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food safety quiz

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Recall: According to the introduction, which sequence best describes how biological hazards can lead to foodborne illness when time/temperature is improperly controlled?

a)

Microbiological contamination of food → Survival or growth of food-poisoning microorganisms in food → Outbreaks of foodborne illnesses

b)

Outbreaks of foodborne illnesses → Microbiological contamination of food → Survival or growth of microorganisms in food

c)

Proper chilling and heating → Elimination of microorganisms → Outbreaks of foodborne illnesses

d)

Handwashing → Cross-contact → Immunity to foodborne illnesses

2.

Concept application: The Chapter 1 recap lists several topics. Which item below is MOST directly related to preventing food from becoming unsafe in kitchens?

a)

Identifying the costs of foodborne illness to businesses

b)

Listing the common symptoms of foodborne illness

c)

Explaining how food becomes unsafe and how to keep food safe

d)

Describing foods most associated with foodborne illness without taking action

3.

Strategic thinking: The learning topics include bacteria, viruses, parasites, fungi, and biological toxins. If a cafeteria wants to lower the risk of an outbreak shown in the introduction diagram, which strategy best targets these biological hazards?

a)

Maintain proper time and temperature controls so microbes cannot survive or grow

b)

Purchase extra cleaning chemicals to remove physical hazards like glass

c)

Switch to only plant-based foods because plants never carry microorganisms

d)

Rely on symptom lists to diagnose customers after they become ill

4.

Which statement best defines a microorganism in the context of food safety?

a)

A poison produced by some pathogens

b)

A harmful microorganism that makes people sick

c)

A small, living organism that can be seen only with a microscope

d)

A nonliving particle that spreads person-to-person easily

5.

In food safety, what is a pathogen?

a)

Any small organism, harmful or harmless

b)

Harmful microorganism that makes people sick

c)

A poison from plants, fish, or shellfish

d)

A mold that needs a host to survive

6.

Which action is an example of contaminating food by poor personal hygiene?

a)

Letting raw meat touch ready-to-eat food

b)

Not washing hands after using the restroom

c)

Storing dry goods on clean shelves

d)

Cooking foods to their proper internal temperatures

7.

According to the contamination list, which scenario describes cross-contamination?

a)

A sick employee stays home from work

b)

Raw meat is allowed to touch ready-to-eat food

c)

A worker sanitizes cutting boards before use

d)

Food is kept separate from cleaning chemicals

8.

Which biological hazard category is described as the most common cause of foodborne illness?

a)

Viruses

b)

Parasites

c)

Fungi (molds and yeasts)

d)

Bacteria

9.

Which statement correctly matches a biological hazard with its key characteristic?

a)

Viruses — need a host to survive

b)

Parasites — spread person-to-person easily

c)

Fungi — molds and yeasts

d)

Toxins — harmless byproducts of bacteria

10.

A cook sneezes on food and then keeps working. Based on the contamination list, what is the best immediate control step the supervisor should require?

a)

Discard the contaminated food and have the cook wash hands before resuming work

b)

Keep the food and add extra heat at service

c)

Cover the plate and send it to the customer quickly

d)

Move the food to the refrigerator to slow bacterial growth

11.

Which pathogen in the Big Six is specifically linked to Typhoid fever?

a)

Shigella spp.

b)

Salmonella Typhi

c)

Norovirus

d)

Hepatitis A

12.

Which statement best explains why the Big Six are especially concerning in food safety?

a)

They are only found in animals and rarely affect humans.

b)

They require very large doses to cause illness.

c)

They are highly infectious, easily transferred to food, and can make a person sick in small doses.

d)

They are only spread through the air and not through food.

13.

Enterohemorrhagic and shiga toxin–producing Escherichia coli belong to which group in the context of foodborne illness?

a)

Chemical contaminants

b)

The Big Six highly infectious pathogens

c)

Beneficial probiotics

d)

Parasitic worms

14.

A food worker contaminates a salad after using the restroom without washing hands. Which Big Six characteristic makes this scenario especially risky?

a)

They are destroyed by room-temperature storage.

b)

They are often present in high numbers in an infected person’s feces.

c)

They cannot survive on raw produce.

d)

They require cooking to become infectious.

15.

Which pair correctly lists two viruses included in the Big Six?

a)

Hepatitis A and Norovirus

b)

Shigella spp. and E. coli

c)

Non-typhoidal Salmonella and Salmonella Typhi

d)

Shigella spp. and Norovirus

16.

A small amount of contamination leads to illness during a picnic. Which Big Six trait most directly explains the outbreak?

a)

They can make a person sick in small doses.

b)

They always require animal hosts to multiply.

c)

They only spread through cooked foods.

d)

They are easily neutralized by refrigeration.

17.

According to the notes on bacterial detection, which statement best describes why foodborne bacteria are hard to notice?

a)

They are too small to be seen, smelled, or tasted in food

b)

They hide inside food packaging until opened

c)

They glow only under ultraviolet light

d)

They can be detected by a sour taste before illness occurs

18.

Which prevention strategy is emphasized for limiting bacterial hazards in foods?

a)

Control time and temperature

b)

Rely on color changes in food

c)

Add extra salt to every dish

d)

Store all foods at room temperature

19.

Based on the growth information provided, which statement is accurate about how some bacteria survive tough conditions?

a)

They form spores when food is scarce or conditions are unfavorable

b)

They immediately die if oxygen is present

c)

They become visible to the naked eye

d)

They stop producing any toxins at low temperatures

20.

Refer to the FAT TOM visual. Which pair correctly matches a letter with its growth factor for bacteria?

a)

F—Food, T—Temperature

b)

A—Air, O—Acidity

c)

T—Time, M—Minerals

d)

O—Odor, F—Freeze

21.

A large pot of soup is left out for several hours before refrigeration. Using the FAT TOM concept, which two factors most directly allowed rapid bacterial growth in this scenario?

a)

Time and Temperature

b)

Acidity and Oxygen

c)

Moisture and Minerals

d)

Freezing and Light exposure

22.

Which statement best defines TCS foods in the context of bacterial growth?

a)

Foods that require Time/Temperature Control for Safety because bacteria thrive in them

b)

Foods that are shelf-stable and safe at any temperature without monitoring

c)

Foods that are naturally acidic and therefore resist bacterial growth

d)

Foods that only include raw fruits and uncooked grains

23.

Which list includes only examples of TCS foods that bacteria love?

a)

Meat, poultry, dairy, eggs, cooked vegetables

b)

Raw fruit, dry pasta, whole spices, sugar

c)

Canned soda, unopened chips, dried beans, salt

d)

Whole apples, uncooked rice, bottled water, honey

24.

According to the acidity factor of FAT TOM, which statement is accurate about where bacteria prefer to grow?

a)

Bacteria prefer low-acid foods, and most foods we serve are low-acid

b)

Bacteria prefer highly acidic foods because acid speeds their reproduction

c)

Bacteria grow best in strongly alkaline foods only

d)

Acidity does not affect bacterial growth in foods

25.

What is the defined Temperature Danger Zone for food in which bacteria multiply rapidly?

a)

41°F to 135°F (5°C to 57°C)

b)

32°F to 212°F (0°C to 100°C)

c)

50°F to 100°F (10°C to 38°C)

d)

60°F to 140°F (16°C to 60°C)

26.

Within the Temperature Danger Zone, which narrower range is identified as where bacteria grow even more rapidly?

a)

70°F to 125°F (21°C to 52°C)

b)

32°F to 41°F (0°C to 5°C)

c)

125°F to 165°F (52°C to 74°C)

d)

41°F to 70°F (5°C to 21°C)

27.

A pan of cooked vegetables has cooled to 80°F and is left on the counter. Which action best limits bacterial growth based on the temperature guidance?

a)

Quickly chill the pan to bring the food below 41°F, keeping it out of the danger zone

b)

Leave it at room temperature until it reaches neutral pH

c)

Reheat it slightly to 100°F to keep it warm within the danger zone

d)

Add dairy to raise protein content before cooling

28.

According to FAT TOM, what is the safest practice regarding time in the temperature danger zone for potentially hazardous foods?

a)

Allow foods to remain in the danger zone because most bacteria die there

b)

Limit how long foods stay in the danger zone to reduce bacterial growth

c)

Rotate foods through the danger zone to equalize temperatures

d)

Ignore time if the food will be reheated later

29.

Which statement best describes bacterial oxygen needs as presented?

a)

All bacteria require oxygen to grow, so exposure to air always increases growth

b)

No bacteria can grow in oxygen, so vacuum packaging eliminates all risk

c)

Some bacteria need oxygen to grow, while others grow when oxygen isn’t present

d)

Oxygen is the easiest condition to control in kitchens

30.

Water activity (aw) is defined in the material as which of the following?

a)

The pH level of a food that affects sourness

b)

The amount of moisture available in food for bacterial growth

c)

The total water content regardless of availability

d)

The speed at which water boils in a food product

31.

What is the stated range of the water activity (aw) scale?

a)

0 to 10

b)

0.0 to 1.0

c)

1 to 100

d)

−1.0 to 1.0

32.

Which item correctly pairs the substance with its water activity value as given?

a)

Water has an aw of 0.0 because it contains no solutes

b)

Water has an aw of 1.0, representing maximum moisture availability

c)

Water has an aw of 10 due to full saturation

d)

Water has no measurable aw

33.

A caterer is cooling a large pan of soup on the counter. Which control action aligns with the guidance on time?

a)

Leave the soup at room temperature for hours because reheating will kill all bacteria

b)

Limit the time the soup remains in the danger zone by using shallow pans and rapid cooling

c)

Cover the soup tightly and ignore time since oxygen is the main concern

d)

Add water to lower aw and safely leave the soup out longer

34.

A food product is vacuum packaged to remove oxygen. Based on the oxygen guidance, which risk remains?

a)

No bacteria can grow, so the product is completely safe indefinitely

b)

Only molds can grow without oxygen, not bacteria

c)

Some bacteria can still grow when oxygen isn’t there, so oxygen removal alone isn’t sufficient

d)

Removing oxygen also lowers water activity to 0.0, stopping growth

35.

Which action best controls bacterial growth in TCS (Time/Temperature Control for Safety) foods?

a)

Keeping TCS food out of the temperature danger zone

b)

Letting TCS food cool slowly at room temperature

c)

Stirring TCS food occasionally without heating or cooling

d)

Covering TCS food but leaving it at ambient temperature

36.

A tray of cooked chicken is ready for service. To keep it safe, which guideline should be followed?

a)

Keep hot foods hot and cold foods cold

b)

Alternate hot foods between hot and cold every 30 minutes

c)

Keep all foods near room temperature for consistency

d)

Let hot foods sit until they reach lukewarm before serving

37.

A container of potato salad was left on a counter during a busy lunch rush. Based on safe practices for time and temperature, what is the best immediate step to reduce bacterial growth risk?

a)

Minimize the time it spends in the danger zone by returning it to cold holding promptly

b)

Stir it to distribute heat evenly and leave it out for faster service

c)

Cover it and keep it at the same room temperature to avoid condensation

d)

Move it closer to warm equipment so it does not feel cold

38.

Which organism on the major foodborne bacteria list is spelled with the genus Bacillus?

a)

Bacillus cereus

b)

Clostridium perfringens

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Vibrio vulnificus

39.

Which entry specifically names a toxin-producing E. coli group?

a)

Enterohemorrhagic and shiga toxin–producing E. coli

b)

Non-typhoidal Salmonella (NTS)

c)

Shigella spp.

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

40.

Which Clostridium species on the list is associated by name with botulinum toxin?

a)

Clostridium perfringens

b)

Clostridium botulinum

c)

Salmonella Typhi

d)

Vibrio vulnificus

41.

Which choice correctly identifies the pathogen listed as causing disease specifically labeled Typhi?

a)

Salmonella Typhi

b)

Shigella spp.

c)

Bacillus cereus

d)

Vibrio vulnificus

42.

The list includes a category labeled 'spp.' for multiple species. Which genera appear with 'spp.'?

a)

Salmonella and Shigella

b)

Bacillus and Vibrio

c)

Clostridium and Staphylococcus

d)

E. coli and Bacillus

43.

Which option names the staphylococcal species included in the major foodborne bacteria list?

a)

Staphylococcus epidermidis

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

d)

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

44.

Which item distinguishes between typhoidal and non-typhoidal disease within the same genus?

a)

Bacillus cereus vs. Bacillus subtilis

b)

Salmonella Typhi vs. Non-typhoidal Salmonella (NTS)

c)

Clostridium botulinum vs. Clostridium tetani

d)

Shigella spp. vs. Shigella dysenteriae

45.

Which pathogen on the list is a Vibrio species associated with foodborne illness?

a)

Vibrio cholerae

b)

Vibrio vulnificus

c)

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

d)

Vibrio alginolyticus

46.

Select the organism from the list that is a Clostridium species but not botulinum.

a)

Clostridium perfringens

b)

Clostridium difficile

c)

Clostridium tetani

d)

Clostridium septicum

47.

Which pair lists only organisms that appear by name in the major foodborne bacteria list?

a)

Bacillus cereus and Vibrio vulnificus

b)

Salmonella enterica and Listeria monocytogenes

c)

Campylobacter jejuni and E. coli O157:H7

d)

Norovirus and Hepatitis A virus

48.

Which food is commonly linked to Bacillus cereus (vomiting illness) according to the lesson?

a)

Cooked rice dishes such as fried rice and rice pudding

b)

Raw leafy greens served in salads

c)

Unpasteurized fruit juices like apple cider

d)

Cured meats such as salami and pepperoni

49.

A diner develops watery diarrhea a few hours after eating. Which Bacillus cereus–linked food from the chart most likely caused this symptom pattern?

a)

Cooked vegetables held warm on a buffet

b)

Grilled steak cooked to order

c)

Fresh berries served chilled

d)

Hard cheeses aged for months

50.

Which symptom pair best matches Bacillus cereus (vomiting illness) associated with cooked rice dishes?

a)

Nausea and vomiting

b)

High fever and sore throat

c)

Bloody diarrhea and dehydration

d)

Rash and joint pain

51.

Food safety staff are writing a brief SOP to prevent Bacillus cereus growth in cooked foods. Which core action should be listed first?

a)

Control time and temperature for safety

b)

Rinse cooked foods with cold potable water

c)

Add extra salt to reduce moisture

d)

Use wooden utensils to avoid metal contamination

52.

You are cooling a large pan of fried rice after lunch service. Which practice directly aligns with preventing Bacillus cereus according to the guidance?

a)

Cool food correctly before storage

b)

Leave the pan at room temperature until dinner

c)

Hold the rice at lukewarm temperatures for service

d)

Only taste-test the rice before cooling

53.

Which strain name is specifically associated with enterohemorrhagic and Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli that commonly causes hemorrhagic colitis?

a)

E. coli O157:H7

b)

E. coli K12

c)

E. coli O104:NF

d)

E. coli H7:O157

54.

A student meal includes undercooked ground beef and a side salad. Based on known risk foods, which item is most directly linked to infection by Shiga toxin–producing E. coli?

a)

Undercooked ground beef

b)

Pasteurized milk

c)

Well-cooked chicken breast

d)

Baked potatoes

55.

Which symptom progression best matches hemorrhagic colitis caused by Shiga toxin–producing E. coli?

a)

Diarrhea that becomes bloody, abdominal cramps, and possible kidney failure in severe cases

b)

Mild fever followed by rash and cough, with rare stomach upset

c)

Vomiting without diarrhea, followed by dehydration only

d)

Gradual constipation leading to paralysis of breathing muscles

56.

A cafeteria manager wants to reduce E. coli risk. Which practice aligns with the most important prevention measure for this pathogen?

a)

Strictly control time and temperature during cooking and holding

b)

Rely mainly on freezing meat before cooking

c)

Add extra spices to mask odors

d)

Soak produce in plain water for 5 minutes

57.

Which action best prevents cross-contamination by E. coli between raw meat and ready-to-eat foods in a kitchen?

a)

Use separate equipment and prevent contact between raw meat and ready-to-eat food

b)

Store raw and ready-to-eat items together to save space

c)

Marinate raw beef and salad greens in the same container to share flavors

d)

Cook ground beef to a rare doneness for tenderness

58.

Which illness is specifically associated with the bacterium Clostridium perfringens?

a)

Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis

b)

Listeriosis

c)

Botulism

d)

Salmonellosis

59.

According to the information on Clostridium perfringens, which foods are most commonly linked to this pathogen?

a)

Raw leafy greens and fresh fruit juices

b)

Meat, poultry, and dishes like stews and gravies made with them

c)

Soft cheeses made with unpasteurized milk

d)

Seafood such as oysters and sushi

60.

Which symptom is most commonly associated with Clostridium perfringens infection?

a)

High fever with rash

b)

Diarrhea and severe abdominal pain

c)

Persistent cough and sore throat

d)

Headache with blurred vision

61.

A cafeteria prepares large pans of chicken stew in the morning and plans to serve it at lunch. To prevent Clostridium perfringens growth, which practice is MOST important?

a)

Rinsing chicken with cold water before cooking

b)

Controlling time and temperature, including proper cooling, reheating, and hot holding

c)

Adding extra salt and spices to the stew

d)

Serving with clean ladles to avoid cross-contact

62.

DoK 1—Recall: Which illness is caused by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum?

a)

Salmonellosis

b)

Botulism

c)

Listeriosis

d)

Staphylococcal food poisoning

63.

DoK 2—Apply: A deli plans to vacuum-seal roasted vegetables for later use. Based on linked foods, which practice poses the greatest risk for Clostridium botulinum growth if not managed correctly?

a)

Storing the vegetables in reduced-oxygen packaging without proper controls

b)

Serving the vegetables immediately after cooking

c)

Keeping the vegetables uncovered in open-air containers

d)

Adding vinegar to the vegetables to increase acidity

64.

DoK 2—Apply: A food worker opens a can and notices bulging and damage. According to safe practices for Clostridium botulinum, what should be done first?

a)

Wipe the can and use the food if it smells normal

b)

Inspect and discard damaged canned food instead of using it

c)

Boil the contents to remove the bacteria and then serve

d)

Refrigerate the opened can to make it safe to use later

65.

DoK 3—Strategic thinking: A guest develops nausea and vomiting, followed later by weakness, double vision, and difficulty speaking. Given this symptom progression, which food history would most strongly suggest botulism?

a)

Fresh salad prepared and eaten immediately

b)

Home-canned vegetables with signs of spoilage

c)

Grilled chicken cooked to safe internal temperature

d)

Pasteurized milk consumed before the sell-by date

66.

Which bacteria are highlighted under cross-contamination control in this section?

a)

Escherichia coli only

b)

Salmonella spp., Salmonella Typhi, and Non-typhoidal Salmonella (NTS)

c)

Listeria monocytogenes and Campylobacter only

d)

Vibrio cholerae and Shigella only

67.

A food handler wants to prevent cross-contamination involving Salmonella. Based on the focus of this section, which group of pathogens should be the primary concern?

a)

Viruses that cause hepatitis A

b)

Fungi such as molds and yeasts

c)

Bacteria including Salmonella spp., Salmonella Typhi, and NTS

d)

Parasites like Giardia lamblia

68.

Which statement best distinguishes Salmonella Typhi from Non-typhoidal Salmonella (NTS) as listed in the section?

a)

Salmonella Typhi is a virus, while NTS is a bacterium

b)

Both are bacteria under the Salmonella group, but Typhi is listed separately from non-typhoidal strains

c)

NTS refers to fungal strains, whereas Typhi is a bacterial strain

d)

Typhi is non-bacterial and does not require cross-contamination control

69.

Which food is most commonly linked to Salmonella spp. according to the chart: poultry and eggs, baked bread, or canned soda?

a)

Poultry and eggs

b)

Baked bread

c)

Canned soda

70.

A patient presents with diarrhea, abdominal cramps, vomiting, and fever after eating undercooked eggs. Which illness is this pattern most consistent with?

a)

Salmonellosis

b)

Botulism

c)

Hepatitis A

d)

Norovirus infection

71.

What is the single most important prevention measure for Salmonella spp. in a kitchen setting?

a)

Prevent cross-contamination

b)

Add extra salt during cooking

c)

Store foods at room temperature to dry out

d)

Wash produce with plain water only

72.

A restaurant handles raw poultry near ready-to-eat salads. Which action best reduces Salmonella risk in this scenario?

a)

Cook poultry and eggs to minimum internal temperatures and keep diagnosed food handlers out of the operation

b)

Rinse raw poultry with cold water before placing it beside salads

c)

Use the same cutting board for speed, then refrigerate everything

d)

Season raw poultry early and leave it at room temperature to marinate