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CN Quiz-2

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The transport layer provides communication

a)

Host-to-host

b)

Process-to-process

c)

Router-to-router

d)

Link-to-link

2.

Transport layer addressing is done using

a)

IP address

b)

Port numbers

c)

MAC address

d)

Frame id

3.

Encapsulation and decapsulation at transport layer refer to

a)

DNS mapping

b)

Adding and removing header around data

c)

Encrypting data

d)

Multipath routing

4.

Multiplexing in transport layer means

a)

Sending same data twice

b)

Combining multiple streams over one connection

c)

Splitting packets

d)

Filtering duplicate packets

5.

Demultiplexing refers to

a)

Breaking packets at routers

b)

Delivering data to correct process using port

c)

Dropping packets

d)

DNS lookup

6.

UDP is a

a)

Connection-oriented protocol

b)

Connectionless, unreliable protocol

c)

Reliable stream protocol

d)

Congestion-controlled protocol

7.

TCP is designed to provide

a)

Unreliable datagram service

b)

Reliable end-to-end byte stream

c)

Only multicast service

d)

Only half-duplex communication

8.

TCP connection type is

a)

Broadcast

b)

Multicast

c)

Full duplex, point-to-point

d)

Simplex

9.

TCP is a

a)

Message-oriented protocol

b)

Byte-stream protocol

c)

Datagram only protocol

d)

File-based protocol

10.

A TCP segment has

a)

Only data

b)

Only header

c)

20-byte fixed header + optional part

d)

8-byte header

11.

Maximum TCP segment size depends on

a)

TTL

b)

MTU of link

c)

DNS settings

d)

HTTP method

12.

ACK number in TCP indicates

a)

Last received byte

b)

Next byte expected

c)

Connection ID

d)

Port number

13.

TCP window field is used for

a)

IP addressing

b)

Flow control

c)

Congestion notification

d)

Encryption

14.

TCP FIN flag is used to

a)

Reset connection

b)

Establish connection

c)

Gracefully release connection

d)

Send urgent data

15.

TCP SYN flag is used in

a)

Data transfer

b)

Connection teardown

c)

Connection setup

d)

Error reporting

16.

RST flag in TCP is used to

a)

Restart router

b)

Reset confused connection

c)

Increase congestion window

d)

Send multicast traffic

17.

UDP minimum header size is

a)

4 bytes

b)

6 bytes

c)

8 bytes

d)

20 bytes

18.

UDP checksum is

a)

Mandatory

b)

Optional but recommended

c)

Never used

d)

Only for IPv6

19.

When many hosts inject high traffic quickly, network suffers

a)

Encryption loss

b)

Congestion

c)

Collision

d)

Fragmentation only

20.

Congestion occurs at

a)

Hosts

b)

Routers

c)

Switches only

d)

DNS servers

21.

AIMD in congestion control stands for

a)

Addictive-Interactive Minimum-Division

b)

Additive Increase Multiplicative Decrease

c)

Algorithmic Increase Multi-Data

d)

Automatic IP Management Domain

22.

DNS is used for

a)

Routing packets

b)

Mapping names to IP addresses

c)

Error correction

d)

NAT translation

23.

DNS resource record has

a)

2 fields

b)

5-tuple fields

c)

10 bits only

d)

MAC table

24.

SMTP uses

a)

UDP

b)

TCP on port 25

c)

ICMP

d)

FTP transport

25.

SMTP is

a)

Binary only

b)

Simple ASCII protocol

c)

Multimedia only

d)

Encrypted by default

26.

POP3 works on

a)

Port 80

b)

Port 110

c)

Port 21

d)

Port 443

27.

POP3 in delete mode

a)

Keeps mail forever

b)

Removes mail after retrieval

c)

Encrypts mailbox

d)

Sends broadcast replies

28.

IMAP4 allows

a)

No server-side folders

b)

Checking header before download

c)

Mandatory delete after read

d)

TCP reset control

29.

MIME enables

a)

Text-only mail

b)

Multimedia content in email

c)

Only attachments

d)

Only ASCII

30.

TELNET provides

a)

Secure remote login

b)

Non-secure remote login

c)

Email delivery

d)

DNS service

31.

HTTP runs over

a)

UDP

b)

TCP at port 80

c)

ICMP

d)

ARP

32.

HTTP persistent connection means

a)

One TCP connection for all objects

b)

New connection per object

c)

No TCP required

d)

UDP streaming only

33.

HTTP response 200 means

a)

Client error

b)

Server error

c)

Successful request

d)

Redirection

34.

IPv4 address length is

a)

16 bits

b)

32 bits

c)

48 bits

d)

128 bits

35.

Class A address range starts from

a)

0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255

b)

128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255

c)

192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255

d)

224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255

36.

Class C default subnet mask is

a)

/8

b)

/16

c)

/24

d)

/30

37.

CIDR is used to

a)

Support only class A networks

b)

Avoid subnetting

c)

Provide classless hierarchical addressing

d)

Use NAT only

38.

255.255.255.0 corresponds to

a)

/8

b)

/16

c)

/24

d)

/28

39.

In subnetting, network portion is identified by

a)

MAC table

b)

Subnet mask

c)

Port number

d)

TTL

40.

Private IP ranges include

a)

10.0.0.0/8

b)

11.0.0.0/8

c)

200.0.0.0/8

d)

240.0.0.0/8

41.

NAT translates

a)

MAC ↔ switch port

b)

Public IP ↔ DNS

c)

Private IPs ↔ Public IP

d)

IPv6 ↔ IPv4 only

42.

The device performing NAT is usually

a)

Host PC

b)

Router/firewall

c)

Hub

d)

L2 switch

43.

Primary purpose of NAT

a)

Increase bandwidth

b)

Save private IPs and provide security

c)

Reduce routing updates

d)

Remove fragmentation

44.

PAT (Port Address Translation) allows

a)

One private IP only

b)

Multiple private IPs to share one public IP

c)

Only IPv6 translation

d)

Routing without tables

45.

IPv6 address size is

a)

32 bits

b)

64 bits

c)

128 bits

d)

256 bits

46.

IPv6 uses

a)

Dotted decimal

b)

Hexadecimal notation

c)

Binary text only

d)

ASCII format

47.

Loopback address in IPv6

a)

127.0.0.1

b)

0.0.0.0

c)

::1

d)

fe80::/10

48.

A key benefit of IPv6 over IPv4

a)

Packet switching change

b)

Unlimited routing tables

c)

Larger address space & auto-configuration

d)

Replaces TCP

49.

Routing decisions in networks are taken by

a)

Physical layer

b)

Transport layer

c)

Network layer

d)

Application layer

50.

Distance Vector Routing periodically exchanges

a)

Full link-state database

b)

Distance vector tables with neighbors only

c)

Only topology maps

d)

Congestion reports

51.

The fundamental metric used in Distance Vector Routing is

a)

CPU cycles

b)

Hop count or cost estimate

c)

Power consumption

d)

Buffer size

52.

Count-to-Infinity problem occurs in

a)

Link State Routing

b)

Distance Vector Routing

c)

Shortest path bridging

d)

Frame relay

53.

One common solution to Count-to-Infinity problem is

a)

Tunneling

b)

UDP encapsulation

c)

Split horizon and poison reverse

d)

NAT translation

54.

In split horizon technique

a)

Routes are broadcast to all networks always

b)

Distance to unreachable node is always zero

c)

Router does not advertise a route back on the incoming interface

d)

Only default route is exchanged

55.

Link State Routing requires each router to

a)

Maintain only neighbor distances

b)

Exchange entire topology information

c)

Never update tables

d)

Flood only partial updates

56.

Link State packets are distributed by

a)

Token passing

b)

Stop-and-wait

c)

Flooding

d)

ARP broadcast

57.

To compute shortest paths in Link State Routing, routers use

a)

DFS

b)

BFS

c)

Dijkstra’s algorithm

d)

Floyd-Warshall

58.

VCI refers to

a)

Virtual Channel Interface

b)

Variable Circuit Identifier

c)

Virtual Circuit Identifier

d)

Virtual Connection Instrument

59.

Packet delay in datagram networks is

a)

Constant for all packets

b)

Zero

c)

Variable based on load and route

d)

Variable based on load and route

60.

Virtual circuits provide

a)

Per packet route selection

b)

A single pre-established logical path

c)

Only LAN-based routing

d)

No need for routing tables

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