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Worksheets

TACN

Total questions: 143

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The process used to accomplish organizational goals through planning, organizing, leading, and controlling people and other organizational resources.
a)
Management
b)
Motivation
c)
Organizing
d)
Manager
2.
An individual who is in charge of a certain group off tasks, or a certain area or department of a business.
a)
Manager
b)
Controlling
c)
Leading
d)
Management
3.
The most senior manager responsible for the overall performance and success of a company
a)
Chief Executive Officer
b)
Manager
c)
Organizing
d)
Management
4.
A management function that includes anticipating trends and determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational goals and objectives
a)
Planning
b)
Controlling
c)
Organizing
d)
Leading
5.
A management function that includes designing the structure of the organization and creating conditions and systems in which everyone and everything work together to achieve the organizational goals and objectives
a)
Organizing
b)
Controlling
c)
Planning
d)
Leading
6.
Creating a vision for the organization and guiding, training, coaching and motivating others to works effectively the organization’s goals and objectives
a)
Leading
b)
Controlling
c)
Planning
d)
Organizing
7.
A management function that involves establishing clear standards to determine whether or not an organization is progressing toward its goals and objectives, rewarding people for doing a good job, and taking corrective action if they are not
a)
Controlling
b)
Leading
c)
Planning
d)
Organizing
8.
factors that influence the behaviors of workers towards achieving business goals. Motivation can be increased by: monetary rewards, non-monetary rewards and introducing ways to give job satisfaction
a)
Motivation
b)
Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
c)
Theory Y
d)
Theory X
9.
the enjoyment a worker gets from feeling that they have done a goal job. There are three ways to motivate workers to be more continued to their job and work more effectively
a)
Job satisfaction
b)
Job rotation
c)
Job enlargement
d)
Job enrichment
10.
swapping workers round and only doing a specific task for a limited time before swapping round again
a)
Job rotation
b)
Job enrichment
c)
Job enlargement
d)
Job satisfaction
11.
extra tasks are added to the job to make it more interesting
a)
Job enlargement
b)
Job enrichment
c)
Job rotation
d)
Job satisfaction
12.
adding tasks that require more skill and/or responsibility
a)
Job enrichment
b)
Job enlargement
c)
Job satisfaction
d)
Job rotation
13.
the average person does not like work. Workers must be constantly supervised so they will work. Motivation is from external factors
a)
Theory X
b)
Hygiene factors
c)
Theory Y
d)
Frederick Herzberg’s motivation theory
14.
The average person is motivated by internal factors. To motivate workers, you need to find ways to help workers take an interest in their work
a)
Theory Y
b)
Theory X
c)
Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
d)
Frederick Herzberg’s motivation theory
15.
a theory of motivation which states that five categories of human needs dictate an individual’s behavior. Those needs are physiological needs, safety needs, love and belonging needs, esteem needs and self-actualization needs.
a)
Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
b)
Frederick Herzberg’s motivation theory
c)
Hygiene factors
d)
Theory X
16.
Humans have two sets of needs: one is for the basic needs, which he called hygiene factors or needs, and the second is for a human being to be able to grow psychologically, which he called motivational needs or motivators
a)
Frederick Herzberg’s motivation theory
b)
Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
c)
Theory X
d)
Theory Y
17.
the factors that must be present in the workplace to prevent job dissatisfaction
a)
Hygiene factors
b)
Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
c)
Frederick Herzberg’s motivation theory
d)
Theory Y
18.
the levels of management and division of responsibilities within an organization
a)
organizational structure
b)
Hierarchy
c)
Chain of command
d)
Span of control
19.
the levels of management in any organization, from the highest to the lowest. A level of hierarchy refers to managers/supervisors, other employees who are given a similar level of responsibility in an organization.
a)
Hierarchy
b)
Chain of command
c)
organizational structure
d)
Span of control
20.
the structure in an organization which allows instructions to be passed down from senior management to lower levels of management
a)
Chain of command
b)
Hierarchy
c)
organizational structure
d)
Span of control
21.
the number of subordinates working directly under the manager
a)
Span of control
b)
Line managers
c)
delegation
d)
decentralisation
22.
senior managers who lead a particular department or division of a business
a)
Directors
b)
Line managers
c)
supervisors
d)
staff managers
23.
people who have responsibility for people below them in the hierarchy of an organization
a)
Line managers
b)
Directors
c)
supervisors
d)
staff managers
24.
junior managers who have direct control over the employees below them in the organizational structure
a)
supervisors
b)
Directors
c)
Line managers
d)
staff managers
25.
specialists who provide support, information and assistance to line managers
a)
staff managers
b)
supervisors
c)
Directors
d)
Line managers
26.
giving a subordinate the authority to perform a particular task
a)
delegation
b)
Hierarchy
c)
decentralisation
d)
Span of control
27.
taking decisions away from the center of an organization- way from the head office.
a)
decentralisation
b)
delegation
c)
organizational structure
d)
staff managers
28.
the process from identifying that the business needs to employ someone up to the point at which applications have arrived at the business
a)
Recruitment
b)
Employee selection
c)
A job analysis
d)
A job specification
29.
he process of evaluating candidates for a specific job and selecting an individual for employment based on the needs of organization
a)
Employee selection
b)
Recruitment
c)
A job description
d)
A job analysis
30.
identifies and records the responsibilities and tasks relating to a job
a)
A job analysis
b)
A job description
c)
A job specification
d)
Employee selection
31.
outlines the responsibilities and duties to be carried out by someone employed to do a specific job
a)
A job description
b)
A job analysis
c)
A job specification
d)
Recruitment
32.
a document which outlines the requirements, qualifications, expertise, physical characteristics, etc for a specified job
a)
A job specification
b)
A job analysis
c)
A job description
d)
Recruitment
33.
An introduction given to a new employee, explaining the business' activivities, customs and procedures and introducing them to their fellow workers
a)
Induction training
b)
on-the-job training
c)
off-the-job training
d)
Employee selection
34.
occurs by watching a more experienced worker doing the job
a)
on-the-job training
b)
off-the-job training
c)
Induction training
d)
Recruitment
35.
involves being trained away from the workplace, usually by specialist trainer
a)
off-the-job training
b)
on-the-job training
c)
Induction training
d)
Recruitment
36.
- to produce a good or a service which meets customer expectations
a)
Quality
b)
Quality control
c)
Quality assurance
d)
Total Quality Management
37.
- the checking for quality at the end of the production process, whether it is the production of a product or service
a)
Quality control
b)
Quality assurance
c)
Quality
d)
Total Quality Management
38.
- the checking for quality standards throughout the production process, whether it is the production of a product or service
a)
Quality assurance
b)
Total Quality Management
c)
Quality
d)
Quality control
39.
the continuous improvement of products and processes by focusing on quality at each stage
a)
Total Quality Management
b)
Quality assurance
c)
Quality
d)
Quality control
40.
to place money in a bank; or money placed in a bank
a)
deposit
b)
liquidity
c)
collateral
d)
overdraft
41.
available cash, and how easily other assets can be turned into cash
a)
liquidity
b)
a mortgage
c)
collateral
d)
a current account
42.
anything that acts as a security or guarantee for a loan
a)
collateral
b)
solvency
c)
a savings account
d)
a current account
43.
a type of loan used to purchase or maintain a home, land, or other types of real estate. The borrower agrees to pay the lender over time, typically in a series of regular payments that are divided into principal and interest. The property then serves as collateral to secure the loan
a)
a mortgage
b)
maturity date
c)
solvency
d)
collateral
44.
something that occurs when you make a purchase with your debit card or write a check for an amount that exceeds your checking account's available balance. Many bank account offer overdraft proctection to help avoid overdraft fees. Some banks don't charge overdraft fees at all
a)
overdraft
b)
Quality
c)
collateral
d)
solvency
45.
an account at a bank against which checks can be drawn by the account depositor; a checking account
a)
a current account
b)
maturity date
c)
a savings account
d)
a deposit account
46.
a deposit account that generally earns higher interest than an interest-bearing checking account. Savings accoutns limit the number of certain types of transfers or withdrawals you can make from the account each monthly statement cycle.
a)
a savings account
b)
maturity date
c)
a current account
d)
a deposit account
47.
a bank account maintained by a financial institution in which a customer can deposit and withdraw money
a)
a deposit account
b)
a savings account
c)
a current account
d)
collateral
48.
when banks have enough money to cover potential losses. banks are expected to maintain a sufficient level of capital to remain solvent and avoid failure. The FDIC and other federal regulators work with banks to maintain standards for solvency
a)
solvency
b)
maturity date
c)
collateral
d)
market
49.
this is the date of expiration for the contractual obligation of a financial instrument.
a)
maturity date
b)
collateral
c)
a current account
d)
solvency
50.
the set of all actual and potential buyers of a good or sercive; the place where people buy and sell; the people who trade in a particular good; to make goods available to buyers and to encourage them to buy them
a)
market
b)
market leader
c)
market nicher
d)
market research
51.
te company with the largest market share
a)
market leader
b)
market research
c)
market segment
d)
market segmentation
52.
a small company that concentrates on one or more particular niches or small market segmentss
a)
market nicher
b)
market leader
c)
market
d)
market segment
53.
the collection, analysis and reporting of data relevant to a specific marketing situation
a)
market research
b)
market segmentation
c)
marketing mix
d)
market share
54.
part of a market; a group of customers with specific needs, defined in terms of geography, age, esx, income, occupation, life-style,..
a)
market segment
b)
market segmentation
c)
marketing channel
d)
marketing mix
55.
the act of dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers who have different requirements or buying habits
a)
market segmentation
b)
marketing channel
c)
market segment
d)
marketing strategy
56.
the slaes of a company (or brand/product) expressed as a percentage of total sales in marketing - the process of identifying and satisfying consumers' needs and desires
a)
market share
b)
marketing mix
c)
market leader
d)
market
57.
the set of intermediaries a company uses to get its goods to their end users
a)
marketing channel
b)
market segmentation
c)
marketing strategy
d)
market research
58.
the set of all the various elements in a marketing programme and the way a company integrates them
a)
marketing mix
b)
market share
c)
market
d)
market nicher
59.
a plan or principle designed to achieve marketing objectives
a)
marketing strategy
b)
market segmentation
c)
market research
d)
marketing channel
60.
the standard pattern of sales of a product over the period that it is marketed
a)
product life cycle
b)
wholesaler
c)
product differentiation
d)
market skimming
61.
all the companies or individuals involved in moving goods or services from producers to consumers
a)
distribution channel
b)
wholesaler
c)
product differentiation
d)
marketing channel
62.
an intermediary hat stocks manufacturers goods or merchandise, and sells it to retailers and professional buyers
a)
wholesaler
b)
sales representative
c)
marketing channel
d)
market opportunities
63.
making a product different from similar products offered by other sellers, by product differences, advertising, packaging,etc
a)
product differentiation
b)
market opportunities
c)
marketing strategy
d)
product life cycle
64.
possibilities of filling unsatisfied needs in sectors in which a company can profitably produce goods or services
a)
market opportunities
b)
marketing mix
c)
market skimming
d)
market segmentation
65.
setting a high price for a new product, to make maximum revenue before competing products appear on the market
a)
market skimming
b)
market segment
c)
marketing mix
d)
market opportunities
66.
someone who contacts existing and potential customers, and tries to persuade them to buy goods or services
a)
sales representative
b)
marketing strategy
c)
distribution channel
d)
wholesaler
67.
the attributes or characteristics of a product, such as size, shape, quality, price, reliability, etc
a)
product features
b)
product life cycle
c)
product differentiation
d)
market opportunities
68.
the extent to which supply or demand ( the quantity produced or bought) of a product responds to changes of price
a)
price elasticity
b)
wholesaler
c)
marketing mix
d)
market
69.
the strategy of setting a low price to try to sell a large volume and increase market share
a)
market penetration
b)
marketing strategy
c)
market skimming
d)
market segmentation
70.
Extracts and uses the natural resources of the earth to produce raw materials used by other businesses
a)
The primary sector
b)
The secondary sector
c)
The tertiary sector
d)
Quaternary sector
71.
Manufactures goods using the raw materials provided by the primary sector
a)
The secondary sector
b)
The primary sector
c)
The tertiary sector
d)
Quinary sector
72.
Provides services to consumers and the other sectors of industry
a)
The tertiary sector
b)
The secondary sector
c)
The primary sector
d)
Quaternary sector
73.
The knowledge-based part of the economy focused on services like intellectual and information-based activities
a)
Quaternary sector
b)
The secondary sector
c)
The primary sector
d)
The tertiary sector
74.
Consists high-level decision-making and specialized, knowledge-based services like government, healthcare, and research
a)
Quinary sector
b)
The secondary sector
c)
The primary sector
d)
The tertiary sector
75.
has both a private sector and a public sector
a)
A mixed economy
b)
Public sector
c)
Private sector
d)
Privatisation
76.
the sector of the economy in which organisations are owned and controlled by the state (government)
a)
Public sector
b)
A mixed economy
c)
Private sector
d)
Privatisation
77.
The sector of the economy in which organisations are owned and controlled by individuals
a)
Private sector
b)
Public sector
c)
A mixed economy
d)
Privatisation
78.
The sale of state-owned assets such as public corporations to the private sector
a)
Privatisation
b)
Public sector
c)
A mixed economy
d)
Private sector
79.
A business owned and operated by one person
a)
Sole trader
b)
Wholesaler
c)
Public sector
d)
Private sector
80.
the liability of shareholders in a company is limited to only the amount they invested
a)
Limited liability
b)
Unlimited liability
c)
Partnership
d)
Shareholders
81.
The owners of a business can be held responsible for the debts of the business they own. Their liability is not limited to the investment they made in the business.
a)
Unlimited liability
b)
Limited liability
c)
Partnership
d)
Shareholders
82.
a form of business in which two or more people agree to jointly own a business
a)
Partnership
b)
Limited liability
c)
Unlimited liability
d)
Shareholders
83.
The owners of a limited company. They buy shares which represent part ownership of a company.
a)
Shareholders
b)
Wholesaler
c)
Sole trader
d)
Partnership
84.
businesses owned by shareholders but they cannot sell shares to the public
a)
Private limited companies
b)
Public limited companies
c)
Private sector
d)
Public sector
85.
businesses owned by shareholders but they can sell shares to the public and their shares are tradeablie on the Stock Exchange
a)
Public limited companies
b)
Private limited companies
c)
Private sector
d)
Public sector
86.
to use other companies to do work your company previously did itself.
a)
Outsource
b)
Shareholders
c)
Inventories
d)
Production
87.
the process of converting inputs such as land, labour and capital into saleable goods
a)
Production
b)
Shareholders
c)
Inventories
d)
Outsource
88.
The stock of raw materials, work-in-progress and finished goods held by a business.
a)
Inventories
b)
Shareholders
c)
Outsource
d)
Production
89.
the production of goods and services with the minimum waste of resources
a)
Lean production
b)
Flow production
c)
Job production
d)
Batch production
90.
the production of items one at a time
a)
Job production
b)
Lean production
c)
Flow production
d)
Batch production
91.
the production of goods in batches. Each batch passess through one stage of production before moving onto the next stage
a)
Batch production
b)
Lean production
c)
Job production
d)
Flow production
92.
the production of very large quantities of identical goods using a continuously moving process
a)
Flow production
b)
Lean production
c)
Job production
d)
Batch production
93.
A production method that involves reducing or virtually eliminating the need to hold inventories of raw materials or unsold inventories of the finished product. Supplies arrive just at the time they are needed.
a)
JIT
b)
Lean production
c)
Job production
d)
Batch production
94.
a company's reserves( dự trữ) involved in producing and delivering goods or a service
a)
Stock
b)
Capacity
c)
Outsource
d)
Production
95.
is the ( maximum) rate of output that can be achieved from a production process.
a)
Capacity
b)
Stock
c)
Outsource
d)
Production
96.
is a collective word for all the buildings, machines, equipment, and other facilities used in the production process
a)
Plant
b)
Inventories
c)
Stock
d)
Outsource
97.
is a network of organizations involved in producing and delivering goods or a service
a)
Supply chain
b)
Lead time
c)
Economies of scale
d)
Logistics
98.
buying products or processed materials form other companies rather than manufacturing them
a)
Outsourcing
b)
Stock
c)
Outsource
d)
Plant
99.
the cost savings arising from large-scale production
a)
Economies of scale
b)
Supply chain
c)
Logistics
d)
Lead time
100.
the time needed to perform an activity such as manufacturing a product or delivering it to a customer.
a)
Lead time
b)
Supply chain
c)
Logistics
d)
Economies of scale
101.
The business activity that involves planning, implementing, and controlling the physical flow of materials, final goods, and related information from points of origin to points of consumption to meet customer requirements at a profit
a)
Logistics
b)
Supply chain
c)
Lead time
d)
Economies of scale
102.
the movement of goods within a warehouse, from warehouses to the factory floow, and from the factory floor to varous workstations
a)
Material handling
b)
Inbound logistics
c)
Reverse logistics
d)
Outbound logistics
103.
The area of logistics that involves bringing raw materials, packaging, other goods and services, and information from suppliers to producers.
a)
Inbound logistics
b)
Reverse logistics
c)
Material handling
d)
Outbound logistics
104.
the area of logistics that involves managing the flow of finised products and information to business buyers and ultimate consumers
a)
Outbound logistics
b)
Inbound logistics
c)
Reverse logistics
d)
Material handling
105.
The area of logistics that involves bringing goods back to the manufacturer because of defects or for recycling materials.
a)
Reverse logistics
b)
Inbound logistics
c)
Outbound logistics
d)
Material handling
106.
able to move quickly and easily
a)
Agile
b)
Lean
c)
Supply chain
d)
Lead time
107.
using small quantities and avoiding any waste
a)
Lean
b)
Agile
c)
Material handling
d)
Glocalization
108.
a network of facilities that performs the function of procurement of materials, transformation of these materials into finished products, and the distribution of these products to customers
a)
Supply chain
b)
Material handling
c)
Culture
d)
Lead time
109.
the management of the flow of goods, information and other resources, between the point of origin and the point of consumption
a)
Logistics management
b)
The Lewis Model
c)
Provider
d)
Reverse logistics
110.
the act of passing goods through customs so that they can enter or leave the country
a)
Customs clearance
b)
Reverse logistics
c)
Glocalization
d)
Flow production
111.
goods carried by a ship, aircraft, and other vehicle
a)
Cargo
b)
Outsourcing
c)
Customs clearance
d)
Glocalization
112.
someone whose business is to supply a particular service or commodity
a)
Provider
b)
Agile
c)
Logistics management
d)
Glocalization
113.
A term which is used to describe a product or service that is developed and distributed globally but is also adjusted to accommodate the user or consumer in a local market
a)
Glocalization
b)
Flow production
c)
Product placement
d)
Lead time
114.
the complex system of values, traits, morals and customs shared by a society
a)
Culture
b)
Reverse logistics
c)
High-context culture
d)
Supply chain
115.
the stimuli, environment, or ambience surrounding an event
a)
Context
b)
Logistics
c)
Glocalization
d)
Logistics management
116.
Divides humans into 3 categories, based not on nationality or religion but on BEHAVIOUR, namely, Linear-active, Multi-active and Reactive
a)
The Lewis Model
b)
Outsource
c)
Product placement
d)
Glocalization
117.
is a culture by which the rules of communication are primarily and dominantly transmitted through the use of contextual elements.
a)
High-context culture
b)
Logistics management
c)
Low-context culture
d)
High-context culture
118.
These include specific forms of body language, the social or familial status of an individual, and the tone of voice employed during speech.
a)
High-context culture
b)
Supply chain
c)
Glocalization
d)
Lead time
119.
usually do not have rules that are explicitly written or stated.
a)
High-context culture
b)
Outbound logistics
c)
Logistics
d)
Compromise
120.
a culture whereby most communications take place through verbal language and rules are directly written out or stated for all to view
a)
Low-context culture
b)
Lead time
c)
Confrontation
d)
Plant
121.
the distribution of power among individuals within a culture and how well unequal levels of powers are accepted by those with less power
a)
Power distance
b)
Provider
c)
Logistics management
d)
Lose face
122.
a face to face disagreement or argument
a)
Confrontation
b)
Glocalization
c)
Compromise
d)
comparative parity
123.
to do something when necessary without having already planned it
a)
Improvise
b)
Outbound logistics
c)
The Lewis Model
d)
Low-context culture
124.
believing that the group is more important than the individual
a)
Collectivist
b)
Logistics management
c)
Compromise
d)
Glocalization
125.
reducing demands or changing opinions in order to agree
a)
Compromise
b)
Glocalization
c)
Agile
d)
Provider
126.
people of influence or importance with whom you are associated
a)
Connections
b)
Culture
c)
viral marketing
d)
Product positioning
127.
to be humiliated or disrespected in public
a)
Lose face
b)
High-context culture
c)
Supply chain
d)
comparative parity
128.
A paid-for advertisement which includes editorial content; normally identified in a print magazine with the word "Advertisement" printed as a head across the top of the page to distinguish it from genuine (in theory unbiased) editorial content
a)
Advertorial
b)
Outsource
c)
Plant
d)
Logistics
129.
companies that design advertising for clients
a)
Advertising agencies
b)
Compromise
c)
Outsource
d)
Capacity
130.
the advertising of a particular product or service during a particular period of time
a)
Advertising campaign
b)
Supply chain
c)
Product placement
d)
The Lewis Model
131.
the statement of objectives that a client works out with an advertising agency
a)
Brief
b)
Confrontation
c)
Product placement
d)
Advertising agencies
132.
a defined set of customers whose needs a company plans to satisfy
a)
target customers
b)
Lose face
c)
Power distance
d)
Provider
133.
the amount of money a company plans to spend in developing its advertising and buying media time or space
a)
advertising budget
b)
The Lewis Model
c)
Unique Selling Point
d)
Glocalization
134.
the choice of where to advertise in order to reach the right people
a)
Media plan
b)
Inbound logistics
c)
Batch production
d)
Advertising agencies
135.
choosing to spend the same amount on advertising as one’s competitors
a)
comparative parity
b)
Advertorial
c)
Brief
d)
Demographics
136.
a small amount of a product given to customers to encourage them to try it
a)
free sample
b)
Focus groups
c)
comparative parity
d)
advertising budget
137.
free advertising, when satisfied customers recommend products to their friends
a)
word-of-mouth
b)
Provider
c)
Product positioning
d)
Media plan
138.
trying to get customers to forward an online marketing message to other people
a)
viral marketing
b)
Compromise
c)
Culture
d)
Lose face
139.
Describing an audience by age, gender, ethnicity or location - i.e the facts about them
a)
Demographics
b)
viral marketing
c)
The Lewis Model
d)
Logistics management
140.
small, selected groups representing a target audience who are paid to answer questions at the behest of a market research organization
a)
Focus groups
b)
Confrontation
c)
Improvise
d)
Advertising campaign
141.
the practice of paying for a branded product to be used by a character in a movie
a)
Product placement
b)
free sample
c)
Connections
d)
Power distance
142.
establishing the market nich of a product - which may not be as the brand leader - and advertising to the appropriate segment of the audience
a)
Product positioning
b)
viral marketing
c)
Media plan
d)
advertising budget
143.
A highlighted benefit of a product which makes it a stand out from all rival brands
a)
Unique Selling Point
b)
Collectivist
c)
Confrontation
d)
Advertising agencies