a)

Low blood pressure when standing suddenly

b)

A heart rhythm irregularity

c)

Dehydration during exercise

d)

Low blood sugar levels

7.

When ambulating a patient with a cane, the cane should be held:

a)

On the weaker side

b)

On the stronger side

c)

In front of both legs

d)

Behind the body

8.

A walker provides:

a)

The least amount of stability

b)

Moderate support for balance

c)

The most stability for ambulation

d)

Minimal balance control

9.

When using crutches, the patient should:

a)

Rest weight under the armpits

b)

Keep 2 inches between the crutch and armpit

c)

Keep elbows locked

d)

Hold both crutches on one side

10.

To prevent falls, healthcare providers should:

a)

Keep floors waxed and slippery

b)

Leave call lights out of reach

c)

Ensure side rails are used and areas are clutter-free

d)

Encourage patients to ambulate alone

11.

Incident reports are used to:

a)

Record daily patient care

b)

Document any unusual event or injury in the facility

c)

Replace the patient’s chart

d)

Record shift changes

12.

After assisting Mr. Turner to the floor, vital signs are checked: BP 118/72 mm Hg, HR 88 bpm, RR 18 breaths/min, skin warm and dry. Which statement is the best justification for notifying the charge nurse immediately?

a)

Any fall or near-fall requires prompt reporting and documentation, even if vital signs are stable

b)

Notifying the charge nurse is only necessary when blood pressure is abnormal

c)

Stable vital signs mean no report is needed

d)

Notification is optional if an ice pack is applied

13.

Which is a primary benefit of proper patient positioning?

a)

Prevents contractures and pressure sores

b)

Improves appetite

c)

Eliminates the need for ambulation

d)

Increases medication absorption

14.

What is the main cause of decubitus ulcers in immobile patients?

a)

Allergic reactions

b)

Continuous pressure on the skin and bony areas

c)

Excessive moisture alone

d)

Sun exposure

15.

Which body areas are common bony pressure points that require protection?

a)

Elbows, heels, sacrum, and shoulder blades

b)

Forearms, calves, and wrists

c)

Cheeks, chin, and ears

d)

Thighs, knees, and toes only

16.

When using crutches, how much space should be between the crutch pad and the patient’s axilla (armpit)?

a)

0 inches

b)

1 inch

c)

2 inches

d)

4 inches

17.

If an unusual event or injury occurs in a facility, staff should:

a)

Discuss it only verbally

b)

Document any unusual event or injury in an incident report

c)

Ignore if no one was harmed

d)

Wait until the end of shift to decide

18.

During a transfer, which technique best reflects good body mechanics?

a)

Twist the torso while lifting

b)

Bend at the waist and keep legs straight

c)

Use a gait belt and lift with the legs, not the back

d)

Stand with feet close together

19.

If a patient becomes dizzy while dangling at the bedside, the safest immediate response is to:

a)

Give water and continue

b)

Ask them to try standing

c)

Lower them back to a sitting or lying position immediately

d)

Call for transport to radiology

20.

Which position is typically used to improve breathing and allow eating by elevating the head of the bed between 45° and 90°?

a)

Prone

b)

Fowler’s

c)

Semi-Fowler’s

d)

Lateral

21.

A patient receiving tube feeding is most appropriately positioned in which of the following?

a)

Supine, flat

b)

Prone

c)

Semi-Fowler’s

d)

Trendelenburg

22.

Which action best supports skin integrity to prevent decubitus ulcers?

a)

Leave skin moist to reduce friction

b)

Keep skin clean, dry, and wrinkle-free

c)

Massage bony prominences vigorously

d)

Avoid use of positioning devices

23.

According to the sample incident report, which injury did NOT occur?

a)

Head injury

b)

Right wrist pain rated 3/10

c)

Loss of balance

d)

Fall to the floor

24.

In the exemplar report, what was the patient’s condition after the incident?

a)

Unresponsive with severe pain

b)

Awake and alert with mild right wrist pain, vitals stable

c)

Confused with chest pain

d)

Drowsy with low blood pressure

25.

During ambulation in the exemplar, which assistive device was the patient using when he began to lose balance?

a)

Cane

b)

Walker

c)

Wheelchair

d)

Crutches

26.

Which principle of body mechanics from the exemplar extended response helps prevent back injuries when lifting?

a)

Twist at the waist while lifting

b)

Bend at the knees and keep the back straight

c)

Lock the knees and hold breath

d)

Lift with the arms only

27.

What is one stated benefit of correct patient positioning such as Fowler’s or lateral positions?

a)

Increases respiratory problems

b)

Prevents respiratory problems and promotes comfort

c)

Eliminates need for turning

d)

Replaces use of assistive devices

28.
A person with AIDS is likely to develop infectious diseases because the virus that causes AIDS
a)
destroys cancerous cells
b)
damages the immune system
c)
increases the rate of antibody production
d)
increases the rate of microbe destruction
29.

SDS provide important information about product_____

a)

storage

b)

safety

c)

efficacy

d)

disposal

30.
What helps prevent viral diseases?
a)
Vaccines
b)
Antibiotics
c)
Herbal tea
d)
Gene Therapy
31.
Chemical products that destroy all bacteria, fungi, and viruses (but not spores) on surfaces are known as _____.
a)
sterilizers
b)
antiseptics
c)
disinfectants
d)
sanitizers
32.
Standard Precautions that require the employer and employee to assume that all human blood and body fluids are potentially infectious are published by the _____.
a)
CDC
b)
FDA
c)
DOL
d)
DOE
33.

Which of the following is an important step to ensure safety when transferring a patient from bed to wheelchair?

a)

Keep the bed at its highest position

b)

Pull the patient quickly without warning

c)

Lock the wheelchair brakes before transfer

d)

Ask the patient to stand alone

34.

What is the primary purpose of using assistive devices such as walkers or canes during ambulation?

a)

Increase patient independence and stability

b)

Reduce the need for supervision

c)

Encourage faster walking speed

d)

Replace physical therapy sessions

35.

To help prevent pressure ulcers in immobile patients, how often should their position be changed?

a)

Once a day

b)

Every 8 hours

c)

Only when requested by the patient

d)

Every 2 hours

36.

Which of the following is the safest way to assist a patient who begins to fall during ambulation?

a)

Guide the patient gently to the floor while protecting their head

b)

Try to hold the patient upright at all costs

c)

Leave the patient to get help immediately

d)

Pull the patient back to standing position quickly

37.

What is the primary reason for using a gait belt when transferring patients?

a)

To keep the patient's clothes clean

b)

To replace the need for assistance

c)

To provide a secure grip and reduce risk of injury

d)

To help the patient walk faster

38.

Which of the following best describes the lateral position?

a)

Sitting upright at a 90° angle

b)

Lying on the side with knees slightly bent

c)

Lying on the stomach

d)

Lying flat on the back

39.

Which of the following is the best way to prevent falls when assisting a patient with ambulation?

a)

Use appropriate assistive devices and stay close to the patient

b)

Ask the patient to walk quickly

c)

Hold the patient only by the arm

d)

Encourage the patient to walk alone

40.

What is the recommended action if a patient complains of dizziness while being transferred from bed to chair?

a)

Continue the transfer quickly

b)

Leave the patient unattended

c)

Ignore the complaint and proceed

d)

Pause the transfer and allow the patient to sit and rest

41.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of repositioning immobile patients regularly?

a)

To reduce the need for assistive devices

b)

To prevent pressure ulcers and improve circulation

c)

To avoid using pillows and supports

d)

To increase patient discomfort

42.

Which of the following is the correct way to use a gait belt when assisting a patient to stand?

a)

Use the belt only for patients who can walk independently

b)

Place the belt loosely around the patient’s waist over bulky clothing

c)

Hold the belt from the front only

d)

Secure the belt snugly around the patient’s waist and grasp from the back

43.

What is the main reason for repositioning immobile patients regularly?

a)

To increase appetite

b)

To reduce the need for medication

c)

To prevent pressure ulcers and improve circulation

d)

To help patients sleep longer

44.

When assisting a patient to transfer from bed to chair, which step should be performed first?

a)

Lift the patient without assistance

b)

Remove all pillows from the bed

c)

Ask the patient to stand up quickly

d)

Lock the wheels of the bed and chair

45.

Which of the following actions helps reduce the risk of injury when moving a patient in bed?

a)

Lifting the patient by the arms

b)

Using a draw sheet and asking for assistance

c)

Pulling the patient with one hand

d)

Moving the patient quickly without warning

46.

What is the primary reason for encouraging patients to use assistive devices during ambulation?

a)

To reduce the need for supervision

b)

To avoid using proper footwear

c)

To promote independence and prevent falls

d)

To increase walking speed

47.

When repositioning a patient, which step is essential to maintain patient safety?

a)

Move the patient without assistance

b)

Leave bed rails down at all times

c)

Ignore the patient's comfort

d)

Explain the procedure to the patient before starting

48.

What is the safest way to assist a patient who is weak on one side when walking?

a)

Support the patient on their strong side

b)

Support the patient on their weak side

c)

Let the patient walk unaided

d)

Walk behind the patient without holding

49.

Which of the following actions helps prevent pressure ulcers in bedridden patients?

a)

Reposition the patient every 2 hours

b)

Encourage the patient to avoid movement

c)

Keep the patient in one position all day

d)

Use only a thin sheet under the patient

50.

When preparing to move a patient up in bed, what should you do first?

a)

Lower the head of the bed and explain the procedure

b)

Ask the patient to hold their breath

c)

Pull the patient quickly without warning

d)

Remove all pillows and supports

51.

HIPPA

a)

A breach of right, duty, or law

b)

An equation stating that 2 ratios are equal

c)

Regional outbreak of a disease

d)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act: Standards to protect health information

52.

Which of the following is a universal patient safety guideline?

a)

A) Bed in highest position with wheels locked

b)

B) Call bell within reach

c)

C) Perform procedures you are not trained to perform

d)

D) Work out of your scope of practice

53.

Fill in the blank: A universal patient safety guideline is to keep the bed in the ______ position with wheels locked.

a)

lowest

b)

highest

c)

middle

d)

elevated

54.

Identify a safety hazard that could occur in a patient's room.

a)

Loose electrical cords

b)

Proper lighting

c)

Secure furniture

d)

Clean floors

55.

What is an "incident"?

a)

A planned event

b)

An unexpected event

c)

A routine operation

d)

A scheduled meeting

56.

Incident reports should be used to document:

a)

Routine activities

b)

Unusual occurrences

c)

Daily schedules

d)

Employee preferences

57.

How must an incident report be filled out?

a)

Accurately and completely

b)

With minimal details

c)

Only when requested

d)

Without any specific format

58.

When using a fire extinguisher to extinguish a fire, where should you aim?

a)

Just above the flame

b)

Toward the middle of the flame

c)

At the base of the fire

d)

You should move your target around the entirety of the flame

59.

What does the acronym PASS stand for in fire safety?

a)
a. P=Pull the pin. A=Aim the extinguisher at the near edge and bottom of the fire. S=Squeeze the handle to discharge the extinguisher. S=Sweep the extinguisher from side to side at the base of the fire.
b)
b. P=Pass the fire extinguisher to your neighbor. A=Aim the extinguisher at the near edge and bottom of the fire. S=Squeeze the handle to discharge the extinguisher. S=Sweep the extinguisher from side to side at the base of the fire.
c)
c. P=Pull the pin. A=Aim the extinguisher at the near edge and bottom of the fire. S=Sweep the extinguisher from side to side at the base of the fire. S=Squeeze the handle to discharge the extinguisher.
d)
d. P=Pull the fire alarm. A=Aim the extinguisher at the near edge and bottom of the fire. S=Squeeze the handle to discharge the extinguisher. S=Sweep the extinguisher from side to side at the base of the fire.
60.

What does the acronym RACE stand for?

a)
R= Run from the fire. A = Anticipate the fire's direction. C= Call for help. E= Elevator
b)
R= Rescue anyone in immediate danger. A= Active the alarm. C = Contain the fire. E = Extinguish the fire or evacuate the area.
c)
R= React calmly. A = Align the patients to evacuate. C = Call for help. E = Extinguish the fire or evacuate the area.
d)
None of the above
61.

What are body mechanics?

a)

“Positioning the body in ways that prevent injury”

b)

"The need to be in good physical shape in order to properly care for patients”

c)

“A list of ways to use as much of your strength as possible”

d)

“Correct stretching prior to doing physical work”

62.

________ is the most common injury experienced by health care workers.

a)

Back injury.

b)

Wrist injury.

c)

Knee injury.

d)

Shoulder injury.

63.

Proper body mechanics prevents injury to the healthcare provider and patient.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

When lifting, avoid _____ the body:

a)

Turn and pivoting

b)

Twisting

c)

Holding the object close to

d)

Aligning

65.

What is considered good body alignment?

a)

The head, torso and legs in a straight line.

b)

Both knees are locked out.

c)

Arms are outreached toward the patient.

d)

No infection.

66.
Are safety data sheets the best source of information for chemical regarding the hazards, emergency response
a)
Yes 
b)
NO
67.
______________ outlines which standards employers must follow to meet workplace safety obligations.
a)
EPA
b)
USDA
c)
FEMA
d)
OSHA
68.

One intervention to safely transfer and move a patient is to....

a)

Ensure only one staff member does all the lifting

b)

Maintain proper alignment and support for the patient

c)

Use quick, jerky movements to move the patient

d)

Never use transfer devices

69.

What is the proper procedure to lift objects?

a)

Bend over with your knees straight, feet together, and then lift.

b)

Lift with your back, keep your legs straight, and keep your arms up.

c)

Lift with your legs, keep your back straight, and keep your head up

d)

Lift with your arms, keep your legs straight, and keep your head up.

70.

TRUE OR FALSE? It’s ok to use frayed or damaged cords.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

TRUE OR FALSE? Report any personal injury or accident to your supervisor promptly.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

What does the Flame pictogram on an SDS label indicate?

a)

The chemical is highly toxic

b)

The substance is flammable or may ignite easily

c)

The chemical can cause respiratory issues

d)

The chemical is corrosive to metals

73.

Which SDS pictogram indicates a health hazard such as cancer or organ damage?

a)

Skull and Crossbones

b)

Gas Cylinder

c)

Corrosive Acid Dripping on Metal

d)

Silhouette with Starburst on Chest

74.

When a pt. cannot reach a call bell, a nurse moves it within reach. What consideration is being met/followed?

a)

Pt. safety

b)

Body mechanics

c)

General guidelines

75.

Using a lift to help move pt's. and decrease back injuries among staff is which type of healthcare safety?

a)

Body mechanics

b)

Ergonomics

76.

When moving a pt. it is best to keep feet shoulder width apart. This is which type of professional healthcare safety?

a)

Ergonomics

b)

Body mechanics

77.

What is a key component of patient safety practices?

a)

Ensuring patient identification before administering medication

b)

Allowing unrestricted visitor access

c)

Using outdated medical equipment

d)

Ignoring patient feedback

78.

Which of the following practices helps in maintaining patient safety during medication administration?

a)

Administering medication without checking the label

b)

Double-checking the patient's identity and medication dosage

c)

Rushing through the medication administration process

d)

Ignoring patient allergies

79.

What is an ergonomic practice to prevent back injuries among healthcare workers?

a)

Twisting the body while lifting

b)

Using mechanical lifts for heavy patients

c)

Lifting with the back muscles

d)

Ignoring proper lifting techniques

80.

Which of the following actions best reduces the risk of needlestick injuries in healthcare settings?

a)

Passing uncapped needles to colleagues

b)

Leaving needles on the bedside table

c)

Disposing of needles immediately in a sharps container

d)

Recapping used needles by hand